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Question for AIIMS Patna Senior Resident - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 12, 2026

Duration: 90 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100

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Latest AIIMS Patna Senior Resident Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Concerned Subjects, Reasoning, Aptitude, General English, General Knowledge

Question Bank AIIMS Patna Senior Resident Exam - English

Concerned Subjects

Q 1 :
Father of anatomy-
  1. A.Robert Koach
  2. B.Aristotle
  3. C.Andreas Vesalius
  4. D.Robert Hook
Q 2 :
Power house of cell a is known as-
  1. A.Mitochondria
  2. B.Lysosomes
  3. C.Ribosomes
  4. D.​Nucleus 
Q 3 :
Normal size of a cell is-
  1. A.75-30 micron
  2. B.7.5-300 micron
  3. C.1-2 micron
  4. D.​2-3 micron
Q 4 :
Plasma membrane is composed of-               
  1. A.Fat
  2. B.Carbohydrate
  3. C.Protein
  4. D.​All are right         
Q 5 :
The function of mitochondria in cell is-
  1. A.To form ATP              
  2. B.Protection of cell              
  3. C.Transportation​
  4. D.Excretion     
Q 6 :
A patient with a diagnosis of end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is admitted to ICU. All of the following is the appropriate nursing diagnoses for this patient, except :
  1. A.Fluid volume excess
  2. B.Decreased RBC
  3. C.Electrolyte imbalance
  4. D.Impaired immune function
Q 7 :
Engulfing of the liquid substance by cell is called
  1. A.Phagocytosis
  2. B.Pinocytosis
  3. C.Osmosis
  4. D.​None of them    
Q 8 :
Which of the following cell organ contains hydrolytic gland?
  1. A.Nucleus
  2. B.Lysosome
  3. C.Mitochondria
  4. D.​Endoplasmic reticulum      
Q 9 :
The secretion of goblet cell is known as-   
  1. A.Hormone
  2. B.Mucous
  3. C.Enzymes
  4. D.​Digestive juices             
Q 10 :
Which of the following glands is an example of hollocrine gland ?
  1. A.Sweat gland
  2. B.Sebaceous gland
  3. C.Pancreatic
  4. D.Salivary gland
Q 11 :
In the state infection which tissue are more active-          
  1. A.Reticular tissue
  2. B.Adipose tissue
  3. C.Elastic tissue
  4. D.​Collagenase tissue        
Q 12 :
Brown adipose tissue is mostly found is-          
  1. A.Adult male
  2. B.Adult female
  3. C.New born
  4. D.​Old age persons          
Q 13 :
Largest gland of the body is-    
  1. A.Pituitary                   
  2. B.Adrenal
  3. C.Liver
  4. D.​Pancreas   
Q 14 :
The potential reason of alopecia is-    
  1. A.Protein deficiency
  2. B.Malnutrition
  3. C.Genetic
  4. D.Vitamin deficiency       
Q 15 :
Nodes of ranvier is found in which cell –
  1. A.Epithelial cell
  2. B.Muscles cell
  3. C.Nerve cell
  4. D.​Red cell 
Q 16 :
The total number of bones found in human body is-             
  1. A.206                    
  2. B.306
  3. C.205
  4. D.​210      
Q 17 :
Lambdoid suture runs between these two bones-
  1. A.Parietal and frontal bone
  2. B.Parietal and parietal bone
  3. C.Parietal and occipital
  4. D.​In both temporal bone
Q 18 :
In children fusion of anterior fontanel takes place during-            
  1. A.18 months
  2. B.2 months        
  3. C.6 months
  4. D.12 months        
Q 19 :
Coronal sutures are found in-
  1. A.Parietal and formal bone
  2. B.Parietal and parietal bone
  3. C.Parietal and occipital
  4. D.In both temporal bone 
Q 20 :
Which part of the temporal bone is related with hearing and balancing ?    
  1. A.Squamous part
  2. B.Mastoid part
  3. C.Tympanic part
  4. D.​Petrous part
Q 21 :
Pathogenic organisms are
  1. A.Used in the pasteurization process
  2. B.More plentiful than any other type of organism
  3. C.Important to industry
  4. D.Harmful to humans
Q 22 :
For giving CPCR, after ascertaining unresponsiveness one should :
  1. A.Call for help
  2. B.Establish an airway
  3. C.Check the carotid pulse
  4. D.Give chest compression
Q 23 :
Local cold application transfer heat from the body by :
  1. A.Radiation
  2. B.Evaporation
  3. C.Convection
  4. D.Conduction
Q 24 :
Autoclaving a means of sterilization will destroy
  1. A.All microorganisms
  2. B.Pathogenic microorganisms
  3. C.Non pathogenic microorganisms
  4. D.Just yeasts and molds
Q 25 :
​Position in which the patient is to be cared after lower extremity amputation is :
  1. A.Left lateral
  2. B.Supme with head turned to one side
  3. C.Side lying with amputated side up
  4. D.Prone
Q 26 :
When giving a patient intramuscular preoperative medications, the practical nurse must remember to inject into site no more than ?
  1. A.1 ml
  2. B.2ml
  3. C.3ml
  4. D.4ml
Q 27 :
The safest position for a lady with cord prolapse in labor is :
  1. A.Fowler's position
  2. B.Prone
  3. C.Supine
  4. D.Trendelenburg
Q 28 :
The percentage of water in human body is :
  1. A.60%
  2. B.80%
  3. C.35
  4. D.None of these
Q 29 :
Daily care of patient's room would consist of
  1. A.Disinfecting and sterilizing items in his immediate area
  2. B.Providing fresh water for his flowers
  3. C.Scrubbing and waxing the floor
  4. D.Damp dusting and straightening
Q 30 :
The most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid is :
  1. A.Potassium
  2. B.Calcium
  3. C.Sodium
  4. D.Chloride
Q 31 :
During the bath observation of skin include ?
  1. A.Temperature integrity and condition
  2. B.Colour, warmth and bruising
  3. C.Markings made by wrinkles in the sheet or crumbs
  4. D.Distribution and colour of hair
Q 32 :
Patient recovering from general anaesthesia should be positioned in :
  1. A.Supine position
  2. B.Fowler's position
  3. C.Trendelenburg position
  4. D.Side lying position
Q 33 :
Included as a part of charting is the recording of observations and assessment of the patient. Basic skills used by the nurse in assessment are ?
  1. A.Subjective and objective observation
  2. B.Communications of the patient
  3. C.Laboratory data and patient's response to tests
  4. D.Recording of all data in a legal manner
Q 34 :
Lugol's solution contains :
  1. A.Potassium iodide
  2. B.Sodium bromide
  3. C.Ammonium chloride
  4. D.Calcium chloride
Q 35 :
Which of the following feature is not related to Gushing's triad ?
  1. A.Systolic BP
  2. B.Hypothermia
  3. C.Bradycardia
  4. D.Widening pulse pressure
Q 36 :
Signs of a local infection include
  1. A.Redness,, pain, swelling and decreased temperature
  2. B.Increase and decreased blood pressure
  3. C.Redness, pain and swelling of the area
  4. D.Increased temperature, pain, redness and decreased urine output
Q 37 :
The mount of bleaching powder for disinfection of 1000 gallons of water is :
  1. A.oz
  2. B.loz
  3. C.50 gm
  4. D.10 gm
Q 38 :
The physician writes the following order, "Obtain a sterile urine specimen for C & S". Which of the following is true concerning a sterile urine specimen ?
  1. A.May be obtained from the catheter bag if the patient has a Foley catheter
  2. B.May be obtained using the "clean catch" or "mid stream" method as long as you use a sterile container
  3. C.Must be obtained either by catheterizing the patient or from the catheter itself if the patient has a Foley catheter
  4. D.May be obtained only by clamping off a Foley catheter for 15 minutes and then taking the specimen from the catheter tubing
Q 39 :
Best method of oxygen administration to a 2 month old baby is :
  1. A.Oxyhood
  2. B.Face mask
  3. C.Nasal cannula
  4. D.Oxygen tent
Q 40 :
Best method of oxygen administration to a Burn patient is :
  1. A.Oxyhood
  2. B.Nasal cannula
  3. C.Face mask
  4. D.Oxygen tent

Reasoning

Q 41 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
Q 42 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
Q 43 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 44 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
Q 45 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 46 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 47 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
Q 48 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 49 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 50 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B

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