The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 2Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 3Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 4Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 5Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 6Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 7Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 8Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 9Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 10Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 11Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 12Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 13Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 14Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 15Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 16Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 17Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 18Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 19Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 20Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 21Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 22Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 23Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 24Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 25Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
General Knowledge
Question 26Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 27Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 28Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 29Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 30Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 31Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 32Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 33Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 34Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 35Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 36Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 37Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 38Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 39Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 40Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 41Single Answer
Who was elected as the President of the European Council ?
A
Ursula von der Leyen
B
Antonio Costa
C
Emile Noël
D
Ilze Juhansone
Question 42Single Answer
Which country successfully launched the hypersonic cruise missile named ROCKS ?
A
China
B
Russia
C
India
D
United States
Question 43Single Answer
The United Nations a plan to combat climate change and biodiversity loss, What is this plan called ?
A
The Paris Agreement
B
The Global Framework for Nature and People
C
The Kyoto Protocol 2.0
D
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) Expansion
Question 44Single Answer
Which cryptocurrency experienced a major price decline ?
A
Bitcoin
B
Ethereum
C
Both A and B
D
Neither A nor B
Question 45Single Answer
Which country legalized recreational cannabis use nationwide ?
A
Canada
B
Mexico
C
Australia
D
Netherlands
Question 46Single Answer
A archaeological discovery in Egypt unearthed a well - preserved tomb believed to belong to which pharaoh ?
A
Ramses II
B
Tutankhamun
C
Cleopatra
D
Hatshepsut
Question 47Single Answer
Which country's leader was elected President of the European Council ?
A
Germany
B
Portugal
C
France
D
Italy
Question 48Single Answer
India its first indigenous aircraft carrier, What is its name ?
A
INS Vikrant
B
INS Arihant
C
INS Kolkata
D
INS Gomati
Question 49Single Answer
The Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report is released by which ministry in India ?
A
Ministry of Health
B
Ministry of Education
C
Ministry of Jal Shakti
D
Ministry of Defence
Question 50Single Answer
What type of solar power plant was installed by Central Railway ?
A
Rooftop Solar
B
Concentrated Solar Power
C
Floating Solar
D
Solar Thermal Power
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English
Question 51Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 52Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 53Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 54Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 55Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 56Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 57Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 58Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 59Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 60Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 61Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 62Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 63Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 64Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 65Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 66Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 67Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 68Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 69Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 70Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Question 71Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error
Question 72Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error
Question 73Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error
Question 74Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna
Question 75Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error
Reasoning
Question 76Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 77Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 78Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 79Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 80Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 81Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 82Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 83Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 84Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 85Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 86Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 87Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 88Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 89Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 90Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 91Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 92Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 93Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 94Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 95Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 96Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 97Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 98Single Answer
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these
Question 99Single Answer
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four
Question 100Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Concerned Subjects
Question 101Single Answer
Pathogenic organisms are
A
Used in the pasteurization process
B
More plentiful than any other type of organism
C
Important to industry
D
Harmful to humans
Question 102Single Answer
For giving CPCR, after ascertaining unresponsiveness one should :
A
Call for help
B
Establish an airway
C
Check the carotid pulse
D
Give chest compression
Question 103Single Answer
Local cold application transfer heat from the body by :
A
Radiation
B
Evaporation
C
Convection
D
Conduction
Question 104Single Answer
Autoclaving a means of sterilization will destroy
A
All microorganisms
B
Pathogenic microorganisms
C
Non pathogenic microorganisms
D
Just yeasts and molds
Question 105Single Answer
Position in which the patient is to be cared after lower extremity amputation is :
A
Left lateral
B
Supme with head turned to one side
C
Side lying with amputated side up
D
Prone
Question 106Single Answer
When giving a patient intramuscular preoperative medications, the practical nurse must remember to inject into site no more than ?
A
1 ml
B
2ml
C
3ml
D
4ml
Question 107Single Answer
The safest position for a lady with cord prolapse in labor is :
A
Fowler's position
B
Prone
C
Supine
D
Trendelenburg
Question 108Single Answer
The percentage of water in human body is :
A
60%
B
80%
C
35
D
None of these
Question 109Single Answer
Daily care of patient's room would consist of
A
Disinfecting and sterilizing items in his immediate area
B
Providing fresh water for his flowers
C
Scrubbing and waxing the floor
D
Damp dusting and straightening
Question 110Single Answer
The most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid is :
A
Potassium
B
Calcium
C
Sodium
D
Chloride
Question 111Single Answer
During the bath observation of skin include ?
A
Temperature integrity and condition
B
Colour, warmth and bruising
C
Markings made by wrinkles in the sheet or crumbs
D
Distribution and colour of hair
Question 112Single Answer
Patient recovering from general anaesthesia should be positioned in :
A
Supine position
B
Fowler's position
C
Trendelenburg position
D
Side lying position
Question 113Single Answer
Included as a part of charting is the recording of observations and assessment of the patient. Basic skills used by the nurse in assessment are ?
A
Subjective and objective observation
B
Communications of the patient
C
Laboratory data and patient's response to tests
D
Recording of all data in a legal manner
Question 114Single Answer
Lugol's solution contains :
A
Potassium iodide
B
Sodium bromide
C
Ammonium chloride
D
Calcium chloride
Question 115Single Answer
Which of the following feature is not related to Gushing's triad ?
A
Systolic BP
B
Hypothermia
C
Bradycardia
D
Widening pulse pressure
Question 116Single Answer
Signs of a local infection include
A
Redness,, pain, swelling and decreased temperature
B
Increase and decreased blood pressure
C
Redness, pain and swelling of the area
D
Increased temperature, pain, redness and decreased urine output
Question 117Single Answer
The mount of bleaching powder for disinfection of 1000 gallons of water is :
A
oz
B
loz
C
50 gm
D
10 gm
Question 118Single Answer
The physician writes the following order, "Obtain a sterile urine specimen for C & S". Which of the following is true concerning a sterile urine specimen ?
A
May be obtained from the catheter bag if the patient has a Foley catheter
B
May be obtained using the "clean catch" or "mid stream" method as long as you use a sterile container
C
Must be obtained either by catheterizing the patient or from the catheter itself if the patient has a Foley catheter
D
May be obtained only by clamping off a Foley catheter for 15 minutes and then taking the specimen from the catheter tubing
Question 119Single Answer
Best method of oxygen administration to a 2 month old baby is :
A
Oxyhood
B
Face mask
C
Nasal cannula
D
Oxygen tent
Question 120Single Answer
Best method of oxygen administration to a Burn patient is :
A
Oxyhood
B
Nasal cannula
C
Face mask
D
Oxygen tent
Question 121Single Answer
Nursing observation that should be reported to physician immediately include ?
A
Pulse, hypotention and decreased urinary output
B
Obstruction of the intravenous tubing and inflammation at the puncture site
C
Removal of the signs of local infection
D
Three hundred fifty millimetre of yellow green drainage from nasogastric tube during the 8 hour shift
Question 122Single Answer
Best mask of oxygen administration to a facial Burn patient used as :
A
Aerosol mask
B
Venturi mask
C
Face mask
D
Non Rebreather mask
Question 123Single Answer
To check the placement of nasogastric tube the nurse can ?
A
Order a chest xray examination after injecting Sce of air into the stomach
B
Ask the patient if the tube feels as if it is in the stomach
C
Ask the patient to take tree deep breaths while pinching the nasogastric tube
D
Inject 5cc of air into the nasogastric tube while listening with a stethoscope for air entering the stomach
Question 124Single Answer
Best mask of oxygen administration are used in clinical practice when patient need higher humidify oxygen :
A
Aerosol mask
B
Venturi mask
C
Face mask
D
Non rebreather mask
Question 125Single Answer
Amount of blood used for exchange transfuse in a neonate is :
A
50 ml/kg body weight
B
65 ml/kg body weight
C
80 ml/kg body weight
D
100 ml/kg body weight
Question 126Single Answer
In case of accident what would you first exam :
A
Patent airway
B
Hemorrhage
C
Fractures
D
Possible head injury
Question 127Single Answer
For eye examination the instrument used is :
A
Percussion hammer
B
Otoscope
C
Stethoscope
D
Opthalmoscope
Question 128Single Answer
The important nursing intervention prior to administration of preanesthetic medication is :
A
Ask patient to empty the bladder
B
Do deep breathing and coughing exercises
C
Shave the skin
D
Regulate IV accurately
Question 129Single Answer
All these are sterilized by chemicals except :
A
Endoscopes
B
Gauze
C
Scissors
D
Cables
Question 130Single Answer
You would use the following methods artificial respiration
A
Mouthto mouth
B
Pronepressure
C
Back pressur
D
Mouthtonose
Question 131Single Answer
The important nursing intervention prior surgery is :
A
Ask patient to empty the bladder
B
Do deep breathing and coughing exercises
C
Shave the skin
D
Regulate IV accurately
Question 132Single Answer
In order to stop oozing bleeding you would first try ?
A
Pressure points
B
Direct pressure to the wound
C
Tourniquet
D
Ice packs
Question 133Single Answer
Who invented thermometer :
A
Celsius
B
Galileo Galilee
C
Lord Kelvin
D
Thomas J. Manning
Question 134Single Answer
Characteristic sign of heat exhaustion are ?
A
Profuse perspiration, normal body temperature, fainting
B
Unconsciousness, incontinence and bradycardia
C
Elevated body temperature, hot dry skin and tachycardia
D
Flushed face, rigidity of body muscles and excessive salivation
Question 135Single Answer
A clinical thermometer indicates temperatures in degree Fahrenheit from :
A
95 to 110
B
94 to 110
C
98 to 110
D
96 to 112
Question 136Single Answer
The normal breath rate of human beings is :
A
12-15 per minute
B
22-25 per minute
C
15-18 per minute
D
20-24 per minute
Question 137Single Answer
If a patient asks you to pray with him you should ?
A
Summon the hospital chaplain or minister of the patient faith
B
Ask him about his faith because you may not agree with his religious belief
C
Comply with his request, asking him if he has any special prayer he would like to say
D
Ignore his request, realizing that illness after causes a patient concern about spiritual welfare
Question 138Single Answer
If would eviscerations occurs, the immediate nursing action is :
A
Cover the would with sterile dry gauze
B
Leave the wound uncovered and pull the skin edges together
C
Cover the wound with sterile gauze moistened with sterile NS
D
Cover the wound with water-soaked gauze
Question 139Single Answer
How frequent should the nurse monitor the Vital Sign of the patient in the recovery room ?
A
Every 15 minutes
B
Every 60 min
C
Every 30 min
D
Every 45 min
Question 140Single Answer
A common blood test is that is used in a urologic workup is the blood urea nitrogen BUN) test. The normal level for this test is
A
10 to 20 mg/100ml of whole blood
B
25 to 40 mg/100ml of whole blood
C
50 to 80 mg/100ml of whole blood
D
70 to 120 mg/100ml of whole blood
Question 141Single Answer
The most important factor in the prevention of postoperative infection is :
A
Frequent change of wound dressings
B
Proper administration of antibiotics
C
Fluid intake of 2-3 L/day
D
Practice of strict aseptic techniques
Question 142Single Answer
Mr. X is to have a suprapubic prostatectomy. In this procedure the gland is approached through
A
Bladder
B
Perineum
C
Urethra
D
Ureter
Question 143Single Answer
Which of the following nursing actions should be given highest priority when admitting the patient into the operating room ?
A
Level of consciousness
B
Patient identification and correct operative consent
C
Positioning and skin preperation
D
Vital signs
Question 144Single Answer
After a cast has been applied, the nurse should suspect circulatory impairment if the patient of ?
A
Stiffness of the digits
B
Itching of the part
C
Numbness or tingling or both of the digits
D
Excessive sweating under the cast
Question 145Single Answer
ALT exceeds AST in :
A
Viral hepatitis
B
Cholestatic hepatitis
C
Toxic hepatitis
D
All the above
Question 146Single Answer
Information necessary for complete pain assessment would include ?
A
Precipitating event description and location
B
Medication preference and location
C
Emotional state of the patient and nutritional need
D
Time since last injection and physician order
Question 147Single Answer
Test for hypersensitivity is called :
A
Patch test
B
None of the above
C
Patrick's test
D
Post-coital test
Question 148Single Answer
Humidified oxygen is administered via tracheostomy after a laryngectomy because
A
Humidified oxygen contains more water
B
The upper airway is no longer connected to the lower airway
C
The lower airway heals more quickly if humidity is utilized