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AP DSC TGT (Science) Paper 2 Exam - English

Duration: 150 ยท Questions: 160 ยท Max Marks: 80 ยท Language: 1

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General Knowledge and Current Affairs

1
Which river forms the boundary between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana ?
  1. A.Krishna
  2. B.Godavari
  3. C.Tungabhadra
  4. D.Penna
2
What is the highest peak in Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Anaimudi
  2. B.Mahendragiri
  3. C.Arma Konda
  4. D.Kailasagiri
3
The Coromandel Coast is located in which part of Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Northern
  2. B.Southern
  3. C.Eastern
  4. D.Western
4
Which of the following districts is not part of the Rayalaseema region ?
  1. A.Anantapur
  2. B.Kurnool
  3. C.Kadapa
  4. D.Visakhapatnam
5
Which one of the following rivers does not flow through Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Krishna
  2. B.Godavari
  3. C.Tungabhadra
  4. D.Cauvery
6
Which of the following wildlife sanctuaries is located in Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Bandipur National Park
  2. B.Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
  3. C.Bandhavgarh National Park
  4. D.Jim Corbett National Park
7
Which one of the following is not a port in Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Visakhapatnam Port
  2. B.Krishnapatnam Port
  3. C.Kakinada Port
  4. D.Kolkata Port
8
Which district in Andhra Pradesh is famous for its beaches ?
  1. A.Vijayanagaram
  2. B.Nellore
  3. C.Srikakulam
  4. D.Chittoor
9
What is the name of the largest freshwater lake in Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Pulicat Lake
  2. B.Kolleru Lake
  3. C.Hussain Sagar Lake
  4. D.Chilika Lake
10
Which district in Andhra Pradesh is known for its granite reserves ?
  1. A.Anantapur
  2. B.Guntur
  3. C.Prakasam
  4. D.Srikakulam
11
Which of the following hills is not located in Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Eastern Ghats
  2. B.Nallamala Hills
  3. C.Anaimalai Hills
  4. D.Palkonda Hills
12
The Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which district of Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.West Godavari
  2. B.East Godavari
  3. C.Krishna
  4. D.Guntur
13
Which river forms the picturesque Papi Hills in Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Krishna
  2. B.Godavari
  3. C.Tungabhadra
  4. D.Penna
14
Which of the following is not a hill station in Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Araku Valley
  2. B.Horsley Hills
  3. C.Lambasingi
  4. D.Kodaikanal
15
Where is the Venkateswara Temple, one of the richest temples in the world, located ?
  1. A.Tirupati
  2. B.Vijayawada
  3. C.Visakhapatnam
  4. D.Kurnool
16
Which district in Andhra Pradesh is famous for its diamond mines ?
  1. A.Kadapa
  2. B.Anantapur
  3. C.Krishna
  4. D.Guntur
17
The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built across which river ?
  1. A.Krishna
  2. B.Godavari
  3. C.Penna
  4. D.Tungabhadra
18
Which of the following is not a national park in Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Sri Venkateswara National Park
  2. B.Rajiv Gandhi National Park
  3. C.Papikonda National Park
  4. D.Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park
19
Which district in Andhra Pradesh is known as the 'Rice Bowl of India' ?
  1. A.West Godavari
  2. B.East Godavari
  3. C.Krishna
  4. D.Guntur
20
Where is the Simhachalam Temple, dedicated to Lord Narasimha, located ?
  1. A.Vijayawada
  2. B.Visakhapatnam
  3. C.Rajahmundry
  4. D.Guntur

Perspectives in Education

1
What was the primary mode of education during the Pre-Vedic period in ancient India?
  1. A.Formal schooling in institutions
  2. B.Learning through written texts
  3. C.Informal education within families and communities
  4. D.Vocational training in specialized centers
2
What was a significant characteristic of knowledge transmission during the Pre-Vedic era?
  1. A.Emphasis on practical skills for agriculture
  2. B.Reliance on oral tradition and memorization
  3. C.Development of a written script for learning
  4. D.Focus on artistic and creative expression
3
In the Pre-Vedic period, who played a crucial role in imparting education?
  1. A.Royal scholars and philosophers
  2. B.Wandering monks and ascetics
  3. C.Elders and gurus within the community
  4. D.Specialized teachers in formal schools
4
What type of educational institutions began to emerge during the Post-Vedic period in India?
  1. A.Large universities with diverse faculties
  2. B.Specialized vocational training centers
  3. C.Formal institutions known as Gurukuls
  4. D.Monasteries focused solely on religious studies
5
Which of the following scriptures formed a central part of the curriculum in the Gurukuls of the Post-Vedic period?
  1. A.Arthashastra and Natyashastra
  2. B.Vedas and Upanishads
  3. C.Ramayana and Mahabharata
  4. D.Puranas and Smritis
6
Besides religious texts, what other subjects were often included in the curriculum of Post-Vedic education?
  1. A.Medicine and engineering
  2. B.Grammar, astronomy, mathematics, and philosophy
  3. C.Fine arts and music
  4. D.Military science and administration
7
What was the primary language of instruction in the formal educational institutions of the Post-Vedic period?
  1. A.Pali
  2. B.Sanskrit
  3. C.Prakrit
  4. D.Tamil
8
What major cultural influence significantly impacted education during the Medieval period in India?
  1. A.The rise of Buddhism and Jainism
  2. B.The arrival of European traders
  3. C.The influence of Islamic traditions
  4. D.The resurgence of ancient Vedic practices
9
What were the primary educational institutions established under Islamic influence during the Medieval period?
  1. A.Agraharas and Ghatikas
  2. B.Maktabs and Madrasas
  3. C.Pathshalas and Tols
  4. D.Universities and Colleges
10
What was the main focus of education in Maktabs during the Medieval period?
  1. A.Advanced scientific research
  2. B.Religious teachings and basic literacy
  3. C.Military training and strategy
  4. D.Classical arts and literature

Classroom implications of Educational Psychology

1
Inter-individual differences in a classroom refer to variations?
  1. A.Within a single student across different subjects.
  2. B.Between different students in the class.
  3. C.In a student's performance over time.
  4. D.In the teacher's approach to different students.
2
Which of the following is an example of an inter-individual difference among students?
  1. A.A student excels in both math and science but struggles with writing.
  2. B.One student learns best through visual aids, while another learns best through hands-on activities.
  3. C.A student's motivation in history fluctuates throughout the year.
  4. D.A student shows improvement in reading comprehension after focused practice.
3
Intra-individual differences refer to variations?
  1. A.Between different teachers in the same school.
  2. B.Within a single student across different abilities or interests.
  3. C.In the overall performance of the class compared to previous years.
  4. D.Between students from different cultural backgrounds.
4
Which of the following is an example of an intra-individual difference in a student?
  1. A.A student consistently scores high marks in all subjects.
  2. B.A student is highly skilled in mathematics but has difficulty with reading comprehension.
  3. C.Two students have different learning paces in the same subject.
  4. D.Students in a class show a range of interests in different topics.
5
Understanding intra-individual differences helps teachers to?
  1. A.Group students homogeneously based on overall performance.
  2. B.Recognize a student's unique profile of strengths and weaknesses.
  3. C.Apply a uniform teaching method to the entire class.
  4. D.Focus solely on a student's areas of difficulty.
6
Differentiated instruction primarily aims to?
  1. A.Teach all students the same content at the same pace.
  2. B.Tailor teaching to meet the diverse needs of individual learners.
  3. C.Group students based on their similar learning styles.
  4. D.Focus on the average learner in the classroom.
7
In differentiated instruction, teachers might vary the?
  1. A.Classroom rules and expectations for different students.
  2. B.Content, process, product, and learning environment.
  3. C.Amount of homework assigned to different students.
  4. D.Grading criteria for individual students.
8
Providing reading materials at different levels of complexity is an example of differentiating the?
  1. A.Process
  2. B.Content
  3. C.Product
  4. D.Learning environment
9
Allowing students to choose how they demonstrate their learning (e.g., report, presentation, model) is an example of differentiating the?
  1. A.Content
  2. B.Process
  3. C.Product
  4. D.Learning environment
10
Using varied instructional strategies like visual aids, hands-on activities, and discussions caters to differentiation of?
  1. A.Content
  2. B.Process
  3. C.Product
  4. D.Learning environment

Science

1
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
  1. A.metastable state to any lower state
  2. B.any higher state of lower state
  3. C.metastable state to ground state
  4. D.any higher state to ground state
2
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
  1. A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
  2. B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
  3. C.zero at any point inside the pipe
  4. D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
3
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
  1. A.0.45 m    
  2. B.0.15 m
  3. C.0.30 m       
  4. D.0.6 m
4
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
  1. A.having a constant phase difference
  2. B.of equal wavelength
  3. C.of equal speed
  4. D.having same shape of wavefront
5
Three resistors 1 รขโ€žยฆ, 2 รขโ€žยฆ, 3รขโ€žยฆ resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 รขโ€žยฆ resistor is -
  1. A.0.75 A     
  2. B.1 A
  3. C.2 A         
  4. D.1.5 A
6
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
  1. A.anywhere 
  2. B.emitter-collector
  3. C.collector-base
  4. D.base-emitter
7
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
  1. A.2 and 4
  2. B.1 only
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.4 only
8
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
  1. A.S1,S2 and S4
  2. B.S2 and S4
  3. C.S4 only
  4. D.S3 only
9
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
  1. A.low permeability and high hysterisis loss
  2. B.high permeability and low hysterisis loss
  3. C.high permeability and high hysterisis loss
  4. D.low permeability and low hysterisis loss
10
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
  1. A.same in all the medium
  2. B.lesser in rarer medium
  3. C.lesser in denser medium
  4. D.independent of the medium
11
For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to
  1. A.(2รฐยล“โ€น + 1)λ  
  2. B.2nรฐยล“โ€น
  3. C.nλ
  4. D.n
12
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
  1. A.multimeter 
  2. B.voltmeter
  3. C.voltameter
  4. D.potentiometer
13
A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
  1. A.Both K and L increase
  2. B.Both K and L remain unchanged
  3. C.K remains constant, L increases
  4. D.K increases but L remains constant
14
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
  1. A.Gas constant (R)   
  2. B.Pressure (p)
  3. C.Volume (V) 
  4. D.Temperature (T)
15
An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be
  1. A.300 m
  2. B.3 km
  3. C.15 m
  4. D.15 km
16
The amount of energy released when one microgram of matter is annihilated is
  1. A.25 kWh  
  2. B.9 x 1010 kWh
  3. C.3 x 1010 kWh
  4. D.0.5 x 105 kWh
17
The number of significant figures in the numbers 4.8000 x 104 48000.50 are respectively
  1. A.5 and 6
  2. B.5 and 7
  3. C.2 and 7
  4. D.2 and 6
18
β-decay means emission of electron from
  1. A.innermost electron orbit
  2. B.a stable nucleus
  3. C.outermost electron orbit
  4. D.radioactive nucleus
19
An electric heater rated 220 V and 550 W is connected to AC mains. The current drawn by it is
  1. A.0.8 A          
  2. B.2.5 A
  3. C.0.4 A        
  4. D.1.25 A
20
A string is wound round the rim of a mounted flywheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord. Neglecting friction and mass of the string, the angular acceleration of the wheel is
  1. A.50 s-2
  2. B.25 s-2
  3. C.12.5 s-2
  4. D.6.25 s-2
21
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
  1. A.between 7 and 8
  2. B.between 5 and 6
  3. C.between 6 and 7
  4. D.between 10 and 11
22
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
  1. A.1.93 A         
  2. B.9.65 A
  3. C.19.3 A        
  4. D.0.965 A
23
The one which decreases with dilution is
  1. A.molar conductance
  2. B.conductance
  3. C.specific conductance
  4. D.equivalent conductance
24
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
  1. A.28 mm   
  2. B.56 mm
  3. C.70 mm    
  4. D.140 mm
25
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
  1. A.1 M solution of glucose
  2. B.0.05 M solution of glucose
  3. C.6% solution of glucose
  4. D.25% solution of glucose
26
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
  1. A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
  2. B.to minimise the snow fall
  3. C.to minimise pollution
  4. D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
27
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
  1. A.AB2 
  2. B.A2B
  3. C.AB
  4. D.AB3
28
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
  1. A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
  2. B.decreases electron density at meta position
  3. C.increases electron  density at meta position
  4. D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
29
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
  1. A.PCI5
  2. B.PCI3
  3. C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
  4. D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
30
The carbon bond length in benzene is
  1. A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
  2. B.same as in C2H4
  3. C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
  4. D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
31
The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is
  1. A.methanal
  2. B.propanal
  3. C.propanone
  4. D.ethanal
32
An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is
  1. A.CH3CH2OH
  2. B.CH3 – C – CH3
  3. C.(CH3)2CHOH 
  4. D.CH3CHO
33
Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, NH3
  1. A.NH3, < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
  2. B.NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
  3. C.(CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
  4. D.CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N , NH3
34
The one which has least iodine value is
  1. A.sunflower oil 
  2. B.ginger oil
  3. C.ghee
  4. D.groundnut oil
35
A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
  1. A.glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
  2. B.glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
  3. C.glucose reduces the blood sugar level
  4. D.glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
36
There are 20 naturally occurring among acids. The maximum number of tripeptides than can be obtained is
  1. A.8000 
  2. B.6470
  3. C.7465
  4. D.5360
37
At what temperature ill the RMS velocity of SO2 be the same as that of O2 at 303 K ?
  1. A.403 K
  2. B.303 K
  3. C.606 K
  4. D.273 K
38
Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken well. The white precipitate formed during the process is
  1. A.m–bromophenol
  2. B.2, 4, 6 tribromophenol
  3. C.2-4 dibromophenol
  4. D.A mixture of o-and p-bromophenols
39
In thermite process the metal used as reducing agent is:
  1. A.Nickel
  2. B.Zinc
  3. C.Sodium
  4. D.Aluminium
40
Which of the following compounds on boiling with alkaline KMnO4 and subsequent acidification will not give benzoic acid?
  1. A.Benzyl alcohol
  2. B.Acetophenone
  3. C.Anisole
  4. D.Toluene
41
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
  1. A.the nature of enzymes involved
  2. B.the nature of the substrate
  3. C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
  4. D.the amount of oxygen utilised
42
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
  1. A.Water vapour
  2. B.Carbon monoxide
  3. C.Methane
  4. D.Oxygen
43
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
  1. A.50%          
  2. B.75%
  3. C.0% 
  4. D.25%
44
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
  1. A.fresh-water mussel
  2. B.tortoise
  3. C.frog
  4. D.jelly fish
45
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
  1. A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
  2. B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
  3. C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
  4. D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
46
Compare the statement A and B.
Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy.
Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
  1. A.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
  2. B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
  3. C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
  4. D.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
47
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
  1. A.B,C and D
  2. B.A and D
  3. C.B and D
  4. D.A, B and C
48
Compare the statements A and B.
Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds.
Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
  1. A.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
  2. B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
  3. C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
  4. D.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
49
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
  1. A.Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
  2. B.Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
  3. C.Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
  4. D.Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
50
Stoma opens, when
  1. A.guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
  2. B.guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
  3. C.guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
  4. D.guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
51
Which of the following is properly matched ?
  1. A.Platyhelminthes –Trematoda – Planoria
  2. B.Echinodermate – Asteroidea – Star fish
  3. C.arthropoda – Insecta – Spider
  4. D.Mollusca – Cephalopoda – Unio
52
A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body temperature, loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His brain scan would probably show a tumour in
  1. A.medulla oblongata
  2. B.pons
  3. C.cerebellum 
  4. D.hypothalamus
53
The agents, which are known to cause CJD are
  1. A.protein particles
  2. B.a class of bacteria
  3. C.a class of viruses
  4. D.fungi
54
In crop improvement programmers, virus-free clones can be obtained through
  1. A.grafting
  2. B.hybridization
  3. C.embryo culture 
  4. D.shoot apex culture
55
A person is suffering from frequent episodes of nasal discharge, nasal congestion, reddening of eyes and watery eyes. These are the symptoms of
  1. A.cyanosis
  2. B.bronchitis
  3. C.rhinitis
  4. D.bronchial carcinoma
56
Some important events in the human female reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the events in a proper sequence.
A: Secretion of FSH
B: Growth of corpus luteum
C: Growth of the follicle and oogenesis
D: Ovulation
E: Sudden increase in the levels of LH
 
  1. A.C → A → D → B → E
  2. B.A → C → E → D → B
  3. C.A → D → C → E → B
  4. D.B → A → C → D → E
57
Which of the following options shows bisexual animals only ?
  1. A.Amoeba, sponge, leech
  2. B.Sponge, cockroach, Amoeba
  3. C.Earthworm, sponge, leech
  4. D.Tapeworm, earthworm, honeybee
58
Vaccination against small pox was developed by:
  1. A.Louis Pasteur
  2. B.Edward jenner
  3. C.Robert Koch
  4. D.Alexander Flemming
59
The value of human diastolic blood pressure is :
  1. A.120 – 80 = 40 mm. Hg
  2. B.120 mm. Hg
  3. C.80 mm. Hg
  4. D.128/80 mm. Hg
60
Balance theory of sex determination holds good for:
  1. A.Allium cepa
  2. B.Drosophila
  3. C.Humans
  4. D.grasshoppers
61
What is the primary focus of science?
  1. A.Philosophical debates
  2. B.Systematic study of the natural world
  3. C.Artistic expression
  4. D.Economic analysis
62
What does the scope of science include?
  1. A.Only theoretical knowledge
  2. B.Empirical and theoretical understanding of nature
  3. C.Religious beliefs
  4. D.Political ideologies
63
How does science relate to society?
  1. A.It is isolated from societal needs
  2. B.It influences and is influenced by societal values
  3. C.It focuses only on economic growth
  4. D.It ignores cultural aspects
64
What is empirical knowledge in science?
  1. A.Knowledge based on theories
  2. B.Knowledge gained through observation and experimentation
  3. C.Knowledge from philosophical reasoning
  4. D.Knowledge from mathematical models
65
What is theoretical knowledge in science?
  1. A.Knowledge from direct observations
  2. B.Knowledge based on concepts, hypotheses, and theories
  3. C.Knowledge from social beliefs
  4. D.Knowledge from artistic interpretations
66
What is a scientific fact?
  1. A.A hypothesis yet to be tested
  2. B.A verified observation or measurement
  3. C.A philosophical idea
  4. D.An untested assumption
67
What is a hypothesis in science?
  1. A.A proven law
  2. B.A testable proposed explanation
  3. C.A final conclusion
  4. D.A mathematical equation
68
What is a scientific theory?
  1. A.A guess without evidence
  2. B.A well-substantiated explanation based on evidence
  3. C.A single observation
  4. D.A philosophical belief
69
What is a scientific law?
  1. A.A hypothesis under testing
  2. B.A statement describing a consistent natural phenomenon
  3. C.A cultural belief
  4. D.An untested idea
70
What does the syntactic structure of science involve?
  1. A.Empirical data collection
  2. B.Processes and methods of scientific inquiry
  3. C.Social ideologies
  4. D.Artistic creativity
71
What is scientific inquiry?
  1. A.Random guessing
  2. B.Systematic investigation to answer questions
  3. C.Philosophical debate
  4. D.Artistic exploration
72
Which process is part of scientific inquiry?
  1. A.Ignoring evidence
  2. B.Formulating hypotheses
  3. C.Avoiding experiments
  4. D.Relying on assumptions
73
What is an attitude of scientific inquiry?
  1. A.Accepting claims without evidence
  2. B.Open-mindedness and skepticism
  3. C.Ignoring new data
  4. D.Avoiding critical thinking
74
What is a key characteristic of scientific processes?
  1. A.Subjectivity
  2. B.Objectivity and repeatability
  3. C.Emotional bias
  4. D.Randomness
75
How does science contribute to ideology?
  1. A.It promotes untested beliefs
  2. B.It provides evidence-based solutions
  3. C.It avoids societal issues
  4. D.It focuses on myths
76
What is the role of observation in science?
  1. A.To confirm biases
  2. B.To gather empirical data
  3. C.To create theories without evidence
  4. D.To avoid experiments
77
What is the purpose of experimentation in science?
  1. A.To prove all hypotheses correct
  2. B.To test hypotheses and gather evidence
  3. C.To avoid data analysis
  4. D.To create untestable theories
78
What distinguishes a scientific principle?
  1. A.It is a temporary idea
  2. B.It is a fundamental truth based on evidence
  3. C.It is a cultural belief
  4. D.It is an untested hypothesis
79
What is the role of critical thinking in science?
  1. A.To accept all claims
  2. B.To evaluate evidence objectively
  3. C.To rely on assumptions
  4. D.To avoid questioning
80
What is the substantive structure of science?
  1. A.Methods of inquiry
  2. B.Facts, concepts, and theories
  3. C.Social beliefs
  4. D.Artistic interpretations
81
Who was Aryabhatta?
  1. A.A Greek philosopher
  2. B.An Indian mathematician and astronomer
  3. C.A British physicist
  4. D.A German scientist
82
What was Aryabhattaโ€™s contribution to science?
  1. A.Laws of motion
  2. B.Heliocentric model
  3. C.Zero and place value system
  4. D.Theory of relativity
83
What did Bhaskara Charya contribute to mathematics?
  1. A.Theory of gravity
  2. B.Algebra and astronomy
  3. C.Quantum mechanics
  4. D.Atomic model
84
Who proposed the geocentric model of the universe?
  1. A.Copernicus
  2. B.Aristotle
  3. C.Einstein
  4. D.Newton
85
What was Copernicus known for?
  1. A.Theory of relativity
  2. B.Heliocentric model of the solar system
  3. C.Laws of motion
  4. D.Atomic structure
86
What did Newton formulate?
  1. A.Quantum theory
  2. B.Laws of motion and universal gravitation
  3. C.Atomic model
  4. D.Heliocentric theory
87
What was Einsteinโ€™s major contribution to science?
  1. A.Laws of planetary motion
  2. B.Theory of relativity
  3. C.Discovery of zero
  4. D.Raman effect
88
What is C.V. Raman famous for?
  1. A.Theory of gravity
  2. B.Raman effect in light scattering
  3. C.Heliocentric model
  4. D.Quantum mechanics
89
Which organization promotes scientific research in India?
  1. A.NASA
  2. B.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  3. C.CERN
  4. D.ESA
90
What is the role of the Department of Science and Technology (DST) in India?
  1. A.Promotes agricultural development
  2. B.Funds scientific research and innovation
  3. C.Regulates education
  4. D.Manages transportation
91
What was a key feature of oriental science?
  1. A.Focus on quantum mechanics
  2. B.Emphasis on astronomy and mathematics
  3. C.Development of relativity
  4. D.Focus on atomic models
92
What characterized western science in the Renaissance?
  1. A.Reliance on myths
  2. B.Empirical observation and experimentation
  3. C.Focus on astrology
  4. D.Avoidance of mathematics
93
What did Aryabhatta propose about Earthโ€™s motion?
  1. A.Earth is flat
  2. B.Earth rotates on its axis
  3. C.Earth is stationary
  4. D.Earth orbits the Moon
94
What is Bhaskara Charyaโ€™s work โ€œSiddhanta Shiromaniโ€ known for?
  1. A.Atomic theory
  2. B.Astronomy and mathematics
  3. C.Quantum physics
  4. D.Chemical bonding
95
What was Aristotleโ€™s view on motion?
  1. A.Objects move due to gravity
  2. B.Objects need continuous force to move
  3. C.Objects move in circular orbits
  4. D.Motion is due to relativity
96
What did Copernicus challenge?
  1. A.Heliocentric model
  2. B.Geocentric model
  3. C.Theory of relativity
  4. D.Quantum theory
97
What is Newtonโ€™s first law of motion?
  1. A.Force equals mass times acceleration
  2. B.An object remains at rest or in motion unless acted upon
  3. C.For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction
  4. D.Gravitational force depends on mass
98
What did Einsteinโ€™s theory of relativity explain?
  1. A.Motion of planets
  2. B.Relationship between mass, energy, and space-time
  3. C.Atomic structure
  4. D.Light scattering
99
What is the Raman effect?
  1. A.Change in light wavelength due to scattering
  2. B.Change in mass due to energy
  3. C.Motion of planets
  4. D.Atomic fission
100
Which Indian organization develops nuclear technology?
  1. A.DRDO
  2. B.Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)
  3. C.CSIR
  4. D.ICAR
101
What is the standard unit of length in the SI system?
  1. A.Centimeter
  2. B.Kilometer
  3. C.Meter
  4. D.Millimeter
102
How can the length of a curved line be measured?
  1. A.Using a ruler directly
  2. B.Using a thread and a ruler
  3. C.Using a protractor
  4. D.Using a stopwatch
103
What is the CGS unit of volume?
  1. A.Cubic meter
  2. B.Liter
  3. C.Cubic centimeter
  4. D.Milliliter
104
How many centimeters are in 1 meter?
  1. A.10
  2. B.100
  3. C.1000
  4. D.10000
105
What device is used to measure time accurately?
  1. A.Thermometer
  2. B.Ruler
  3. C.Stopwatch
  4. D.Balance
106
Which unit is used to measure area in the SI system?
  1. A.Square meter
  2. B.Square centimeter
  3. C.Cubic meter
  4. D.Meter
107
How is 1 kilometer converted to meters?
  1. A.Divide by 100
  2. B.Multiply by 100
  3. C.Multiply by 1000
  4. D.Divide by 1000
108
What was a common non-standard unit of length used historically?
  1. A.Liter
  2. B.Cubit
  3. C.Kilogram
  4. D.Second
109
How many milliliters are in 1 liter?
  1. A.10
  2. B.100
  3. C.1000
  4. D.10000
110
What instrument is used to measure the volume of a liquid?
  1. A.Graduated cylinder
  2. B.Ruler
  3. C.Thermometer
  4. D.Balance
111
Which system uses gram as a unit of mass?
  1. A.SI system
  2. B.CGS system
  3. C.FPS system
  4. D.MKS system
112
How is 1 square meter converted to square centimeters?
  1. A.Multiply by 100
  2. B.Multiply by 1000
  3. C.Multiply by 10000
  4. D.Divide by 100
113
What is used to measure the length of a straight line?
  1. A.Protractor
  2. B.Ruler
  3. C.Compass
  4. D.Balance
114
What is the SI unit of area?
  1. A.Square centimeter
  2. B.Cubic meter
  3. C.Square meter
  4. D.Hectare
115
How many seconds are in 1 minute?
  1. A.30
  2. B.60
  3. C.100
  4. D.3600
116
What is the CGS unit of length?
  1. A.Meter
  2. B.Kilometer
  3. C.Centimeter
  4. D.Millimeter
117
Which unit is used to measure the volume of a solid?
  1. A.Liter
  2. B.Cubic meter
  3. C.Square meter
  4. D.Meter
118
How is 1 meter converted to millimeters?
  1. A.Multiply by 10
  2. B.Multiply by 100
  3. C.Multiply by 1000
  4. D.Divide by 100
119
What is the primary purpose of standard units in measurement?
  1. A.To confuse measurements
  2. B.To ensure consistency globally
  3. C.To increase measurement time
  4. D.To reduce accuracy
120
What is motion defined as?
  1. A.A change in position with respect to time
  2. B.A change in mass
  3. C.A change in temperature
  4. D.A change in color
Question for AP DSC TGT (Science) 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam