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Latest Allahabad Bank SO Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Reasoning, English Language, General Awareness, Computer Science
Question Bank Allahabad Bank SO Exam - English
Reasoning
Q 1 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 2 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 3 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 4 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 5 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 6 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 7 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 8 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 9 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 10 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 11 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 12 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 13 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 14 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 15 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 16 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 17 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 18 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 19 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 20 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 21 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 22 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 23 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 24 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A.P
B.Q
C.B
D.K
E.None of these
Q 25 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A.None
B.One
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than Four
Q 26 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 27 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 28 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 29 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 30 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 31 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 32 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, BONDING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 33 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARGES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 34 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EDSU using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 35 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RTOU using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 36 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ENGULFED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 37 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CORPORATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 38 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, fifth and sixth letters of the word ‘EDUCATION’, which would be the last letter of the word? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A.T
B.X
C.A
D.E
E.K
Q 39 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 40 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFIRM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 41 :
If JOSEPH is coded as FKOALD, then GEORGE will be coded as
A.CAKNCA
B.CADMNO
C.CAKNIT
D.JAKINS
Q 42 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TAILSPIN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 43 :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter is in the middle of 13th letter from the left and 4th letter from the right ?
A.R
B.I
C.J
D.S
Q 44 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MINORITY each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 45 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARIOT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 46 :
If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, second, fourth, and the sixth letters of the word ’STARVING’ . Which would be the second letter of the word from the right end? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A.T
B.S
C.X
D.I
E.K
Q 47 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ELUSIVE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 48 :
If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, third, fifth, and the ninth letters of the word ’CURVATURE’ . Which would be the second letter of the word ? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A.R
B.D
C.X
D.I
E.K
Q 49 :
If in certain code MONKEY is written as ZFLOPN then in the same code how CHARACTER is written ?
A.SFUBIDDBS
B.SFUDBSBID
C.SFUDBSCID
D.SFUDBEBID
Q 50 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters NNEO using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
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Allahabad Bank SO Exam (Professional Knowledge) Question Bank Book - English
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 52 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 53 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 54 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 55 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 56 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 57 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 58 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 59 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 60 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 61 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 62 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 63 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 64 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 65 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 66 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 67 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 68 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 69 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 70 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Q 71 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The students who want to speak in English
B.must read Hindu newspaper
C.in their initial stage
D.No error
Q 72 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B.for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C.but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D.No error
Q 73 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is
B.a quarter to ten
C.by my watch
D.No error
Q 74 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mr. Thakur lived
B.in the three-hundred year
C.old house
D.in Patna
Q 75 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The uncle of mine who is farmer
B.gave me a piece of useful advice
C.when I went to see him three weeks ago
D.No error
Q 76 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My neighbor along with his children
B.is going tonight to see a Taj Mahal
C.At Agra
D.No error
Q 77 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Kabir an Rahim are great poets
B.but the former is
C.greater than latter
D.No error
Q 78 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He has abandoned
B.the criminal activities
C.after returning from jail
D.No error
Q 79 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.We must have
B.sympathy for
C.needy and the poor
D.No error
Q 80 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Chinese is a very
B.difficult language to understand for those
C.who have never been to China
D.No error
Q 81 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The old women placed
B.kettle on fire
C.come back to the bedroom
D.No error
Q 82 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The singing is both
B.my vocation and avocation because it is a
C.source of joy and bread to me
D.No error
Q 83 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Snake we saw was
B.very deadly thought
C.it left the kitchen quietly
D.No error
Q 84 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Being M.A. only he
B.could not be appointed
C.to the post of a lecturer
D.No error
Q 85 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Our first trip was the most interesting one
B.but our second one
C.was even more interesting
D.No error
Q 86 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mahatma Gandhi did not solve
B.all the problems of future
C.but he did solve problems of
D.No error
Q 87 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Having finished his breakfast
B.he started working on the problem
C.that had been awaiting disposal for the long time
D.No error
Q 88 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The new railway line will
B.greatly improve transport and communication
C.in eastern part of the country
D.No error
Q 89 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It being rainy day most of
B.the people out on the street
C.were carrying umbrellas
D.No error
Q 90 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.More you
B.think of it
C.the worse it becomes
D.No error
Q 91 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I like to travel
B.by the air as
C.I am a very busy person
D.No error
Q 92 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.This is
B.most important
C.lesson which we will have to study very carefully
D.No error
Q 93 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Hasan plays
B.both cricket and billiards
C.at the national level
D.No error
Q 94 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The USA has a strong army
B.that is capable of fighting
C.against any army of the world
D.No error
Q 95 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A man cannot be judged
B.by his external appearance
C.but by internal beauty
D.No error
Q 96 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I met the gentleman
B.today morning on my way
C.to the market
D.No error
Q 97 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It seems as the Sun
B.is coming much closer because
C.earth is greeting hotter
D.No error
Q 98 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I know student
B.who has stolen my book
C.the boy replied to his mother on her asking about the book
D.No error
Q 99 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Equator
B.divides the Earth
C.into two hemispheres
D.No error
Q 100 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In world of ours
B.one has to compete
C.for almost everything
D.No error
General Awareness
Q 101 :
Which if the following is TRUE about the meaning of a bank?
A.It is a financial establishment
B.It acts like a financial intermediary
C.It accepts deposits from the public
D.It provides safe locker facility
E.All the above
Q 102 :
Which of the following is NOT true about the functioning of a bank ?
A.A bank should always add the word “bank” to its name.
B.They include general utility services and agency services.
C.A bank is a non-profit organization having service oriented approach.
D.A bank acts as a connecting link between borrowers and lenders of money.
E.A bank lends out money in the form of loans to those who require it for different purposes.
Q 103 :
Which of the following is NOT a banking service?
A.Issuance of debit and credit cards
B.Providing safe custody of valuable items
C.ATM services
D.Provision for higher interest rates to the accounts held by women
E.Online transfer of funds across the globe
Q 104 :
The definition of Banking is given in which of the following ACTs?
A.Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act 1934
C.Banking Regulation Act 1949
D.Company Act 1956
E.None of the above
Q 105 :
Banks in India are regulated by :
A.The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
B.The Banking regulation Act,1949
C.The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953
D.The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980
E.None of the above
Q 106 :
Which of the following terms is used in Banking field ?
A.Zero Hour
B.Input devices
C.Privilege motion
D.Sedimentary
E.Invest rate swap
Q 107 :
A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as?
A.Investment Banking
B.Core Banking
C.Mobile Banking
D.National Banking
E.Specialized Banking
Q 108 :
Which of the following is necessary while opening deposit account in banks ?
A.Will
B.Registration
C.Nomination
D.Indemnity
E.Guarantee
Q 109 :
Which of the following is not banking term?
A.Letter of credit
B.MIBOR
C.Factoring services
D.Entry load
E.None of the above
Q 110 :
Systematic investment plans relates to:
A.Mutual Funds
B.Life Insurance Companies
C.Commercial Banks
D.Post office saving schemes
E.None of the above
Q 111 :
Which is the following is / are third party products sold out by banks?
A.Mutual funds
B.Term deposits
C.Credit cards
D.All of these
E.None of the above
Q 112 :
The first bank the Bank of Hindustan was established in:
A.1780
B.1790
C.1770
D.1802
E.1814
Q 113 :
Which of the following NOT a Retail banking product ?
A.Checking account
B.Saving account
C.Money market account
D.Certificate of deposit (CD)
E.Mutual Fund
Q 114 :
Which of the following is Not a Business (or commercial / investment) banking product ?
A.Business loan
B.Capital raisig
C.Checking account
D.Project finance
E.Term loan
Q 115 :
The banker’s bank in any country called as:
A.Commercial bank
B.Central bank
C.EXIM bank
D.Scheduled Bank
E.Development bank
Q 116 :
Which of the following is the Central bank of India?
A.State Bank of India
B.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
C.Export-Import Bank of India
D.Reserve Bank of India
E.None of the above
Q 117 :
What is the Minimum balance required to be maintained for a saving account with cheque book facility?
A.Rs. 100
B.Rs. 400
C.Rs. 500
D.Rs.1000
E.Rs. 1500
Q 118 :
Which of the following represents Profit and Loss Account ?
A.Position of profit on a particular date
B.Position of profit for a given period
C.Position of loss for a given period
D.Both 2 and 3
E.None of the above
Q 119 :
Which among the following is /are ‘Term Deposit’?
A.Fixed Deposit
B.Current Deposit
C.Recurring Deposit
D.All of the above
E.None of the above
Q 120 :
The first bank of limited liability managed by Indians was :
A.The Commercial Bank of India
B.Allahabad Bank
C.Oudh Commercial Bank
D.Punjab National bank ltd
E.None of the above
Q 121 :
Which of the following scheme is not meant for investment purposes?
A.Letter of credit
B.National saving certificate
C.Infrastructure bonds
D.Mutual funds
E.None of the above
Q 122 :
What is meant by development Oriented banking?
A.Infrastructure financing
B.Extending loans to State, which are undevelopment
C.Taking up the task of development of the economy by providing support to under privileged section of the society
D.All of the above
E.None of the above
Q 123 :
The Reserve Bank of India was established in:
A.April 1935
B.June 1935
C.August 1934
D.May 1936
E.January 1949
Q 124 :
14 major Indian commercial banks of the country were nationalized in:
A.July 1965
B.June 1960
C.July 1969
D.May 1970
E.January 1949
Q 125 :
On the basis of suggestions of which of the following committee. The Banking Regulation Act was amended in 1983 to open the gates for the new private sector banks ?
A.Narasimham Committee
B.Rangrajan Committee
C.Rangrajan Committee
D.Goiporia committee
E.None of the above
Q 126 :
Who has sworn in as the new Chief Minister of Maharashtra, after the resignation of Uddhav Thakarey ?
A.Devendra Fadnavis
B.Eknath Shinde
C.Sunil Prabhu
D.Sharad Pawar
Q 127 :
PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM) is associated with which organization ?
A.DRDO
B.ISRO
C.HAL
D.BHEL
Q 128 :
Which is the only institution in India to issue ‘Electoral Bonds’?
A.RBI
B.SBI
C.NITI Aayog
D.CBDT
Q 129 :
The Union Cabinet approved the categorization of which institution as an ‘International Organization’, in July 2022 ?
A.International Solar Alliance
B.BIMSTEC
C.Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure
D.One Sun One World One Grid
Q 130 :
Which Indian organization carried out the maiden flight test of Autonomous flying wing technology demonstrator ?
A.DRDO
B.NSIL
C.Dhruva Airspace
D.Pixxel Space
Q 131 :
CAPSTONE, which was seen in the news recently, is a satellite launched by which space agency ?
A.NASA
B.ESA
C.SpaceX
D.Rocosmos
Q 132 :
In the PSLV-C53 mission, ISRO launched three satellites of which country ?
A.Nepal
B.Bangladesh
C.Singapore
D.New Zealand
Q 133 :
What is the budgetary outlay of 'Computerisation of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)' ?
A.Rs 216 Crore
B.Rs 2516 Crore
C.Rs 750 Crore
D.Rs 7216 Crore
Q 134 :
Which is the venue of the 11th World Urban Forum held in 2022 ?
A.Spain
B.Poland
C.Australia
D.France
Q 135 :
2022 Resilient Democracies Statement is associated with which global association ?
A.G-20
B.BRICS
C.G-7
D.ASEAN
Q 136 :
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate Digital India Week 2022 in which state in July 2022 ?
A.Gujarat
B.Haryana
C.Punjab
D.Rajasthan
Q 137 :
India and the European Union concluded the first round of negotiations for India-EU Trade and Investment Agreements ……. In July 2022.
A.Chennai
B.New Delhi
C.Hyderabad
D.Pune
Q 138 :
Which of the following released the Web Publication ‘Deposits with Scheduled Commercial Banks – March 2022’ on its Database on Indian Economy (DBIE) Portal in June 2022 ?
A.RBI
B.NITI Aayog
C.NASSCOM
D.ASSOCHAM
Q 139 :
In June 2022, the International Weightlifting Federation (IWF) has elected whom as the President ?
A.T Raja Kumar
B.P Udayakumar
C.Venkat Nageswar Chalasani
D.Mohammed Jaloud
Q 140 :
Union Home Ministry has amended the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act in July 2022. The amended rule now allows relatives to send ……. Lakh rupees without informing the government.
A.5
B.8
C.10
D.12
Q 141 :
The National Health Authority (NHA) Felicitated around ……. Doctors for their work under the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri-Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY) scheme, in July 2022 .
A.400
B.600
C.800
D.1000
Q 142 :
Which of the following has announced that National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme will be a part of Direct Beneficiary Transfer (DBT) scheme ?
A.Ministry of Home Affairs
B.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
C.Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
Q 143 :
NTPC Renewable Energy Limited (NTPC REL) has signed an MOU with which state for development of 10 GW Ultra Mega Renewable Energy Power Park in the state ?
A.Maharashtra
B.Gujarat
C.Punjab
D.Rajasthan
Q 144 :
International Day of Cooperatives is marked annually on the first …… of July.
A.Thursday
B.Friday
C.Saturday
D.Sunday
Q 145 :
In July 2022, who smashed the most number of runs in an over in a Test Cricket Match ?
A.Mohammed Shami
B.Hardik Pandya
C.Bhuvneshwar Kumar
D.Jasprit Bumrah
Q 146 :
Which new body has been approved to replace the Banks Board Bureau (BBB) ?
A.Financial Services Institution Bureau (FSIB)
B.Financial Institutions Bureau (FIB)
C.Banks Appointment Bureau (BAB)
D.Banks and Insurance Companies Bureau
Q 147 :
Which Indian state has launched a new scheme named ‘Naari Ko Naman’?
A.Uttar Pradesh
B.Himachal Pradesh
C.Punjab
D.Odisha
Q 148 :
Who is the new President of Financial Action Task Force (FATF) ?
A.T Raja Kumar
B.Urjit Patel
C.Viral Acharya
D.Subhash Chandra Garg
Q 149 :
What is the total GST revenue collected in June 2022 ?
A.Rs 1.45 Lakh Crore
B.Rs 1.30 Lakh Crore
C.Rs 1.20 Lakh Crore
D.Rs 1.15 Lakh Crore
Q 150 :
Which Union Ministry released ‘SDG National Indicator Framework (NIF) Progress Report, 2022’?
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
C.Ministry of Home Affairs
D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Computer Science
Q 151 :
The 0 and 1 in the binary numbering system are called Binary Digits or
A.Bytes
B.Kilobytes
C.Decimal bytes
D.Bits
Q 152 :
What language does a browser typically interpret to display information from the World Wide Web ?
A.Machine Code
B.Assembly Language
C.HTML
D.C++
Q 153 :
______ is the process of finding errors in software code.
A.Compiling
B.Testing
C.Running
D.Debugging
Q 154 :
The code for a Web page is written using _________.
A.A fifth generation language
B.WinZip
C.Peripherals
D.Hypertext Markup Language
Q 155 :
A program is a sequence of ___________ written in a programming language.
A.Lines
B.Function
C.Instructions
D.Code words
Q 156 :
Which of the following languages is more suited to a structured program ?
A.PL/1
B.FORTRAN
C.BASIC
D.PASCAL
Q 157 :
A computer program that converts assembly language to machine language to machine language is
A.compiler
B.Interpreter
C.Assembler
D.None of the above
Q 158 :
The symbols used in an assembly language are
A.Codes
B.Mnemonics
C.Assembler
D.All of the above
Q 159 :
Which is a non-standard version of a computing language ?
A.PROLOG
B.APL
C.Army
D.PL/1
Q 160 :
A language which is close to that used with in the computer is
A.High – level language
B.Assembly language
C.Low- level language
D.All of the above
Q 161 :
Program execution time would be minimum if the programs are written in
A.Machine Language
B.Assembly language
C.High level language
D.All of the above
Q 162 :
Which one of the following is not a type of a language processor ?
A.Compiler
B.Interpreter
C.Application software
D.Assembler
Q 163 :
Which one of the following is called low level languages ?
A.Machine language
B.Assembly language
C.both of the above
D.None of the above
Q 164 :
Which is the limitation of high level language ?
A.Lower efficiency
B.Machine dependence
C.Machine level coding
D.None of above
Q 165 :
Programming language which is used for scientific purposes and work is to be done in batches is
A.PASCAL
B.FORTRAN
C.LOGO
D.COMAL
Q 166 :
Programming language which is extension of programming language 'BASIC' is
A.PASCAL
B.COBOL
C.LOGO
D.COMAL
Q 167 :
Program subroutines are
A.called by other programs
B.fixed variable
C.default constants
D.default variables
Q 168 :
Loop statement which is repeated to some given number of times is classified as
A.FOR loop
B.GO loop
C.REPEAT loop
D.GO REPEAT loop
Q 169 :
A program which interprets each line of high level program at time of execution is called
A.instructor
B.interpreter
C.translator
D.executor
Q 170 :
Set of data whose items are organized together is classified as
A.data structure
B.variable structure
C.string structure
D.positive structure
Q 171 :
______ is a container that represents a value in a program .
A.Compiler
B.Variable
C.Data type
D.None of the above
Q 172 :
To distinguish between different data types, a computer uses special ______ .
A.Internal codes
B.External codes
C.compilers
D.None of the above
Q 173 :
_______ is the same thing as a variable with one major difference. Its does not change, while the value of a variable can change throughout a program .
A.fixed-Variable
B.Conditional
C.Constant
D.None of the above
Q 174 :
Array is a special type of variable used in many programming languages, such as ________
A.C
B.C++
C.Java
D.All of the above
Q 175 :
What is a segment of code that executes repeatedly based on a certain condition ?
A.Function
B.Array
C.Loop
D.None of the above
Q 176 :
What is defined as a set of code used to carry out specific tasks ?
A.Function
B.Class
C.Loop
D.None of the above
Q 177 :
What is used for a real world object that is to be used in a program ?
A.Program
B.Template
C.Car Class
D.None of the above
Q 178 :
_______ is object oriented programming language that uses virtual functions, multiple inheritance, exception handling, polymorphism, etc .
A.C++
B.C
C.GUI
D.None of the above
Q 179 :
C++ provides comprehensive coverage of abstract classes, such as ______ .
A.Interfaces
B.Regular error handling, standard strings
C.I/O strings
D.All of the above
Q 180 :
A linked list a linear collection of similar data elements called ______ .
A.Subscript
B.Index
C.Nodes
D.Null
Q 181 :
______ was the first high-level language developed by john Backus at IBM in 1956
A.FORTRAN
B.COBOL
C.BASIC
D.NONE OF THE ABOVE
Q 182 :
This language was developed by Dennis Ritchie of Bell Laboratories in order to implement the operating system UNIX .
A.C
B.C++
C.Java
D.LISP
Q 183 :
C is known as
A.low level programming language
B.High level programming language
C.Machine language
D.None of the above
Q 184 :
Which of the following is language processor ?
A.Interpreter
B. Assembler
C.Compiler
D.All of the above
Q 185 :
________ converts an assembly language program into machine language .
A.Assembler
B.Compiler
C.Interpreter
D.All of the above
Q 186 :
Which of the following language processors converts a high-level language program line by line into a machine language ?
A.Assembler
B.Interpreter
C.Compiler
D.None of the above
Q 187 :
Errors in a computer program are referred to as
A.Bugs
B.Mistakes
C.Item overlooked
D.Crash
Q 188 :
Computer programs are written in a high level programming language; however, the human-readable version of a program is called ________ .
A.cache
B.Instruction set
C.source code
D.word size
Q 189 :
Which of the following is not a programming language ?
A.Pascal
B.Microsoft Office
C.Java
D.C++
Q 190 :
What is correcting errors in a program called ?
A.Compiling
B.Debugging
C.Grinding
D.Interpreting
Q 191 :
Which one of the following is not a computer language ?
A.Java
B.COBOL
C.ASP
D.LOTUS
Q 192 :
Which of the following is not a computer language ?
A.PASCAL
B.UNIX
C.FORTRAN
D.COBOL
Q 193 :
A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do. It is called a __________
A.program
B.command
C.user response
D.processor
Q 194 :
A set of step-by-setp procedures for accomplishing a task is known as a (n) ________ .
A.algorithm
B.hardware program
C.software bug
D.firmware program
Q 195 :
All of the following are included in typical Computer programming language which are in use currently Except
A.C++
B.Java
C.visual Basic NET
D.Machine language
Q 196 :
Query language comes under:
A.Third generation
B.Fourth generation
C.Fifth generation
D.None of these
Q 197 :
Errors in computer programs are called
A.Follies
B.Mistakes
C.Bugs
D.Spam
Q 198 :
The default file extension of MS-Excel is
A.xlr
B.exe
C.exl
D.xls
Q 199 :
High Level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the following ?
A.Oracle
B.Compiler
C.Mat lab
D.Assembler
Q 200 :
Which programming language are classified as low level languages ?
A.BASIC, COBOL, FORTRAN
B.Prolog
C.C, C ++
D.Assembly languages
Q 201 :
FORTRAN is
A.File Translation
B.Format Translation
C.Formula Translation
D.Floppy Translation
Q 202 :
Who invented the high level language "C" ?
A.Dennis M. Ritchie
B.Niklaus Writh
C.Seymour Papert
D.Donald Kunth
Q 203 :
_____ is an OOP principle .
A.Structured programming
B.Procedural programming
C.Inheritance
D.Linking
Q 204 :
COBOL is widely used in ________ applications .
A.Commercial
B.Scientific
C.Space
D.Mathematical
Q 205 :
Father of "C" programming language
A.Dennis Ritchie
B.Prof John Keenly
C.Thomas Kurtz
D.Bill Gates
Q 206 :
The instructions that tell a computer how to carry out the processing tasks are referred
A.programs
B.processors
C.input devices
D.memory moduless
Q 207 :
Which one of the following is NOT a computer language ?
A.MS- Excel
B.BASIC
C.COBOL
D.C++
Q 208 :
COBOL is an acronym for _______
A.Common Business Oriented Language
B.Computer Business Oriented Language
C.Common Business Operated Language
D.Common Business Organized Language
Q 209 :
Which of the following is not a binary number ?
A.1
B.101
C.202
D.110
Q 210 :
When creating a computer program, the ______designs the structure of the program .
