The process of convergence is primarily controlled by which muscles?
A
Lateral rectus muscles
B
Superior oblique muscles
C
Medial rectus muscles
D
Inferior oblique muscles
Question 502Single Answer
Which part of the retina lacks photoreceptors?
A
Fovea centralis
B
Macula lutea
C
Optic disc
D
Peripheral retina
Question 503Single Answer
The ciliary muscle is innervated by which cranial nerve?
A
Oculomotor (III)
B
Optic (II)
C
Trigeminal (V)
D
Facial (VII)
Question 504Single Answer
The primary function of the retinal ganglion cells is to:
A
Transmit visual signals to the brain
B
Detect light
C
Produce rhodopsin
D
Regulate aqueous humor
Question 505Single Answer
Which structure is responsible for the drainage of aqueous humor into the bloodstream?
A
Ciliary processes
B
Nasolacrimal duct
C
Lacrimal sac
D
Canal of Schlemm
Question 506Single Answer
The superior oblique muscle passes through which structure?
A
Optic foramen
B
Lacrimal sac
C
Canal of Schlemm
D
Trochlea
Question 507Single Answer
Which layer of the cornea is responsible for its transparency?
A
Epithelium
B
Bowmanβs membrane
C
Endothelium
D
Stroma
Question 508Single Answer
The lacrimal puncta are located in which part of the eye?
A
Cornea
B
Eyelids
C
Conjunctiva
D
Sclera
Question 509Single Answer
Which photoreceptor is responsible for high-acuity vision in bright light?
A
Cones
B
Rods
C
Bipolar cells
D
Ganglion cells
Question 510Single Answer
The choroid is continuous with which structure at the front of the eye?
A
Cornea
B
Iris
C
Sclera
D
Lens
Question 511Single Answer
The primary function of the dilator pupillae muscle is to:
A
Constrict the pupil
B
Dilate the pupil
C
Focus the lens
D
Move the eyeball
Question 512Single Answer
Which structure is responsible for the production of the vitreous humor?
A
Ciliary body
B
Retina
C
Lens
D
None of the above
Question 513Single Answer
The optic nerve carries visual information to which part of the brain?
A
Cerebellum
B
Temporal lobe
C
Occipital lobe
D
Thalamus
Question 514Single Answer
The inferior rectus muscle is innervated by which cranial nerve?
A
Facial (VII)
B
Trochlear (IV)
C
Abducens (VI)
D
Oculomotor (III)
Question 515Single Answer
Which structure is responsible for the lubrication of the cornea?
A
All of the above
B
Meibomian glands
C
Goblet cells
D
Lacrimal gland
Question 516Single Answer
The fovea centralis contains which type of photoreceptor?
A
Rods only
B
Both rods and cones
C
Cones only
D
Neither rods nor cones
Question 517Single Answer
The primary function of the sphincter pupillae muscle is to:
A
Dilate the pupil
B
Move the eyeball
C
Focus the lens
D
Constrict the pupil
Question 518Single Answer
Which structure is responsible for the attachment of the extraocular muscles?
A
Sclera
B
Cornea
C
Iris
D
Lens
Question 519Single Answer
The retinal pigment epithelium is located between which two structures?
A
Iris and lens
B
Choroid and sclera
C
Retina and vitreous
D
Retina and choroid
Question 520Single Answer
Which muscle is responsible for the depression and extorsion of the eyeball?
A
Inferior rectus
B
Superior rectus
C
Superior oblique
D
Inferior oblique
Question 521Single Answer
The tear filmβs mucin layer is produced by which cells?
A
Goblet cells
B
Meibomian gland cells
C
Lacrimal gland cells
D
Ciliary epithelial cells
Question 522Single Answer
The primary function of the optic disc is to:
A
Focus light
B
Transmit visual signals
C
Produce aqueous humor
D
Regulate pupil size
Question 523Single Answer
Which structure is responsible for the nourishment of the lens?
A
Aqueous humor
B
Vitreous humor
C
Choroid
D
Retina
Question 524Single Answer
The lateral rectus muscle is responsible for which eye movement?
A
Abduction
B
Adduction
C
Elevation
D
Depression
Question 525Single Answer
Which part of the cornea is responsible for its strength?
A
Epithelium
B
Bowmanβs membrane
C
Stroma
D
Endothelium
Question 526Single Answer
The primary function of the ciliary epithelium is to:
A
Focus light
B
Produce aqueous humor
C
Regulate pupil size
D
Move the eyeball
Question 527Single Answer
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the motor innervation of the sphincter pupillae?
A
Optic (II)
B
Facial (VII)
C
Trigeminal (V)
D
Oculomotor (III)
Question 528Single Answer
The ora serrata is the junction between which two structures?
A
Cornea and sclera
B
Choroid and sclera
C
Iris and lens
D
Retina and ciliary body
Question 529Single Answer
The primary function of the meibomian glands is to:
A
Produce the aqueous layer of the tear film
B
Produce the lipid layer of the tear film
C
Produce the mucin layer of the tear film
D
Regulate intraocular pressure
Question 530Single Answer
Which structure is responsible for the high-acuity vision in the retina?
A
Optic disc
B
Ora serrata
C
Peripheral retina
D
Fovea centralis
Question 531Single Answer
The primary function of the superior oblique muscle is:
A
Elevation
B
Depression
C
Intorsion
D
Abduction
Question 532Single Answer
The lacrimal gland is primarily responsible for producing which component of the tear film?
A
Lipid layer
B
All of the above
C
Mucin layer
D
Aqueous layer
Question 533Single Answer
Which structure is responsible for the drainage of tears into the nasal cavity?
A
Nasolacrimal duct
B
Canaliculi
C
Lacrimal puncta
D
Lacrimal sac
Question 534Single Answer
The primary function of the retinal pigment epithelium is to:
A
Absorb stray light
B
Produce aqueous humor
C
Focus light
D
Regulate pupil size
Question 535Single Answer
Which muscle is responsible for the adduction of the eyeball?
A
Lateral rectus
B
Medial rectus
C
Superior rectus
D
Inferior rectus
Question 536Single Answer
The cornea receives its nourishment primarily from which source?
A
Choroid
B
Vitreous humor
C
Aqueous humor
D
Retinal blood vessels
Question 537Single Answer
The primary function of the inferior oblique muscle is:
A
Intorsion
B
Extorsion
C
Adduction
D
Depression
Question 538Single Answer
Which structure is responsible for the production of the tear filmβs lipid layer?
A
Lacrimal gland
B
Meibomian glands
C
Goblet cells
D
Ciliary body
Question 539Single Answer
The optic nerve is formed by the axons of which cells?
A
Photoreceptors
B
Bipolar cells
C
Ganglion cells
D
Amacrine cells
Question 540Single Answer
Which structure is responsible for the transparency of the lens?
A
Lens fibers
B
Lens capsule
C
Zonules of Zinn
D
Ciliary muscle
Question 541Single Answer
The primary function of the canal of Schlemm is to:
A
Produce aqueous humor
B
Focus light
C
Nourish the cornea
D
Drain aqueous humor
Question 542Single Answer
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the motor innervation of the superior rectus?
A
Abducens (VI)
B
Trochlear (IV)
C
Oculomotor (III)
D
Facial (VII)
Question 543Single Answer
The primary function of the choroid is to:
A
Focus light
B
Control eye movement
C
Produce aqueous humor
D
Nourish the retina
Question 544Single Answer
Which muscle is responsible for the elevation and intorsion of the eyeball?
A
Superior oblique
B
Inferior rectus
C
Superior rectus
D
Inferior oblique
Question 545Single Answer
The primary function of the lens capsule is to:
A
Focus light
B
Enclose the lens
C
Produce aqueous humor
D
Regulate pupil size
Question 546Single Answer
Which structure is responsible for the drainage of tears into the lacrimal sac?
A
Lacrimal puncta
B
Nasolacrimal duct
C
Canaliculi
D
Lacrimal gland
Question 547Single Answer
The retinal pigment epithelium is responsible for which function?
A
Producing aqueous humor
B
Regulating pupil size
C
Focusing light
D
Absorbing stray light
Question 548Single Answer
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the motor innervation of the lateral rectus?
A
Oculomotor (III)
B
Abducens (VI)
C
Trochlear (IV)
D
Facial (VII)
Question 549Single Answer
What is the law of refraction also known as?
A
Snellβs law
B
Newtonβs law
C
Keplerβs law
D
Hookeβs law
Question 550Single Answer
The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection according to which law?
A
Law of refraction
B
Law of reflection
C
Law of diffraction
D
Law of dispersion
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Ophthalmic Technician
Question 551Single Answer
What is the unit of power of a lens?
A
Watt
B
Joule
C
Diopter
D
Meter
Question 552Single Answer
A convex lens is also known as what type of lens?
A
Diverging lens
B
Converging lens
C
Cylindrical lens
D
Plano-concave lens
Question 553Single Answer
What is the primary cause of chromatic aberration in lenses?
A
Variation in lens thickness
B
Diffraction of light
C
Reflection of light
D
Dispersion of light
Question 554Single Answer
A prism deviates light by which process?
A
Refraction
B
Reflection
C
Diffraction
D
Dispersion
Question 555Single Answer
The power of a lens is calculated as the reciprocal of what?
A
Wavelength of light
B
Radius of curvature
C
Focal length in meters
D
Angle of incidence
Question 556Single Answer
Which type of lens is used to correct myopia?
A
Convex lens
B
Cylindrical lens
C
Concave lens
D
Bifocal lens
Question 557Single Answer
What is the primary use of a prism in ophthalmology?
A
Correcting astigmatism
B
Correcting strabismus
C
Measuring intraocular pressure
D
Focusing light on the retina
Question 558Single Answer
Spherical aberration in lenses is caused by what?
A
Light rays passing through the lens center
B
Light rays passing through the lens periphery
C
Equal refraction of all wavelengths
D
Uniform lens thickness
Question 559Single Answer
The angle of deviation in a prism depends on which factor?
A
Wavelength of light
B
Lens power
C
Angle of the prism
D
Focal length
Question 560Single Answer
Which type of lens is used to correct hyperopia?
A
Concave lens
B
Cylindrical lens
C
Convex lens
D
Plano-concave lens
Question 561Single Answer
What is the term for the bending of light as it passes from one medium to another?
A
Reflection
B
Diffraction
C
Refraction
D
Dispersion
Question 562Single Answer
A cylindrical lens is primarily used to correct which condition?
A
Myopia
B
Hyperopia
C
Presbyopia
D
Astigmatism
Question 563Single Answer
The focal point of a convex lens is:
A
Virtual and erect
B
Real and erect
C
Virtual and inverted
D
Real and inverted
Question 564Single Answer
What is the primary cause of spherical aberration?
A
Single wavelength of light
B
Uniform lens thickness
C
Equal refraction of light
D
Uneven lens curvature
Question 565Single Answer
The power of a prism is measured in which unit?
A
Diopter
B
Watt
C
Prism diopter
D
Meter
Question 566Single Answer
Which optical phenomenon causes a rainbow?
A
Dispersion
B
Refraction
C
Reflection
D
Diffraction
Question 567Single Answer
A concave lens is also known as what type of lens?
A
Converging lens
B
Bifocal lens
C
Cylindrical lens
D
Diverging lens
Question 568Single Answer
The vertex power of a lens is measured by which instrument?
A
Lensometer
B
Keratometer
C
Ophthalmoscope
D
Retinoscope
Question 569Single Answer
What is the primary function of a prism in ophthalmic glasses?
A
Aligning visual axes
B
Correcting refractive errors
C
Increasing lens power
D
Reducing chromatic aberration
Question 570Single Answer
Chromatic aberration is caused by the variation in what?
A
Lens thickness
B
Angle of incidence
C
Lens curvature
D
Refractive index for different wavelengths
Question 571Single Answer
The focal length of a lens with a power of +2 diopters is:
A
0.5 meters
B
1 meter
C
2 meters
D
0.25 meters
Question 572Single Answer
Which type of lens has different powers in different meridians?
A
Spherical lens
B
Bifocal lens
C
Plano-convex lens
D
Cylindrical lens
Question 573Single Answer
The law of reflection states that the angle of incidence is equal to:
A
Angle of reflection
B
Angle of refraction
C
Angle of deviation
D
Angle of dispersion
Question 574Single Answer
A prism with a larger apex angle will cause:
A
More deviation
B
Less deviation
C
No deviation
D
Equal deviation
Question 575Single Answer
Which lens is used to correct presbyopia?
A
Concave lens
B
Convex lens
C
Bifocal lens
D
Cylindrical lens
Question 576Single Answer
The primary cause of optical aberrations in ophthalmic glasses is:
A
All of the above
B
Lens curvature
C
Lens thickness
D
Lens material
Question 577Single Answer
The power of a lens is inversely proportional to what?
A
Radius of curvature
B
Focal length
C
Wavelength of light
D
Angle of incidence
Question 578Single Answer
A prism is used in ophthalmology to correct which condition?
A
Myopia
B
Hyperopia
C
Strabismus
D
Astigmatism
Question 579Single Answer
The focal point of a concave lens is:
A
Real and inverted
B
Virtual and inverted
C
Real and erect
D
Virtual and erect
Question 580Single Answer
Which optical phenomenon is responsible for the bending of light around edges?
A
Reflection
B
Refraction
C
Diffraction
D
Dispersion
Question 581Single Answer
The power of a lens is measured in which unit?
A
Diopter
B
Watt
C
Joule
D
Meter
Question 582Single Answer
A cylindrical lens corrects which type of refractive error?
A
Myopia
B
Hyperopia
C
Presbyopia
D
Astigmatism
Question 583Single Answer
The primary use of a prism in ophthalmic practice is to:
A
Correct refractive errors
B
Reduce chromatic aberration
C
Increase lens power
D
Align visual axes in strabismus
Question 584Single Answer
The focal length of a lens with a power of -4 diopters is:
A
-1 meter
B
-0.5 meters
C
-0.25 meters
D
-2 meters
Question 585Single Answer
Which type of lens is used to correct astigmatism?
A
Spherical lens
B
Bifocal lens
C
Plano-convex lens
D
Cylindrical lens
Question 586Single Answer
The law of refraction relates the angle of incidence to what?
A
Angle of reflection
B
Angle of refraction
C
Angle of deviation
D
Angle of dispersion
Question 587Single Answer
Chromatic aberration is most noticeable in which type of lens?
A
Concave lens
B
Convex lens
C
Cylindrical lens
D
Plano-concave lens
Question 588Single Answer
A lens with a power of +5 diopters has a focal length of:
A
2 meters
B
0.5 meters
C
1 meter
D
0.2 meters
Question 589Single Answer
Which optical phenomenon causes light to spread into different colors?
A
Reflection
B
Refraction
C
Diffraction
D
Dispersion
Question 590Single Answer
A convex lens is used to correct which condition?
A
Myopia
B
Astigmatism
C
Hyperopia
D
Strabismus
Question 591Single Answer
The primary cause of spherical aberration in lenses is:
A
Uniform lens thickness
B
Equal refraction of light
C
Uneven lens curvature
D
Single wavelength of light
Question 592Single Answer
A prism deviates light toward which part of the prism?
A
Apex
B
Edge
C
Center
D
Base
Question 593Single Answer
The law of reflection applies to which type of surface?
A
Spherical surface
B
Plane surface
C
Cylindrical surface
D
Irregular surface
Question 594Single Answer
The primary function of a prism in ophthalmic glasses is to:
A
Correct refractive errors
B
Increase lens power
C
Align visual axes
D
Reduce chromatic aberration
Question 595Single Answer
The focal length of a lens with a power of -2 diopters is:
A
-0.5 meters
B
-1 meter
C
-2 meters
D
-0.25 meters
Question 596Single Answer
Which optical phenomenon is responsible for the formation of a rainbow?
A
Reflection
B
Refraction
C
Diffraction
D
Dispersion
Question 597Single Answer
A cylindrical lens is used to correct which condition?
A
Myopia
B
Astigmatism
C
Hyperopia
D
Presbyopia
Question 598Single Answer
The power of a lens is calculated as:
A
Focal length in meters
B
Angle of incidence
C
Radius of curvature
D
Reciprocal of focal length in meters
Question 599Single Answer
Which type of lens has a uniform power in all meridians?
A
Cylindrical lens
B
Plano-concave lens
C
Bifocal lens
D
Spherical lens
Question 600Single Answer
The primary cause of chromatic aberration is:
A
Variation in refractive index for different wavelengths
B
Uneven lens curvature
C
Uniform lens thickness
D
Equal refraction of light
Question 601Single Answer
A prism with a smaller apex angle will cause:
A
Less deviation
B
More deviation
C
No deviation
D
Equal deviation
Question 602Single Answer
Which type of lens is used to correct presbyopia?
A
Concave lens
B
Bifocal lens
C
Cylindrical lens
D
Convex lens
Question 603Single Answer
The power of a lens with a focal length of 0.25 meters is:
A
+2 diopters
B
+4 diopters
C
-2 diopters
D
-4 diopters
Question 604Single Answer
The primary cause of spherical aberration is:
A
Uneven lens curvature
B
Uniform lens thickness
C
Equal refraction of light
D
Single wavelength of light
Question 605Single Answer
The focal length of a lens with a power of +3 diopters is:
A
1 meter
B
0.5 meters
C
0.33 meters
D
2 meters
Question 606Single Answer
The power of a lens is measured in which unit?
A
Diopter
B
Watt
C
Joule
D
Meter
Question 607Single Answer
Which bacterium is most commonly associated with bacterial conjunctivitis?
A
Clostridium botulinum
B
Escherichia coli
C
Salmonella typhi
D
Staphylococcus aureus
Question 608Single Answer
What type of organism is responsible for herpes simplex keratitis?
A
Virus
B
Bacterium
C
Fungus
D
Protozoan
Question 609Single Answer
Which fungus is a common cause of fungal keratitis?
A
Streptococcus
B
Aspergillus
C
Herpes virus
D
Mycobacterium
Question 610Single Answer
What is the primary mode of transmission for bacterial conjunctivitis?
A
Direct contact
B
Airborne
C
Waterborne
D
Vector-borne
Question 611Single Answer
Which virus is associated with epidemic keratoconjunctivitis?
A
Hepatitis virus
B
Influenza virus
C
Adenovirus
D
Rabies virus
Question 612Single Answer
Which of the following is a common bacterial cause of blepharitis?
A
Staphylococcus epidermidis
B
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C
Bacillus cereus
D
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Question 613Single Answer
What type of organism causes trachoma?
A
Virus
B
Parasite
C
Fungus
D
Bacterium
Question 614Single Answer
Which bacterium is responsible for trachoma?
A
Moraxella catarrhalis
B
Streptococcus pneumoniae
C
Haemophilus influenzae
D
Chlamydia trachomatis
Question 615Single Answer
Which fungal infection is commonly associated with contact lens use?
A
Candida albicans
B
Fusarium
C
Rhizopus
D
Cryptococcus
Question 616Single Answer
What is the primary source of Acanthamoeba keratitis?
A
Insect bites
B
Airborne spores
C
Foodborne transmission
D
Contaminated water
Question 617Single Answer
Which organism is a common cause of endophthalmitis following cataract surgery?
A
Escherichia coli
B
Staphylococcus aureus
C
Klebsiella pneumoniae
D
Salmonella enterica
Question 618Single Answer
Which viral infection can lead to dendritic ulcers in the cornea?
A
Cytomegalovirus
B
Varicella-zoster virus
C
Herpes simplex virus
D
Epstein-Barr virus
Question 619Single Answer
What is the primary reservoir for fungal ocular infections?
A
Soil and organic matter
B
Human skin
C
Animal fur
D
Stagnant water
Question 620Single Answer
Which bacterium is associated with neonatal conjunctivitis (ophthalmia neonatorum)?
A
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B
Streptococcus pyogenes
C
Bacillus subtilis
D
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Question 621Single Answer
Which virus is a common cause of viral conjunctivitis?
A
Hepatitis C virus
B
Adenovirus
C
Human papillomavirus
D
Dengue virus
Question 622Single Answer
What type of organism is Acanthamoeba?
A
Protozoan
B
Virus
C
Bacterium
D
Fungus
Question 623Single Answer
Which fungus is commonly implicated in corneal ulcers in agricultural workers?
A
Candida
B
Fusarium
C
Aspergillus
D
Mucor
Question 624Single Answer
Which of the following is a gram-positive bacterium causing ocular infections?
A
Streptococcus pneumoniae
B
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C
Escherichia coli
D
Proteus mirabilis
Question 625Single Answer
What is the primary route of infection for viral keratitis?
A
Contaminated food
B
Airborne droplets
C
Direct contact with infected secretions
D
Vector transmission
Question 626Single Answer
Which organism is a leading cause of post-traumatic fungal keratitis?
A
Streptococcus
B
Staphylococcus
C
Aspergillus
D
Herpes virus
Question 627Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a conjunctival smear?
A
To measure intraocular pressure
B
To evaluate lens opacity
C
To assess retinal function
D
To identify causative organisms in infections
Question 628Single Answer
Which stain is commonly used to detect bacteria in conjunctival smears?
A
KOH stain
B
Gramβs stain
C
Giemsa stain
D
Hematoxylin-eosin stain
Question 629Single Answer
What does KOH staining primarily detect in ocular samples?
A
Bacteria
B
Viruses
C
Fungi
D
Parasites
Question 630Single Answer
Which medium is commonly used for bacterial culture of conjunctival scrapings?
A
Sabouraud agar
B
Blood agar
C
Lowenstein-Jensen medium
D
MacConkey agar
Question 631Single Answer
What is the first step in preparing a conjunctival smear?
A
Staining the sample
B
Collecting the sample with a sterile swab
C
Culturing the sample
D
Fixing the slide
Question 632Single Answer
Which of the following is a key component of Gramβs staining procedure?
A
Methylene blue
B
Crystal violet
C
Eosin
D
Congo red
Question 633Single Answer
What is the purpose of using a counterstain in Gramβs staining?
A
To kill the bacteria
B
To differentiate gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
C
To fix the sample on the slide
D
To enhance fungal visibility
Question 634Single Answer
Which solution is used in KOH preparation to dissolve non-fungal material?
A
Ethanol
B
Sodium chloride
C
Potassium hydroxide
D
Formalin
Question 635Single Answer
What type of microscope is used to examine KOH-stained slides?
A
Light microscope
B
Electron microscope
C
Fluorescence microscope
D
Phase-contrast microscope
Question 636Single Answer
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of gram-positive bacteria on staining?
A
Pink or red color
B
Purple or blue color
C
Green color
D
Yellow color
Question 637Single Answer
What is the purpose of alcohol in Gramβs staining procedure?
A
To fix the smear
B
To stain the bacteria
C
To decolorize the slide
D
To hydrate the sample
Question 638Single Answer
Which agar is used for culturing fungi from conjunctival scrapings?
A
Blood agar
B
Sabouraud agar
C
MacConkey agar
D
Nutrient agar
Question 639Single Answer
What is the ideal temperature for incubating fungal cultures?
A
25β30Β°C
B
37Β°C
C
45Β°C
D
50Β°C
Question 640Single Answer
Which of the following is a common error in conjunctival smear collection?
A
Using a sterile swab
B
Storing the sample at room temperature
C
Contaminating the sample with skin flora
D
Using a fixative immediately
Question 641Single Answer
What is the role of safranin in Gramβs staining?
A
Primary stain
B
Mordant
C
Counterstain
D
Decolorizer
Question 642Single Answer
Which of the following organisms is best visualized with KOH staining?
A
Staphylococcus aureus
B
Herpes simplex virus
C
Candida albicans
D
Chlamydia trachomatis
Question 643Single Answer
What is the purpose of fixing a conjunctival smear before staining?
A
To kill the bacteria
B
To dissolve cellular debris
C
To enhance color contrast
D
To adhere the sample to the slide
Question 644Single Answer
Which staining method is used to identify Acanthamoeba in corneal scrapings?
A
Gramβs stain
B
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
C
KOH stain
D
Giemsa stain
Question 645Single Answer
What is the typical incubation period for bacterial cultures from conjunctival samples?
A
24β48 hours
B
1β2 weeks
C
3β4 days
D
1β2 hours
Question 646Single Answer
Which of the following indicates a fungal infection on KOH staining?
A
Gram-negative rods
B
Gram-positive cocci
C
Presence of hyphae or spores
D
Viral inclusion bodies
Question 647Single Answer
What is the most common route of transmission for ocular infections?
A
Foodborne
B
Airborne
C
Bloodborne
D
Direct contact
Question 648Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of cross-infection in an ophthalmic setting?
A
Sharing unsterilized eye droppers
B
Using a sterilized tonometer
C
Wearing gloves during examination
D
Cleaning instruments with alcohol
Question 649Single Answer
What does antisepsis refer to in the context of ocular care?
A
Complete elimination of microorganisms
B
Use of autoclaves for equipment
C
Sterilization of surgical instruments
D
Reduction of microorganisms on living tissue
Question 650Single Answer
Which solution is commonly used as an antiseptic in ophthalmic procedures?
A
Povidone-iodine
B
Sodium chloride
C
Distilled water
D
Formalin
Question 651Single Answer
What is the primary goal of asepsis in an ophthalmic clinic?
A
To prevent infection during procedures
B
To reduce patient discomfort
C
To speed up recovery
D
To improve visual acuity
Question 652Single Answer
Which of the following is a common source of cross-infection in eye clinics?
A
Sterilized instruments
B
Contaminated contact lenses
C
Autoclaved drapes
D
Disposable gloves
Question 653Single Answer
What is the recommended concentration of povidone-iodine for ocular antisepsis?
A
15β20%
B
1β2%
C
5β10%
D
0.1β0.5%
Question 654Single Answer
Which practice best prevents cross-infection during eye examinations?
A
Using disposable tonometer tips
B
Reusing contact lenses without cleaning
C
Sharing eye droppers among patients
D
Storing instruments in open containers
Question 655Single Answer
What is the primary difference between antisepsis and asepsis?
A
Antisepsis is for instruments, asepsis is for skin
B
Antisepsis uses heat, asepsis uses chemicals
C
Antisepsis involves living tissue, asepsis involves sterile conditions
D
Antisepsis is permanent, asepsis is temporary
Question 656Single Answer
Which of the following is a key measure to prevent ocular infections in a clinical setting?
A
Using unsterilized instruments
B
Hand washing before and after patient contact
C
Storing eye drops in a refrigerator
D
Avoiding patient follow-ups
Question 657Single Answer
What is the role of autoclaving in infection prevention?
A
To sterilize surgical instruments
B
To reduce microbial load on skin
C
To clean contact lenses
D
To disinfect eye drops
Question 658Single Answer
Which organism is most likely to cause an infection due to improper contact lens hygiene?
A
Acanthamoeba
B
Streptococcus pneumoniae
C
Candida albicans
D
Herpes simplex virus
Question 659Single Answer
What is a common method to sterilize ophthalmic instruments?
A
Boiling
B
Autoclaving
C
Soaking in water
D
Air drying
Question 660Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of an antiseptic used in eye care?
A
Glucose solution
B
Sodium bicarbonate
C
Chlorhexidine
D
Saline solution
Question 661Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of using sterile drapes during ocular surgery?
A
To improve visibility
B
To absorb excess fluid
C
To reduce patient anxiety
D
To maintain a sterile field
Question 662Single Answer
Which of the following is a risk factor for cross-infection in an eye clinic?
A
Using disposable gloves
B
Proper hand hygiene
C
Cleaning surfaces with alcohol
D
Reusing unsterilized tonometer tips
Question 663Single Answer
What is the most effective way to prevent viral conjunctivitis transmission?
A
Avoiding hand washing
B
Isolating infected patients
C
Using shared towels
D
Ignoring sterilization protocols
Question 664Single Answer
Which chemical is used to disinfect ophthalmic instruments?
A
Ethanol
B
Sugar syrup
C
Distilled water
D
Lemon extract
Question 665Single Answer
What is the recommended method to clean contact lenses to prevent infections?
A
Using tap water
B
Boiling the lenses
C
Storing in saline only
D
Using a multipurpose lens solution
Question 666Single Answer
Which of the following is a key component of aseptic technique in ocular surgery?
A
Avoiding hand washing
B
Operating in a non-ventilated room
C
Reusing surgical drapes
D
Using sterile gloves and instruments
Question 667Single Answer
What is the normal color of urine observed during gross examination?
A
Dark brown
B
Straw yellow
C
Bright red
D
Green
Question 668Single Answer
Which test is used to detect albumin in urine?
A
Benedictβs test
B
Ninhydrin test
C
Biuret test
D
Heat and acetic acid test
Question 669Single Answer
What does the presence of sugar in urine indicate?
A
Diabetes mellitus
B
Urinary tract infection
C
Kidney stones
D
Dehydration
Question 670Single Answer
Which reagent is used to test for sugar in urine?
A
Nitric acid
B
Sulfosalicylic acid
C
Benedictβs solution
D
Silver nitrate
Question 671Single Answer
What is the normal pH range of urine?
A
1.0β3.0
B
2.0β4.0
C
9.0β11.0
D
4.5β8.0
Question 672Single Answer
What does turbidity in urine during gross examination suggest?
A
Normal urine
B
High glucose levels
C
Presence of infection or crystals
D
Low protein levels
Question 673Single Answer
Which of the following is a qualitative test for albumin in urine?
A
Benedictβs test
B
Sulfosalicylic acid test
C
Rotheraβs test
D
Hayβs test
Question 674Single Answer
What color change indicates a positive Benedictβs test for sugar in urine?
A
Blue to green
B
Yellow to green
C
Blue to red
D
Colorless to pink
Question 675Single Answer
What is the specific gravity of normal urine?
A
1.060β1.080
B
1.040β1.050
C
1.002β1.030
D
1.000β1.001
Question 676Single Answer
Which of the following conditions can cause proteinuria (albumin in urine)?
A
Diabetes mellitus
B
Nephrotic syndrome
C
Hypoglycemia
D
Hyperthyroidism
Question 677Single Answer
What is the first step in gross examination of urine?
A
Observing color and clarity
B
Measuring pH
C
Testing for sugar
D
Checking for albumin
Question 678Single Answer
Which of the following is a common cause of red-colored urine?
A
Dehydration
B
Hematuria
C
High glucose levels
D
Low protein levels
Question 679Single Answer
What does a positive heat and acetic acid test indicate in urine?
A
Presence of sugar
B
Presence of bile salts
C
Presence of ketones
D
Presence of albumin
Question 680Single Answer
Which test is used to confirm glycosuria in urine?
A
Benedictβs test
B
Biuret test
C
Hayβs test
D
Rotheraβs test
Question 681Single Answer
What is the normal volume of urine produced by an adult in 24 hours?
A
800β2000 mL
B
100β200 mL
C
3000β4000 mL
D
50β100 mL
Question 682Single Answer
Which of the following is a sign of urinary tract infection during gross examination?
A
Clear urine
B
Cloudy urine
C
Straw yellow urine
D
Odorless urine
Question 683Single Answer
What is the principle behind the sulfosalicylic acid test for albumin?
A
Precipitation of proteins
B
Reduction of sugars
C
Oxidation of ketones
D
Detection of bile pigments
Question 684Single Answer
Which of the following is a reducing sugar detected by Benedictβs test?
A
Both A and C
B
Sucrose
C
Maltose
D
Glucose
Question 685Single Answer
What does a specific gravity below 1.002 indicate in urine?
A
Dehydration
B
Diabetes insipidus
C
Kidney failure
D
Hypernatremia
Question 686Single Answer
Which of the following is a common error in urine sample collection?
A
Using a sterile container
B
Collecting a midstream sample
C
Refrigerating the sample
D
Contaminating with skin bacteria
Question 687Single Answer
What does DLC stand for in blood slide examination?
A
Differential Leukocyte Count
B
Direct Leukocyte Count
C
Differential Lymphocyte Count
D
Direct Lymphocyte Count
Question 688Single Answer
Which stain is commonly used for differential leukocyte count (DLC)?
A
Gramβs stain
B
Leishmanβs stain
C
KOH stain
D
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Question 689Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of preparing a blood slide for DLC?
A
To count red blood cells
B
To identify types of white blood cells
C
To detect blood glucose levels
D
To measure hemoglobin levels
Question 690Single Answer
Which parasite is detected in blood slides for malaria diagnosis?
A
Leishmania
B
Trypanosoma
C
Plasmodium
D
Toxoplasma
Question 691Single Answer
What is the ideal thickness of a blood smear for DLC?
A
Thick smear
B
Clotted smear
C
Multilayered smear
D
Thin smear
Question 692Single Answer
Which stain is used to detect malarial parasites in blood slides?
A
Hematoxylin-eosin stain
B
Giemsa stain
C
Gramβs stain
D
KOH stain
Question 693Single Answer
What is the first step in preparing a blood slide for staining?
A
Spreading the blood sample
B
Fixing the smear
C
Staining the slide
D
Counting leukocytes
Question 694Single Answer
Which of the following is a key component of Leishmanβs stain?
A
Crystal violet
B
Methylene blue
C
Safranin
D
Iodine
Question 695Single Answer
What is the purpose of fixing a blood smear before staining?
A
To enhance color contrast
B
To adhere cells to the slide
C
To kill the parasite
D
To dissolve red blood cells
Question 696Single Answer
Which type of white blood cell is most abundant in a healthy individual?
A
Lymphocytes
B
Neutrophils
C
Monocytes
D
Eosinophils
Question 697Single Answer
What is the typical percentage of neutrophils in a DLC?
A
10β20%
B
40β75%
C
80β90%
D
5β10%
Question 698Single Answer
Which of the following indicates malaria on a Giemsa-stained blood slide?
A
Presence of gram-positive cocci
B
Presence of ring forms
C
Absence of white blood cells
D
Presence of hyphae
Question 699Single Answer
What is the role of methanol in blood slide preparation?
A
To stain the cells
B
To fix the smear
C
To decolorize the slide
D
To hydrate the sample
Question 700Single Answer
Which microscope is used to examine Giemsa-stained blood slides?
A
Light microscope
B
Electron microscope
C
Fluorescence microscope
D
Phase-contrast microscope
General Knowledge & Aptitude, Knowledge of Computer
Question 701Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 702Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 703Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 704Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 705Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 706Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 707Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 708Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 709Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 710Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Question 711Single Answer
The term classic style implies
A
you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B
a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C
both a and bΒ
D
font style
E
None of these
Question 712Single Answer
The term click implies
A
to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
a button in a dialog box
C
to shut down or exit a dialog box
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 713Single Answer
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A
Minimize the window
B
Close the associated window or application
C
Maximize the window
D
Move the window
Question 714Single Answer
A command button
A
is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B
is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D
is a small button with an X on it
E
None of these
Question 715Single Answer
What is smallest unit of the information?
A
A bit
B
A byte
C
A block
D
A nibble
Question 716Single Answer
A cursor isΒ
A
to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboardΒ
B
a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
pressing and holding the main mouse button
D
A button in a dialog box
E
None of these
Question 717Single Answer
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
A
A structured collection of data only
B
Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C
A physical device for storing database backups
D
A programming language used only for calculations
Question 718Single Answer
The meaning of cut is
A
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboardΒ
B
to cut a document in two unequal parts
C
to cut a document in two equal parts
D
Only b and c are correct
Question 719Single Answer
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
A
pre - determined setting
B
user - setting
C
default
D
setting
E
None of these
Question 720Single Answer
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
A
wall paper
B
desktop
C
backgroundΒ Β Β Β
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 721Single Answer
What is a dialog box in a graphical user interface?
A
An on-screen window used to display information or obtain user input and selections
B
A tool used exclusively for audio and video calls
C
A hardware device used for voice commands
D
A program used exclusively to browse websites
Question 722Single Answer
A letter, memo, proposal, or other that is created using Microsoft word is called as
A
MasterΒ Β
B
slide
C
documentΒ Β Β Β Β
D
worksheet
E
None of these
Question 723Single Answer
The meaning of double click isΒ
A
pushing and releasing the main mouse button twice in rapid succession when the on - tree mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
appearance of an icon
C
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 724Single Answer
The term drag and drop means
A
appearance of an icon
B
used for selecting text
C
to move text or an object by positioning the mouse pointer on the item you want to move, pressing and holding the mouse button to drop the object into its new location
D
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
E
None of these
Question 725Single Answer
What does dragging with a mouse mean?
A
Holding down a mouse button while moving the mouse pointer
B
Closing an application
C
Double-clicking an icon without moving the mouse
D
Restarting the computer
Question 726Single Answer
What is the purpose of a drop-down list in a graphical user interface?
A
To display a list of selectable choices when expanded
B
To permanently delete selected files
C
To close all running applications
D
To display only error messages
Question 727Single Answer
The default name for a desktop icon that opens an explore window displaying information about your systemβs disk drives and also special system folders like printers and control panel
A
my computerΒ Β Β
B
news groups
C
message boxΒ Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β
D
network neighbourhood
E
None of these
Question 728Single Answer
________________ means to enlarge window to its maximum area so that it will full entire desktop
A
maximizeΒ Β Β Β Β Β
B
zoom
C
enlarge
D
extend
E
None of these
Question 729Single Answer
What is HTML primarily used for?
A
Defining the structure and meaning of content on web pages
B
Managing computer hardware drivers
C
Encrypting all Internet traffic
D
Controlling the computer's BIOS
Question 730Single Answer
What is the process of visually emphasizing selected text or an object on a computer screen commonly called?
A
Shading
B
Hyperlinking
C
Highlighting
D
Compiling
Question 731Single Answer
What is an icon in a graphical user interface?
A
An action performed when a button is clicked
B
A small graphical representation of an application, command, file, folder, or function
C
A type of computer memory
D
A text-only command prompt
Question 732Single Answer
In graphical user interfaces, what does an ellipsis (...) following a menu command commonly indicate?
A
The command will open a dialog box or require additional input
B
The command will immediately shut down the computer
C
The command has already been executed
D
The command cannot be selected
Question 733Single Answer
_____________ is an area of memory assigned to store any e-mail message for the user
A
Outlook express
B
yahoo.com
C
post- boxΒ Β Β Β Β Β
D
mail box
E
None ofΒ these
Question 734Single Answer
Group of letters, numbers, and symbols with a common typerface is called as
A
fileΒ Β Β Β Β
B
font
C
style
D
GUI
E
None of these
Question 735Single Answer
A___ is an electronic device that process data converting into information.
A
processor
B
computer
C
menu
D
mouse
E
None of these
Question 736Single Answer
This is the process of getting access to the computer
A
sign inΒ Β
B
log in
C
log off
D
enterΒ Β Β
E
None of these
Question 737Single Answer
The full step wise process of closing a computer is called
A
shuttingΒ Β Β Β Β Β Β
B
closingΒ
C
log offΒ Β
D
shut down
E
None of these
Question 738Single Answer
What is a clickable connection from one web document or resource to another called?
A
Hyperlink
B
Compiler
C
Cursor
D
Clipboard
Question 739Single Answer
This device is used to connect your computer with a telephone line, so that can access information form other servers and ordinary users too, said device is called
A
modem
B
set top box
C
LAN card
D
UPS
E
None of these
Question 740Single Answer
What is an Internet discussion area where users exchange messages about a particular subject traditionally called?
A
Newsgroup
B
Spreadsheet
C
Search engine
D
Device driver
Question 741Single Answer
Which two functional units are fundamental components of a CPU?
A
Control Unit and Arithmetic Logic Unit
B
Keyboard and mouse
C
Monitor and printer
D
Hard disk and optical drive
Question 742Single Answer
Hardware that are easily attached to computer and can be played instantly are called as
A
multimediaΒ Β Β Β Β
B
plug and play
C
digitalΒ Β
D
point to point
E
None of these
Question 743Single Answer
There is a central file in windows OS that is used to keep track of information about installed hardware and software and their preferences on the specific computer. This file is
A
system database
B
main menu
C
registry
D
directory
E
None of these
Question 744Single Answer
It is the smallest dot that can be uniquely drawn on a computer screen.This isΒ
A
Boxel Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β
B
Computer dort
C
CursorΒ Β
D
Pixel
E
None of these
Question 745Single Answer
In an office document, a picture, chart, shape, or other inserted item is generally treated as what?
A
Object
B
Clipboard
C
Cursor
D
Taskbar
Question 746Single Answer
What is a quick press and release of the secondary mouse button called?
A
Right-click
B
Double-click
C
Drag
D
Scroll
Question 747Single Answer
An operation to retrieve information image as well as text which is stored in clip board and inset it at the destinedΒ place is
A
copyΒ Β Β
B
insert
C
select
D
paste
E
None of these
Question 748Single Answer
Display bar that list all the open folders and active application is
A
menu barΒ
B
tool bar
C
task barΒ Β Β Β Β Β Β
D
window list
E
None of these
Question 749Single Answer
A large space common in most of the windows which is for userβs work with that application is
A
application view
B
work area
C
project viewΒ Β Β Β
D
tool bars
E
None of these
Question 750Single Answer
__________- is the list of print jobs waiting to be sent to a particular printer
A
print list
B
job queue
C
print requests
D
print queue
E
None of these
Question 751Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of FinanceΒ Β Β Β Β
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 752Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of FinanceΒ
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 753Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 754Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
Β Β Β Β Β Β 1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 755Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 756Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 757Single Answer
National income is theΒ
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 758Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial systemΒ Β Β Β Β Β Β
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrightsΒ Β
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 759Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 760Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales taxΒ Β Β Β Β Β
B
custom tax
C
excise taxΒ Β Β Β Β
D
income tax
Question 761Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 762Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951Β Β Β Β Β
B
April 1955
C
April 1957Β Β Β Β Β
D
April 1978
Question 763Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008Β Β Β
B
2009
C
2010Β Β Β
D
2012
Question 764Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 765Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 766Single Answer
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Question 767Single Answer
Which of the following Committeeβs recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee
Question 768Single Answer
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A
1975Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β
B
1981
C
1991Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β
D
2000
Question 769Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Which of the above statements are correct
A
1,2 and 3Β Β Β Β Β Β
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4Β Β Β Β Β Β
D
2,3 and 4
Question 770Single Answer
When was first human development report of India issued
A
April 2001Β Β Β Β Β
B
March 2000
C
June 2002
D
April 2002
Question 771Single Answer
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
A
5
B
6
C
7Β Β Β Β Β Β
D
8
Question 772Single Answer
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
A
2001Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β
B
2010
C
2012Β Β Β
D
2011
Question 773Single Answer
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
Β Β Β Β 1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
Β Β Β Β 2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, healthΒ and education
Β Β Β Β 3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
A
1 only
B
1 and 2
C
1 and 3
D
1,2, and 3
Question 774Single Answer
The period of 12th Five Year PlanΒ
A
2007-12
B
2008-13
C
2010-15
D
2012-17
Question 775Single Answer
A closed economy is an economy in which
A
the money supply is fully controlledΒ Β Β Β
B
deficit financing takes place
C
only exports take place
D
neither exports nor imports take place
Question 776Single Answer
Consider the following statements
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 1. a plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 2. a plan for a fixed number of years, say 34, and 5
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 3. it is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 4. A perspective plan for 10,15 or 20 years
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Which of the above are correct
Deficit finacing means that the government borrows money from theΒ
A
IMFΒ Β Β Β
B
RBI
C
Local bodiesΒ Β Β
D
Big Businessmen
Question 779Single Answer
In the context of Indiaβs Five Year Plan a shift in the pattern of industrialization with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
A
4th plan
B
6th plan
C
8th plan
D
10th plan
Question 780Single Answer
Which of the following is/are an indicator of the financial health of a country
Β Β 1. GDPΒ Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 2. PPP
Β Β 3. FDI in a yearΒ Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β
A
only 1Β Β
B
only 2
C
only 3
D
1,2 and 3
Question 781Single Answer
Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission
A
Members and vice chairman of it do not have fixed working duration
B
it is not defined in Indian Constitution
C
Members do not require any minimum education
D
all of these
Question 782Single Answer
__________ is the exofficio chairman of Planning Commission and National Development Council
A
Prime Minister
B
President
C
Finance MinisterΒ Β Β Β Β Β Β
D
Commerce Minister
Question 783Single Answer
Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India
A
services Industry- Agriculture
B
Services- Agriculture-Industry
C
Industry-Services-Agriculture
D
Industry-Agriculture-Services
Question 784Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Planning Commission of India
A
Assessment of the material ,capital and human resources of the country
B
formulation of plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of countryβs resources
C
public cooperation in national development
D
preparation of annual budget of the country and collection of taxes to raise capital for the implementation of the plan
Question 785Single Answer
Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Planning Commisison
A
Rajendra Prasad
B
Jawahar Lal Nehru
C
Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
D
J.B.Kriplani
Question 786Single Answer
Which of the statements given below is/are correct
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 1. Food for Work Programme was launched in India during the 10th Five Year Plan
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 2. The Planning Commission in India is a constitutional body
A
1 onlyΒ Β
B
2 only
C
both 1 and 2Β Β Β
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 787Single Answer
The 11th Five Year Plan strategy to raise agricultural output envisages which of the following
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 1. Greater attention to land reforms
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 2. double the rate of growth of irrigated area
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 3. promote animal husbandary and fishery
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 4. interest free credit to the farmers
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Select the correct answer
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1,2 and 3Β Β Β Β Β Β
D
2 and 4
Question 788Single Answer
What is the period of 11th Five Year Plan
A
2006-11
B
2007-12
C
2008-13
D
2009-14
Question 789Single Answer
In which one of the following Five Year Plan the actual growth performance in India in respect of GDP was less than the target set
A
6th Five Year Plan
B
7th Five Year Plan
C
8th Five Year PlanΒ Β Β Β Β Β
D
9th Five Year Plan
Question 790Single Answer
Who of the following was the author of the chapter on 'Objectives of planned development' for the 3rdΒ Five Year Plan
A
Morarji DesaiΒ Β Β
B
C.D.Deshmukh
C
Jawahar Lal NehruΒ Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β
D
Lal Bahadur Shashtri
Question 791Single Answer
During which five year plan was the total expenditure on agriculture the highest
A
1st five year plan
B
2nd five year plan
C
3rd five year planΒ Β Β Β Β Β Β
D
4th five year plan
Question 792Single Answer
What is the correct sequence of the following strategies used for five year plan in India
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 1. balanced growth Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 2. Rehabilitation of the economy
Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β 3. industrial development
A
1,3,2
B
2,1,3
C
2,3,1Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β
D
3,2,1
Question 793Single Answer
The steel plants at Durgapur, bhilai and Rourkela were established during the period of
A
1st five year planΒ Β Β Β Β Β Β
B
2nd five year plan
C
3rd five year plan
D
4th five year plan
Question 794Single Answer
The second five year plan laid more stress upon
A
agricultureΒ Β Β Β Β
B
industrialization
C
removing poverty
D
self reliance
Question 795Single Answer
In which of the five year plan preference ws given to the weaker sections of the society
A
2nd
B
3rd
C
4th Β Β Β Β Β
D
5th
Question 796Single Answer
Which one fo the following Five year plan recognized human development as the core of all developmental efforts
A
the 3rd five year planΒ Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β Β
B
the 5th five year plan
C
the 6th five year planΒ Β Β Β
D
the 8th five year plan
Question 797Single Answer
The growth rate of agricultural production was negative in theΒ
A
first plan
B
second plan
C
third plan
D
fourth plan
Question 798Single Answer
The basic feature of the Rolling Plans was thatΒ
A
major development projects were to be completed in the stipulated period
B
revision of the achievements of previous year
C
annual fluctuations in prices and major economic developments could be considered while fixing targets
D
no financial target except in the term of annual plans was envisaged
Question 799Single Answer
A rolling plan was a plan for
A
one yearΒ Β Β Β Β Β
B
three year
C
five year
D
year to year basis
Question 800Single Answer
The strategy of Rolling Plan was adopted during the Prime Ministership of
A
Lal Bahadur Shastri
B
Indira Gandhi
C
Morarji DesaiΒ Β Β
D
Rajiv Gandhi
Question 801Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 802Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 803Single Answer
356 x 936 β 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600Β Β
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 804Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 805Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Β
Question 806Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4Β Β Β Β Β
B
3
C
2Β
D
5
Question 807Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 808Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169Β Β
B
36
C
196Β
D
Can not say
Question 809Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16 Β Β
B
25
C
28 Β
D
30
Question 810Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 β xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93Β Β Β Β Β
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 811Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 812Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3Β
B
4
C
5Β Β Β Β
D
7
Question 813Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLIΒ
B
XLVI
C
XLIVΒ
D
XLVIC
Question 814Single Answer
Convert 0.0909β¦ into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 815Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 816Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 817Single Answer
Convert 0.5777β¦ into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 818Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 819Single Answer
(63)2 β (12)2 =?
A
3528Β
B
3852
C
3582Β Β
D
3825
Question 820Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 821Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582Β 5.015 =?
A
20Β Β Β
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 822Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 823Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 824Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 825Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 826Single Answer
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None
Question 827Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213
Question 828Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 829Single Answer
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32
Question 830Single Answer
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Β
Question 831Single Answer
Which of the following is composite ?
A
17
B
19
C
21
D
23
Question 832Single Answer
What is √0.0009 ?
A
0.003
B
0.03
C
0.3
D
0.09
Β
Question 833Single Answer
What is √1156 ?
A
32
B
34
C
36
D
38
Question 834Single Answer
What is √2025 ?
A
35
B
40
C
45
D
50
Question 835Single Answer
What is (51^2) ?
A
2601
B
2501
C
2551
D
2651
Β
Question 836Single Answer
7 8 18 57 ?
A
244Β
B
174
C
186Β Β Β
D
none of these
Question 837Single Answer
Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number. What is my Present age ?
A
25 yearsΒ
B
27 years
C
26 years
D
24 years
Question 838Single Answer
If a + b = 5, a2 + b2 = 13, the value of a β b (where a > b) is
A
2Β
B
-1
C
1Β
D
-2
Question 839Single Answer
How many factors does 100 have ?
A
6
B
7
C
8
D
9
Question 840Single Answer
If x = a β b, y = b β c, z = c β a, then the numerical value of the algebraic expression x3 + y3 + z3 β 3xyz will be
A
a + b + cΒ Β Β Β
B
Zero
C
4 (a + b + c)Β
D
3 abc
Question 841Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 13 ?
A
819
B
845
C
871
D
899
Question 842Single Answer
A number leaves remainder 3 when divided by 5. What remainder when divided by 10 ?
A
3 or 8
B
3
C
8
D
Cannot determine
Question 843Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (9^{101}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 844Single Answer
How many prime numbers are between 10 and 20 ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Β
Question 845Single Answer
Which of the following pair is co-prime ?
A
8 and 12
B
9 and 15
C
14 and 25
D
21 and 35
Question 846Single Answer
(43)2 + 841 = (?)2 + 1465
A
41Β Β Β
B
35
C
38Β
D
33
Question 847Single Answer
269 β 122 β 33 = X * 2
A
51
B
41
C
21
D
49
Question 848Single Answer
What is the remainder when 2100 is divided by 3 ?
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
Β
Question 849Single Answer
Which of the following is composite ?
A
17
B
19
C
21
D
23
Β
Question 850Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 851Single Answer
Sum of factors of 12 is ?
A
16
B
24
C
28
D
32
Question 852Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 853Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 854Single Answer
The last three-digits of the multiplication 12345 x 54321will be
A
865 Β Β Β
B
745
C
845Β Β Β
D
945
Question 855Single Answer
What is the remainder when 173 is divided by 5 ?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Β
Question 856Single Answer
If a number is divisible by both 8 and 9, then it must be divisible by ?
A
17
B
72
C
81
D
18
Question 857Single Answer
What is the area of a triangle with base 5 meters and height 10 meters ?
A
20 square meters
B
35 square meters
C
25 square meters
D
40 square meters
Question 858Single Answer
How many factors does 36 have ?
A
6
B
7
C
8
D
9
Question 859Single Answer
Convert 0.04 into fraction ?
A
1/20
B
1/25
C
1/40
D
1/50
Question 860Single Answer
What is the average of first five multiples of 12 ?
A
36
B
38
C
40
D
42
Question 861Single Answer
Convert 0.04 into fraction ?
A
1/20
B
1/25
C
1/40
D
1/50
Question 862Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
7/9
B
4500
C
4500
D
4900
Question 863Single Answer
Convert 0.125 into fraction ?
A
1/4
B
1/5
C
1/8
D
3/8
Question 864Single Answer
Convert 0.666β¦ into fraction ?
A
1/3
B
2/3
C
3/5
D
4/5
Question 865Single Answer
A: B: C is in the ratio of 3: 2: 5. How much money will C get out of Rs 1260 ?
A
252
B
125
C
503
D
None of these
Question 866Single Answer
If January 1, 1996, was Monday, what day of the week was January 1, 1997 ?
A
Thursday
B
Wednesday
C
Friday
D
Sunday
Question 867Single Answer
Convert 0.333β¦ into fraction ?
A
1/2
B
1/3
C
2/3
D
3/4
Question 868Single Answer
How many factors does 36 have ?
A
6
B
7
C
8
D
9
Question 869Single Answer
23% of 6783 + 57% of 8431 = ?
A
6460Β Β Β Β Β
B
6420
C
6320
D
6360
Question 870Single Answer
With a two digit prime number, if 18 is added, we get another prime number with digits reversed. How many such numbers are possible ?
A
2
B
3
C
0Β Β
D
1
Question 871Single Answer
If a number is divisible by both 8 and 9, then it must be divisible by ?
A
17
B
72
C
81
D
18
Question 872Single Answer
Β Which is smallest ?
A
5/6
B
7/8
C
9/10
D
11/12
Question 873Single Answer
What is (104 times 106) ?
A
11024
B
11020
C
11016
D
11040
Question 874Single Answer
What is (48 times 52) ?
A
2496
B
2500
C
2484
D
2516
Question 875Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 876Single Answer
Which of the following is a prime number ?
A
51
B
57
C
59
D
63
Question 877Single Answer
If the expression (px3-8x2-qx + 1) is completely divisible by the expression ?(3x2 β 4x + 1), then what will be the value of p and q respectively?
A
Β Β
B
(6, 1)
C
D
(1, 6)
Question 878Single Answer
The greatest number which will divide 116, 221, 356 leaving the same remainder in each case is
A
15 Β
B
5
C
10Β
D
20
Question 879Single Answer
What number has to be added to 345670 in order to make it divisible by 6?
A
2
B
4
C
5Β Β
D
6
Question 880Single Answer
The least number which when divided by 35 leaves a remainder 25, when divided by 45 leaves the remainder 35 and when divided by 55 leaves 45 is
A
3465 Β Β
B
3645
C
3655Β Β Β Β Β Β Β
D
3455
Question 881Single Answer
Passage :
information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A
318
B
198
C
213Β
D
206
Question 882Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A
558Β Β Β
B
718
C
628Β Β
D
None of these
Question 883Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
Β (x β 24) + (x β 7) + (x + 4) + (30 β x) + (36 β x) + (28 β x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 β 31 = 92
→ x = 92 β 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A
20%Β Β
B
25%
C
30%Β Β
D
40%
Question 884Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
Β (x β 24) + (x β 7) + (x + 4) + (30 β x) + (36 β x) + (28 β x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 β 31 = 92
→ x = 92 β 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A
19%Β Β
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these
Question 885Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x β 24) + (x β 7) + (x + 4) + (30 β x) + (36 β x) + (28 β x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 β 31 = 92
→ x = 92 β 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A
38%Β
B
48%
C
51%Β Β
D
None of these
Question 886Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
Β (x β 24) + (x β 7) + (x + 4) + (30 β x) + (36 β x) + (28 β x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 β 31 = 92
→ x = 92 β 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A
4%
B
3%
C
1%Β Β
D
None of these
Question 887Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
Β (x β 24) + (x β 7) + (x + 4) + (30 β x) + (36 β x) + (28 β x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 β 31 = 92
→ x = 92 β 67 = 25
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A α΄ (A α΄ B) equal to ?
A
Complement of AΒ
B
Complement of B
C
BΒ Β Β
D
A
Question 888Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
Β (x β 24) + (x β 7) + (x + 4) + (30 β x) + (36 β x) + (28 β x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 β 31 = 92
→ x = 92 β 67 = 25
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A
10%Β Β Β Β
B
15%
C
20%Β Β
D
25%
Question 889Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A
25%Β Β Β
B
100%
C
75%Β Β Β
D
0%
Question 890Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A
15Β
B
25
C
40Β
D
75
Question 891Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The percentage passengers who like at least 2 of the coffee, tea and lassi, is
A
30Β
B
45
C
50
D
60
Question 892Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
If the number of passengers is 180, then the number of passengers who like lassi only, is
A
10Β Β Β Β Β Β Β
B
18
C
27
D
36
Question 893Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
In a town three newspapers A, B and C are published. 42% of the people in that town read A, 68% read B, 51% read C, 30% read A and B, 28% read B and C, 36% A and C and 18% do not read any paper. Find the % of the population of town that reads all the three.
A
15%Β
B
25%
C
20%Β
D
35%
Question 894Single Answer
Passage :
In the adjoining figure, I and II are circles with ceners P and Q respectively. The two circle touch each other and have a common tangent that touches themΒ at points R and S respectively. This common tangent meets the line joining P and Q at O. The diameters of I and II are in the ratio 4 : 3. It is also known that the length of PO is 28 cm.
What is the ratio of the length of PQ to that of QO?
A
1 : 4
B
1 : 3
C
3 : 8
D
3 : 4
Question 895Single Answer
Passage :
A committee of five members is to be formed out of 5 Males, 6 Females and 3 Children. In how many different ways can it be done if ?
The committee should consist of 2 Males, 2 Females and 1 child ?
A
450Β Β
B
225
C
55Β Β Β
D
90
Question 896Single Answer
Passage :
A committee of five members is to be formed out of 5 Males, 6 Females and 3 Children. In how many different ways can it be done if ?
The committee should include all the 3 Childs?
A
90Β
B
180
C
21Β
D
55
Question 897Single Answer
Passage :
A committee of five members is to be formed out of 5 Males, 6 Females and 3 Children. In how many different ways can it be done if ?
In how many different ways can 4 boys and 3 girls be arranged in a row such that all the boys stand together and all the girls stand together ?
A
75Β Β
B
576
C
288Β Β Β
D
24
Question 898Single Answer
Passage :
An urn contains 4 green, 5 blue, 2 red and 3 yellow marbles.
If four marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that two are blue and two are red ?
A
B
C
D
Question 899Single Answer
Passage :
An urn contains 4 green, 5 blue, 2 red and 3 yellow marbles.
If eight marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that there are equal number of marbles of each other ?
A
B
C
D
Question 900Single Answer
Passage :
An urn contains 4 green, 5 blue, 2 red and 3 yellow marbles.
If two marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that both are red or at least one is red ?
A
B
C
D
E
None of these
Question 901Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 902Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 903Single Answer
Who is considered the founder of the Sufi movement in India?
A
Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Aunty
B
Nizamuddin Awliya
C
muinuddin Chishti
D
Naseeruddin Mahmud
Question 904Single Answer
Education has given consciousness.
A
Devotion of
B
Knowledge of
C
recidivism of
D
Sufi Don't of
Question 905Single Answer
The name of the sitar magician is known all over the world for his music.
A
Thyagaraja
B
Tansen
C
Rahim Sen
D
Purandar Slave
Question 906Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 907Single Answer
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball
Question 908Single Answer
What is considered the national game of India ?
A
Field hockey
B
cricket
C
Chess
D
Kabaddi
Question 909Single Answer
The national game of Türkiye isβ¦.
A
horse racing
B
wrestling
C
Handball
D
basketball
Question 910Single Answer
The national game of Scotland is -
A
Ice hockey
B
Rugby football
C
football
D
baseball
Question 911Single Answer
Identify the national game of Sri Lanka.
A
swimming
B
volleyball
C
cricket
D
basketball
Question 912Single Answer
βBull fightingβ is the national sport of which country ?
A
Spain
B
Canada
C
Scotland
D
Japan
Question 913Single Answer
βIce Hockeyβ (Lacrosse) is the national game of which country ?
A
Canada
B
Scotland
C
Denmark
D
Sweden
Question 914Single Answer
'Table Tennis' is the national game of which country ?
A
Scotland
B
Russia
C
China
D
Australia
Question 915Single Answer
Which of the following is the national game of Bangladesh ?
A
Kabaddi
B
Kho-Kho
C
cricket
D
boxing
Question 916Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 917Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 918Single Answer
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 919Single Answer
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A
1942
B
1945
C
1946
D
1947
Question 920Single Answer
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948
Question 921Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 922Single Answer
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi
Question 923Single Answer
Which of the following is a famous festival of Kerala ?
A
Pongal
B
Onam
C
Baisakhi
D
Makar Sankranti
Question 924Single Answer
Who wrote the Indian national anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' ?
A
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
B
Sarojini Naidu
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Subramania Bharati
Question 925Single Answer
The Ajanta Caves are located in which state ?
A
Maharashtra
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Bihar
D
Karnataka
Question 926Single Answer
What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?
A
Economic behavior
B
Human values and moral principles
C
Physical health
D
Political systems
Question 927Single Answer
Which of the following is a branch of ethics that deals with the philosophical study of morality ?
A
Metaphysics
B
Aesthetics
C
Normative ethics
D
Epistemology
Question 928Single Answer
Which ethical theory focuses on the consequences of actions to determine right from wrong ?
A
Deontology
B
Virtue ethics
C
Utilitarianism
D
Ethical egoism
Question 929Single Answer
Who is the philosopher known for the development of deontological ethics ?
A
Aristotle
B
John Stuart Mill
C
Immanuel Kant
D
Jeremy Bentham
Question 930Single Answer
Which ethical principle emphasizes treating others as you would like to be treated ?
A
The Golden Rule
B
The Silver Rule
C
The Platinum Rule
D
The Iron Rule
Question 931Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 932Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
Question 933Single Answer
In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
A
1975
B
1965
C
1980
D
1990
Question 934Single Answer
What is the name of India's first indigenously developed satellite launched by ISRO?
A
INSAT-1A
B
Aryabhata
C
Rohini
D
Bhaskara
Question 935Single Answer
What is the name of India's first nuclear reactor?
A
Dhruva
B
Kamini
C
Apsara
D
Kalpakkam
Question 936Single Answer
Which Indian space mission successfully sent a probe to Mars in its first attempt?
A
Chandrayaan-1
B
Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission)
C
Chandrayaan-2
D
Gaganyaan
Question 937Single Answer
What was Indiaβs first nuclear test code-named?
A
Operation Shakti
B
Pokhran-I
C
Operation Smiling Buddha
D
Operation Parakram
Question 938Single Answer
Who is considered the father of the Indian space program?
A
APJ Abdul Kalam
B
Homi Bhabha
C
Vikram Sarabhai
D
Satish Dhawan
Question 939Single Answer
What is the name of India's first supercomputer?
A
Param 8000
B
Vikram 2000
C
Aditya
D
Aryabhata
Question 940Single Answer
The first Indian satellite to be placed in geosynchronous orbit is:
A
GSAT-1
B
Rohini
C
INSAT-1A
D
Aryabhata
Question 941Single Answer
Which was the first Five Year Plan of India?
A
1947-1952
B
1951-1956
C
1956-1961
D
1961-1966
Question 942Single Answer
The objective of the First Five Year Plan was mainly to:
A
Industrialize India
B
Increase agricultural production
C
Focus on infrastructure development
D
Expand the services sector
Question 943Single Answer
Which sector was given priority during the Second Five Year Plan?
A
Agriculture
B
Heavy industries
C
Education
D
Infrastructure
Question 944Single Answer
The First Five Year Plan was based on the model of which country?
A
USA
B
Soviet Union
C
United Kingdom
D
Japan
Question 945Single Answer
When was the Third Five Year Plan of India launched?
A
1961
B
1966
C
1971
D
1980
Question 946Single Answer
Which of the following was the main focus of the Third Five Year Plan?
A
Expansion of agriculture
B
Economic stability
C
Industrial growth and self-reliance
D
Reducing poverty
Question 947Single Answer
The concept of "Green Revolution" was introduced during which Five Year Plan?
A
First Five Year Plan
B
Second Five Year Plan
C
Third Five Year Plan
D
Fourth Five Year Plan
Question 948Single Answer
The Fourth Five Year Plan emphasized on:
A
Education and health
B
Self-sufficiency in food production
C
Defense and heavy industries
D
Social justice
Question 949Single Answer
Which Five Year Plan is known as the "Plan Holiday"?
A
Fourth Five Year Plan
B
Fifth Five Year Plan
C
Sixth Five Year Plan
D
Third Five Year Plan
Question 950Single Answer
When did the Fifth Five Year Plan of India start?
A
1965
B
1974
C
1980
D
1975
Question 951Single Answer
On what date did India celebrate the 9th anniversary of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implementation?
A
July 1, 2026
B
June 30, 2026
C
July 2, 2026
D
June 29, 2026
Question 952Single Answer
Which global event is India participating in with Sweden as a partner?
A
Venus Orbiter Mission 'Shukrayaan'
B
Chandrayaan-4
C
Gaganyaan crewed mission
D
Mars Orbiter Mission-2
Question 953Single Answer
Who became India's 97th Chess Grandmaster in late June 2026?
A
Gukesh D
B
Praggnanandhaa R
C
Harshavardhan G.B.
D
Arjun Erigaisi
Question 954Single Answer
What major merger was approved by the boards of PFC and REC Limited on June 30, 2026?
A
Merger with SBI
B
Merger into a single power financing entity
C
Merger with NTPC
D
Merger with IREDA
Question 955Single Answer
Which initiative was launched at the Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan 2026 for rural women SHGs?
A
Lakhpati Didi App
B
Digital India Rural Scheme
C
PM Kisan Drone Yojana
D
SARAS Shakti Collection and Coffee Table Book
Question 956Single Answer
What significant political change occurred in South Korea on July 1, 2026?
A
New Prime Minister Han Seong-sook took office
B
Presidential elections were held
C
Parliament was dissolved
D
King was crowned
Question 957Single Answer
What was the rainfall deficit in India for June 2026, described as the driest in over a century?
A
20% below average
B
39.8% below average
C
15% above average
D
Normal rainfall
Question 958Single Answer
Where was the GCC Conclave on Innovation 2026 held?
A
Bengaluru
B
New Delhi
C
Mumbai
D
Hyderabad
Question 959Single Answer
Which health initiative's operational guidelines were unveiled by the Union Health Ministry around July 1, 2026?
A
Universal Health Coverage
B
Ayushman Bharat expansion only
C
TB-free India 2030
D
National Ambulance Services 2026
Question 960Single Answer
What reform was implemented in GST 2.0 (effective from September 2025)?
A
Removal of all cesses
B
Single 12% slab
C
Primarily two tax slabs of 5% and 18%
D
Only state-level taxation
Question 961Single Answer
What was launched by MoSPI on Statistics Day (July 1, 2026)?
A
New GDP series
B
Four SDG progress reports
C
Unemployment White Paper
D
Census 2026 preliminary data
Question 962Single Answer
In which state was a new natural gas reserve discovered, as highlighted in July 2026 current affairs compilations?
A
Gujarat
B
Maharashtra
C
Rajasthan
D
Andhra Pradesh
Question 963Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of the JANANI Digital Platform?
A
E-commerce for SHGs
B
Agricultural loan distribution
C
Digital education for rural areas
D
Maternal and Child Health tracking
Question 964Single Answer
What notable achievement did India record in the UN SDG Index around mid-2026?
A
Dropped out of top 50
B
Lowest rank in Asia
C
No change in ranking
D
Highest-ever rank
Question 965Single Answer
When and where did the FIFA World Cup 2026 begin?
A
July 1, 2026, in Europe
B
June 11, 2026, in North America
C
May 2026, in South America
D
August 2026, in Asia
Question 966Single Answer
What major disaster struck northwestern Venezuela in June 2026?
A
Volcanic eruption
B
Category 5 hurricane
C
Pair of powerful earthquakes
D
Massive tsunami
Question 967Single Answer
What is Project BRAHMANK associated with?
A
A new missile project
B
Border Roads Organisation (BRO) raising day in Arunachal Pradesh
C
A river-linking initiative
D
A space mission
Question 968Single Answer
What chatbot was launched for PM-JAY services?
A
Jan Aushadhi Bot
B
Arogya Mitra App
C
Health Connect Portal
D
Ayushman Sarathi WhatsApp chatbot
Question 969Single Answer
What does e-Sushrut@Clinic HMIS target?
A
Pharmaceutical supply chain
B
Large corporate hospitals only
C
Veterinary services
D
Small clinics and healthcare facilities
Question 970Single Answer
Which ongoing regional crisis involves the Strait of Hormuz?
A
Red Sea shipping attacks
B
South China Sea dispute
C
Fuel and shipping disruptions linked to Iran-related tensions
D
Panama Canal blockage
Question 971Single Answer
In the context of South Korea politics (July 1, 2026), who succeeded as Prime Minister?
A
Yoon Suk-yeol
B
Lee Jae-myung (as PM)
C
Han Seong-sook
D
Kim Min-seok (retaine
Question 972Single Answer
What upcoming election was scheduled for July 2, 2026?
A
French Presidential
B
Algeria Peopleβs National Assembly
C
UK General
D
US Midterms
Question 973Single Answer
What major merger aims to create a government NBFC with a massive loan book?
A
PFC and REC Limited
B
SBI and PNB
C
ONGC and IOC
D
BHEL and BEL
Question 974Single Answer
What is the target number of Lakhpati Didis under DAY-NRLM by 2029?
A
6 crore
B
1 crore
C
10 crore
D
2 crore
Question 975Single Answer
Which Union Minister launched Aarogya Setu 2.0 along with several new digital health initiatives?
A
J.P. Nadda
B
Amit Shah
C
Ashwini Vaishnaw
D
Nitin Gadkari
Question 976Single Answer
Aarogya Setu 2.0 is associated with which sector?
A
Agriculture
B
Education
C
Defence
D
Healthcare
Question 977Single Answer
Which ministry launched the FCRA 2.
0 Portal and the e-OCI ecosystem?
A
Ministry of Home Affairs
B
Ministry of Finance
C
Ministry of External Affairs
D
Ministry of Electronics & IT
Question 978Single Answer
The FCRA 2.0 Portal primarily deals with:
A
GST collection
B
Foreign Contributions Regulation
C
Income Tax Returns
D
Passport Services
Question 979Single Answer
Who was reappointed as the Chairman of the CBDT for another six months?
A
Tuhin Kanta Pandey
B
Ravi Agrawal
C
Sanjay Malhotra
D
Rajiv Kumar
Question 980Single Answer
CBDT functions under which ministry?
A
Ministry of Commerce
B
Ministry of Corporate Affairs
C
Ministry of Finance
D
Ministry of Home Affairs
Question 981Single Answer
India's first Satellite Landing System (SLS) trial on a commercial aircraft was conducted using which indigenous navigation system?
A
NAVIC
B
IRNSS
C
GAGAN
D
GSAT
Question 982Single Answer
The first SLS approach trial was conducted on which aircraft?
A
Boeing 777
B
Airbus A350
C
Airbus A320
D
Boeing 737 MAX
Question 983Single Answer
The satellite landing system trial took place at:
A
Jaipur Airport
B
Delhi Airport
C
Maharana Pratap Airport, Udaipur
D
Ahmedabad Airport
Question 984Single Answer
National Doctors' Day in India is observed on:
A
30 June
B
1 July
C
2 July
D
5 July
Question 985Single Answer
National Doctors' Day commemorates the birth and death anniversary of:
A
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
B
Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
C
Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
D
Dr. B.C. Roy
Question 986Single Answer
What was the theme of National Doctors' Day 2026?
A
Doctors for All
B
Healthy India
C
Care Beyond Cure
D
Behind the Mask: Who Heals the Healers?
Question 987Single Answer
National Chartered Accountants Day is celebrated every year on:
A
1 July
B
30 June
C
2 July
D
5 July
Question 988Single Answer
ICAI was established in:
A
1949
B
1948
C
1947
D
1950
Question 989Single Answer
World Sports Journalists Day is observed on:
A
30 June
B
1 July
C
3 July
D
2 July
Question 990Single Answer
India's Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission has created more than:
A
90 crore ABHA accounts
B
50 crore ABHA accounts
C
20 crore ABHA accounts
D
120 crore ABHA accounts
Question 991Single Answer
Which chatbot was launched under the new digital health initiatives?
A
Ayushman Sarathi WhatsApp Chatbot
B
Ayushman AI
C
Bharat Health Bot
D
Aarogya Assistant
Question 992Single Answer
Which mission is strengthening India's Digital Public Infrastructure for Health?
A
Digital India Mission
B
Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
C
PM Jan Arogya Mission
D
National Health Mission
Question 993Single Answer
Which organization successfully demonstrated India's first commercial satellite-based landing system?
A
DGCA
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
AAI
Question 994Single Answer
GAGAN was jointly developed by:
A
ISRO and DRDO
B
ISRO and AAI
C
AAI and DGCA
D
ISRO and HAL
Question 995Single Answer
India's stock market was expected to open positively mainly because:
A
Oil prices declined
B
Gold prices increased
C
Rupee weakened sharply
D
GST rates were reduced
Question 996Single Answer
Which institution publishes the daily weather alerts for heavy rainfall across India?
A
IMD
B
ISRO
C
NDMA
D
NDRF
Question 997Single Answer
Which Indian city was under an Orange Alert for heavy rainfall on 2 July 2026?
A
Chennai
B
Bengaluru
C
Jaipur
D
Mumbai
Question 998Single Answer
Which major sporting event was in its knockout stage on 2 July 2026?
A
FIFA World Cup 2026
B
ICC Champions Trophy
C
UEFA Nations League
D
AFC Asian Cup
Question 999Single Answer
Which principle guided the launch of the FCRA 2.0 Portal and e-OCI ecosystem?