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Objective Questions

Latest ALL India Bar Council Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Constitutional Law, Indian Penal Code, Criminal Procedure Code, Code of Civil Procedure, Evidence Act, Alternate Dispute Redressal Including Arbitration Act, Family Law, Public Interest Litigation, Administrative Law, Professional Ethics and Cases of Professional Misconduct under BCI Rules, Company Law, Environmental Law, Cyber Law, Labour and Industrial Laws, Law of Tort inclumer Protection Law, Law of Contract, Specific Relief, Property Laws, Negotiable Instrument Act, Law-Related Taxation, Land Acquisition Act, Intellectual Property Law

Question Bank ALL India Bar Council Exam - English
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Constitutional Law

Question 1Single Answer
Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees Euality before Law and Eual Protection of Laws?
  1. A
    Article 12
  2. B
    Article 14
  3. C
    Article 19
  4. D
    Article 21
Question 2Single Answer
Which Part of the Constitution of India contains the Fundamental Rights?
  1. A
    Part II
  2. B
    Part III
  3. C
    Part IV
  4. D
    Part IVA
Question 3Single Answer
Which Fundamental Right has been described by the Supreme Court as the "Heart and Soul" of the Constitution?
  1. A
    Right to Euality
  2. B
    Right to Constitutional Remedies
  3. C
    Right to Freedom of Religion
  4. D
    Cultural and Educational Rights
Question 4Single Answer
Under which Article can a citizen directly approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
  1. A
    Article 226
  2. B
    Article 32
  3. C
    Article 136
  4. D
    Article 368
Question 5Single Answer
Which Article empowers the High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and other legal rights?
  1. A
    Article 131
  2. B
    Article 136
  3. C
    Article 227
  4. D
    Article 226
Question 6Single Answer
The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on?
  1. A
    26 November 1949
  2. B
    15 August 1947
  3. C
    24 January 1950
  4. D
    26 January 1950
Question 7Single Answer
The Constitution of India came into full operation on?
  1. A
    26 November 1949
  2. B
    15 August 1947
  3. C
    26 January 1950
  4. D
    24 January 1950
Question 8Single Answer
The expression “We, the People of India” in the Preamble indicates?
  1. A
    Parliamentary sovereignty
  2. B
    Judicial sovereignty
  3. C
    Popular sovereignty
  4. D
    Federal supremacy
Question 9Single Answer
India is described under Article 1 of the Constitution as a?
  1. A
    Federation of States
  2. B
    Confederation of States
  3. C
    Union of States
  4. D
    Union of Provinces
Question 10Single Answer
Which feature of the Indian Constitution establishes constitutional supremacy?
  1. A
    Written Constitution
  2. B
    Unwritten conventions
  3. C
    Parliamentary privileges
  4. D
    Cabinet government

Indian Penal Code

Question 11Single Answer
What is the official name of the legislation that replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
  1. A
    Bharatiya Penal Code, 2023
  2. B
    Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
  3. C
    Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
  4. D
    Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
Question 12Single Answer
When did the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 receive presidential assent?
  1. A
    August 11, 2023
  2. B
    December 12, 2023
  3. C
    December 25, 2023
  4. D
    July 1, 2024
Question 13Single Answer
On which date did the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 come into force?
  1. A
    December 25, 2023
  2. B
    January 1, 2024
  3. C
    July 1, 2024
  4. D
    August 15, 2024
Question 14Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
  1. A
    To regulate civil disputes
  2. B
    To consolidate and amend laws relating to offences
  3. C
    To reform tax laws
  4. D
    To update family laws
Question 15Single Answer
How many sections does the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 contain?
  1. A
    511
  2. B
    358
  3. C
    400
  4. D
    300
Question 16Single Answer
How many chapters are there in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
  1. A
    23
  2. B
    20
  3. C
    25
  4. D
    18
Question 17Single Answer
Which of the following offences was removed from the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
  1. A
    Theft
  2. B
    Sedition
  3. C
    Robbery
  4. D
    Murder
Question 18Single Answer
What new offence was introduced in the BNS to address acts endangering India’s sovereignty?
  1. A
    Treason
  2. B
    Subversive activities
  3. C
    Sedition
  4. D
    Rebellion

Criminal Procedure Code

Question 19Single Answer
1. Which of the following is correct answer ?
i. Provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir
ii. All provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Nagaland
Choose the correct answer
  1. A
    Only (i) is correct
  2. B
    Only (ii) is correct
  3. C
    Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
  4. D
    Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Question 20Single Answer
Which among the following chapters of the Cr.P.C., 1973 does not apply to the State of Nagaland and the tribal areas ?
  1. A
    Chapter VIII
  2. B
    Chapter IX
  3. C
    Chapter X
  4. D
    Chapter XI
Question 21Single Answer
The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following -
  1. A
    State of Tripura
  2. B
    State of Assam
  3. C
    State of Meghalya
  4. D
    State of Nagaland
Question 22Single Answer
Reason for non-applicability of some of the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code to the State of Nagaland have been stated by the Supreme Court in -
  1. A
    State of Nagaland v. Ratan Singh
  2. B
    Maharaja Vikram Kishore of Tripura v. Province of Assam
  3. C
    Zarzoliana v. Government of Mizoram
  4. D
    State of Nagaland v. Chung
Question 23Single Answer
What is the meaning of 'tribal areas' for the purpose of Section 1 of the Criminal Procedure Code ?
  1. A
    Municipal area of Shilong
  2. B
    Municipal area of Mizoram
  3. C
    Assam as prescribed in Para 20 of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
  4. D
    Arunachal Pradesh as prescribed by the Constitution
Question 24Single Answer
Assertion (A) : Subject to some exceptions the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure are not applicable to tribal areas in undivided Assam.
Reason (R) : These areas enjoy special status like the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Code
  1. A
    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
  2. B
    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
  3. C
    (A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. D
    (A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 25Single Answer
When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 came into force ?
  1. A
    On April 1, 1973
  2. B
    On April 1, 1974
  3. C
    On January 1, 1974
  4. D
    On March 1, 1974
Question 26Single Answer
When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 received the assent of the President of India ?
  1. A
    25-12-1973
  2. B
    25-01-1974
  3. C
    25-02-1974
  4. D
    25-05-1974
Question 27Single Answer
The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2005 (No. 25 of 2005) received the assent of the President on :
  1. A
    21st July, 2005
  2. B
    23rd June, 2005
  3. C
    22nd August, 2005
  4. D
    20th September, 2005
Question 28Single Answer
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, came into effect on
  1. A
    6th April, 2013
  2. B
    3rd  February, 2013
  3. C
    7th January, 2013
  4. D
    5th March, 2013

Code of Civil Procedure

Question 29Single Answer
From which date code of civil procedure, 1908 came into force?
  1. A
    1, January, 1908
  2. B
    1, April, 1908
  3. C
    31, December, 1908
  4. D
    1, January, 1909
Question 30Single Answer
The code of Civil Procedure, 1908 extends to the:
  1. A
    whole of India
  2. B
    whole of India, except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
  3. C
    whole of India, except the Scheduled Areas and State and Jammu and Kashmir
  4. D
    whole of India, except the State and Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland and Tribal Areas
Question 31Single Answer
Civil Procedure Code 1908 extends -
  1. A
    to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
  2. B
    to the whole of India except Nagaland and Manipur state
  3. C
    to the whole of India except Nagaland and the Tribal Areas
  4. D
    to the whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland and Tribal Areas
Question 32Single Answer
The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002 came into force on?
  1. A
    1st April, 2002
  2. B
    1st June, 2002
  3. C
    6th June, 2002
  4. D
    1st July, 2002
Question 33Single Answer
Code of Civil procedure 1908 is
  1. A
    Substantive law
  2. B
    Procedural law
  3. C
    Combination of Substantive and procedural law
  4. D
    Prescriptive law
Question 34Single Answer
The Provisions of Civil procedure Code:
  1. A
    Specifically apply to Writ Petitions
  2. B
    Do not specifically apply to Writ Petitions
  3. C
    Always apply to Writ Petitions
  4. D
    Never apply to Writ Petitions
Question 35Single Answer
'Decree' under Civil procedure Code, 1908 has been defined in its
  1. A
    Section 2 (1)
  2. B
    Section 2 (2)
  3. C
    Section 2 (a)
  4. D
    Section 2 (b)
Question 36Single Answer
Which of the following is not an essential element of a decree:
  1. A
    A formal expression of adjudication
  2. B
    Conclusive determination of the rights of the parties
  3. C
    An adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order
  4. D
    The adjudication must have been given in a suit
Question 37Single Answer
'Decree', as defined by Section 2 of the Code of Civil procedure' 1908 does not include -
  1. A
    A preliminary decree
  2. B
    Rejection of a plaint
  3. C
    Determination of any question within Section
  4. D
    Any order of dismissal for default
Question 38Single Answer
Decree shall be deemed to include the rejection of a plaint and the determination of any question within Section 144 of C.P.C.
  1. A
    Wrong
  2. B
    Right
  3. C
    It includes rejection of plaint but does not includes the determination of any question within Section 144 of C.P.C.
  4. D
    It includes determination of any question within Section 144 but shall not include the rejection of a plaint

Evidence Act

Question 39Single Answer
The Draft of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was prepared by .
  1. A
    Lord Macaulay
  2. B
    Sir James F. Stephen
  3. C
    Huxley
  4. D
    Sir Henery Maine
Question 40Single Answer
Who drafted the Indian Evidence Act
  1. A
    Lord Denning
  2. B
    A.V. Dicey
  3. C
    Lord Macaulay
  4. D
    J. F. Stephen
Question 41Single Answer
Which of the following statements is correct in relation to Evidence Act ?
  1. A
    Sir Henry Maine prepared the draft Bill of the Act
  2. B
    Sir James Stephen prepared the draft Bill of the Act
  3. C
    The draft Bill of the Act was prepared by II Law
  4. D
    None of the above
Question 42Single Answer
The law of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
  1. A
    Substantive Law
  2. B
    Procedural Law
  3. C
    Substantive and Procedural Law
  4. D
    None of the above
Question 43Single Answer
Law of evidence is
  1. A
    A substantive law
  2. B
    an adjective law
  3. C
    Both (A) and (B)
  4. D
    Neither (A) nor (B)
Question 44Single Answer
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to
  1. A
    Only civil proceedings
  2. B
    Only criminal proceedings
  3. C
    Civil and criminal Proceeding both
  4. D
    None of the above
Question 45Single Answer
Indian Evidence Act, applies to both Civil and Criminal Proceedings before a Court is the statement :
  1. A
    Not correct
  2. B
    Correct
  3. C
    Partly correct
  4. D
    None of the above
Question 46Single Answer
Law of Evidence :
  1. A
    Retrospective
  2. B
    Effect the fundamental right of person
  3. C
    Always have prospective effect
  4. D
    Not a procedural law

Alternate Dispute Redressal Including Arbitration Act

Question 47Single Answer
What is the main objective of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)?
  1. A
    To increase court proceedings
  2. B
    To replace all criminal laws
  3. C
    To eliminate judicial authority
  4. D
    To resolve disputes without lengthy court litigation
Question 48Single Answer
Which of the following is a method of Alternative Dispute Resolution?
  1. A
    Police investigation
  2. B
    Criminal prosecution
  3. C
    Judicial imprisonment
  4. D
    Arbitration
Question 49Single Answer
Which ADR mechanism generally results in a binding decision made by a neutral third party?
  1. A
    Negotiation
  2. B
    Arbitration
  3. C
    Conciliation
  4. D
    Mediation
Question 50Single Answer
Which ADR method involves a neutral third party assisting disputing parties in reaching a mutually acceptable settlement?
  1. A
    Mediation
  2. B
    Criminal trial
  3. C
    Judicial sentencing
  4. D
    Police inquiry
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