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Question for AIIMS SRD CET - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 13, 2026

Duration: 90 · Questions: 80 · Max Marks: 80

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To boost your performance in AIIMS SRD CET exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in AIIMS SRD CET exams.

Latest AIIMS SRD CET Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Senior Resident / Senior Demonstrator

Question Bank AIIMS Senior Resident / Senior Demonstrator CET Exam - English

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Senior Resident / Senior Demonstrator

Q 1 :
A patient with fever for 7 days and relative bradycardia is suspected of typhoid. Which investigation confirms the diagnosis?
  1. A.Blood culture
  2. B.Widal test
  3. C.Urine culture
  4. D.PCR for malaria
Q 2 :
Tall peaked T waves on ECG are most suggestive of?
  1. A.Hypokalemia
  2. B.Hypermagnesemia
  3. C.Hypocalcemia
  4. D.Hyperkalemia
Q 3 :
CT Pulmonary Angiography is the investigation of choice for?
  1. A.COPD
  2. B.Pulmonary embolism
  3. C.Lung abscess
  4. D.Tuberculosis
Q 4 :
A patient with pruritus, jaundice, high ALP, and high GGT likely has?
  1. A.Hemolysis
  2. B.Obstructive jaundice
  3. C.Hepatocellular jaundice
  4. D.Crigler-Najjar syndrome
Q 5 :
The gold-standard test for Hirschsprung disease is?
  1. A.Barium enema
  2. B.CT abdomen
  3. C.Manometry
  4. D.Rectal suction biopsy
Q 6 :
A cavitary lesion in the upper lobe on chest X-ray suggests?
  1. A.Tuberculosis
  2. B.Pleural effusion
  3. C.Pneumonia
  4. D.Atelectasis
Q 7 :
ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF represents infarction in which region?
  1. A.Anterior wall
  2. B.Lateral wall
  3. C.Inferior wall
  4. D.Septal wall
Q 8 :
Kerley B lines on chest X-ray indicate?
  1. A.Pulmonary edema
  2. B.COPD
  3. C.Pneumothorax
  4. D.Pulmonary fibrosis
Q 9 :
“Thumb-printing” on abdominal X-ray is characteristic of?
  1. A.Pyloric stenosis
  2. B.Colonic ischemia
  3. C.Hirschsprung disease
  4. D.Appendicitis
Q 10 :
Which test differentiates iron deficiency anemia from anemia of chronic disease?
  1. A.Reticulocyte count
  2. B.Hemoglobin
  3. C.ESR
  4. D.Serum ferritin
Q 11 :
This indicates?
  1. A.Viral hepatitis
  2. B.Alcoholic hepatitis
  3. C.Biliary obstruction
  4. D.Drug-induced hepatitis
Q 12 :
“Double bubble” sign on X-ray indicates?
  1. A.Intussusception
  2. B.Duodenal atresia
  3. C.Pyloric stenosis
  4. D.Gastric volvulus
Q 13 :
A positive McBurney’s tenderness suggests?
  1. A.Cholecystitis
  2. B.Diverticulitis
  3. C.Pancreatitis
  4. D.Appendicitis
Q 14 :
Ground-glass opacities on HRCT are commonly seen in?
  1. A.Asthma
  2. B.Interstitial lung disease
  3. C.Pulmonary edema
  4. D.Pneumothorax
Q 15 :
A solitary thyroid nodule with cold uptake on scan suggests?
  1. A.Toxic adenoma
  2. B.Grave’s disease
  3. C.Malignancy suspicion
  4. D.Thyroiditis
Q 16 :
“Apple-core” lesion on barium enema indicates?
  1. A.Crohn’s disease
  2. B.Ulcerative colitis
  3. C.Colon cancer
  4. D.IBS
Q 17 :
Which test is most sensitive for early diabetic nephropathy?
  1. A.Serum creatinine
  2. B.Urine protein dipstick
  3. C.Microalbuminuria
  4. D.Renal ultrasound
Q 18 :
A patient with chest pain relieved by leaning forward and friction rub likely has?
  1. A.Pericarditis
  2. B.MI
  3. C.Pneumothorax
  4. D.GERD
Q 19 :
Kayser-Fleischer rings indicate?
  1. A.Hemochromatosis
  2. B.SLE
  3. C.Wilson disease
  4. D.ITP
Q 20 :
Bence Jones proteins in urine indicate?
  1. A.Leukemia
  2. B.Myeloma
  3. C.Lymphoma
  4. D.Hodgkin disease
Q 21 :
A ‘string sign’ on barium study is characteristic of?
  1. A.Ulcerative colitis
  2. B.Crohn’s disease
  3. C.Gastric cancer
  4. D.Celiac disease
Q 22 :
A patient with headache, bitemporal hemianopia, and high prolactin likely has?
  1. A.Meningitis
  2. B.Pituitary adenoma
  3. C.Optic neuritis
  4. D.Migraine
Q 23 :
A widened mediastinum on chest X-ray in a trauma patient suggests?
  1. A.Pneumothorax
  2. B.Pulmonary embolism
  3. C.Pneumonia
  4. D.Aortic injury
Q 24 :
“Crescent sign” on ultrasound indicates?
  1. A.Intussusception
  2. B.Renal stone
  3. C.Hydronephrosis
  4. D.Cholecystitis
Q 25 :
A high ANA titer is most commonly associated with?
  1. A.RA
  2. B.SLE
  3. C.OA
  4. D.Gout
Q 26 :
Delta waves on ECG are seen in?
  1. A.MI
  2. B.AV block
  3. C.WPW syndrome
  4. D.Hypercalcemia
Q 27 :
A “honeycomb lung” appearance on HRCT indicates?
  1. A.Asthma
  2. B.Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
  3. C.Pneumonia
  4. D.TB
Q 28 :
Best test to diagnose Cushing syndrome initially?
  1. A.ACTH assay
  2. B.24-hour urinary cortisol
  3. C.Dexamethasone suppression test
  4. D.MRI brain
Q 29 :
Reed–Sternberg cells are diagnostic of?
  1. A.CLL
  2. B.Hodgkin lymphoma
  3. C.CML
  4. D.AML
Q 30 :
Bisferiens pulse is best associated with?
  1. A.AS
  2. B.AR
  3. C.HOCM
  4. D.MS
Q 31 :
A “boot-shaped heart” on X-ray is seen in?
  1. A.TOF
  2. B.PDA
  3. C.VSD
  4. D.TGA
Q 32 :
A positive p-ANCA suggests?
  1. A.Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
  2. B.SLE
  3. C.Sarcoidosis
  4. D.Microscopic polyangiitis
Q 33 :
Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is typical of?
  1. A.TB
  2. B.Lung cancer
  3. C.Sarcoidosis
  4. D.Pneumonia
Q 34 :
A “tram-track” calcification on CT is indicative of?
  1. A.Meningioma
  2. B.Astrocytoma
  3. C.TB
  4. D.Oligodendroglioma
Q 35 :
Which test is confirmatory for acromegaly?
  1. A.GH suppression after glucose
  2. B.ACTH levels
  3. C.Serum GH at baseline
  4. D.Serum IGF-1
Q 36 :
PR3-ANCA (c-ANCA) is most strongly associated with?
  1. A.Wegeners (GPA)
  2. B.PAN
  3. C.Churg–Strauss
  4. D.Goodpasture’s
Q 37 :
A positive Homan’s sign indicates?
  1. A.PE
  2. B.DVT
  3. C.CHF
  4. D.ARF
Q 38 :
The most sensitive test for acute pancreatitis is?
  1. A.Serum amylase
  2. B.Serum lipase
  3. C.USG abdomen
  4. D.CT abdomen
Q 39 :
“Lead-pipe colon” on X-ray suggests?
  1. A.Crohn’s disease
  2. B.Colon cancer
  3. C.IBS
  4. D.Ulcerative colitis
Q 40 :
“Bird beak” appearance on barium swallow is seen in?
  1. A.Achalasia
  2. B.Pyloric stenosis
  3. C.GERD
  4. D.Esophageal cancer
Q 41 :
Which test confirms rheumatoid arthritis?
  1. A.CRP
  2. B.ESR
  3. C.Anti-CCP antibody
  4. D.ANA
Q 42 :
A positive Murphy's sign indicates?
  1. A.Appendicitis
  2. B.Cholecystitis
  3. C.Pancreatitis
  4. D.Hepatitis
Q 43 :
“Salt and pepper” skull appearance is typical of?
  1. A.Paget disease
  2. B.Rickets
  3. C.Hyperparathyroidism
  4. D.Myeloma
Q 44 :
U waves on ECG are a sign of?
  1. A.Hypokalemia
  2. B.Hyperkalemia
  3. C.Hypercalcemia
  4. D.Hypermagnesemia
Q 45 :
“Blue bloater” phenotype refers to which diagnosis?
  1. A.Asthma
  2. B.ILD
  3. C.Emphysema
  4. D.Chronic bronchitis
Q 46 :
A ‘snowstorm’ appearance on ultrasound indicates?
  1. A.Ectopic pregnancy
  2. B.PID
  3. C.Ovarian torsion
  4. D.Hydatidiform mole
Q 47 :
Best test for diagnosing pulmonary hypertension?
  1. A.ECG
  2. B.Echocardiography
  3. C.CT scan
  4. D.BNP
Q 48 :
A low reticulocyte count in anemia suggests?
  1. A.Hemolysis
  2. B.Splenomegaly
  3. C.Acute blood loss
  4. D.Bone marrow suppression
Q 49 :
Hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in?
  1. A.Iron deficiency anemia
  2. B.Megaloblastic anemia
  3. C.Hemolytic anemia
  4. D.Thalassemia
Q 50 :
“Cannon A waves” in JVP indicate?
  1. A.Mitral regurgitation
  2. B.Atrial fibrillation
  3. C.AS
  4. D.Complete heart block

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