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Subjects : Criminal Law

Question Bank AP High Court Civil Judge Mains Exam Stage 2 (Paper- 2) - English
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Criminal Law

Question 1Single Answer
The Draft of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was prepared by .
  1. A
    Lord Macaulay
  2. B
    Sir James F. Stephen
  3. C
    Huxley
  4. D
    Sir Henery Maine
Question 2Single Answer
Who drafted the Indian Evidence Act
  1. A
    Lord Denning
  2. B
    A.V. Dicey
  3. C
    Lord Macaulay
  4. D
    J. F. Stephen
Question 3Single Answer
Which of the following statements is correct in relation to Evidence Act ?
  1. A
    Sir Henry Maine prepared the draft Bill of the Act
  2. B
    Sir James Stephen prepared the draft Bill of the Act
  3. C
    The draft Bill of the Act was prepared by II Law
  4. D
    None of the above
Question 4Single Answer
The law of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
  1. A
    Substantive Law
  2. B
    Procedural Law
  3. C
    Substantive and Procedural Law
  4. D
    None of the above
Question 5Single Answer
Law of evidence is
  1. A
    A substantive law
  2. B
    an adjective law
  3. C
    Both (A) and (B)
  4. D
    Neither (A) nor (B)
Question 6Single Answer
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to
  1. A
    Only civil proceedings
  2. B
    Only criminal proceedings
  3. C
    Civil and criminal Proceeding both
  4. D
    None of the above
Question 7Single Answer
Indian Evidence Act, applies to both Civil and Criminal Proceedings before a Court is the statement :
  1. A
    Not correct
  2. B
    Correct
  3. C
    Partly correct
  4. D
    None of the above
Question 8Single Answer
Law of Evidence :
  1. A
    Retrospective
  2. B
    Effect the fundamental right of person
  3. C
    Always have prospective effect
  4. D
    Not a procedural law
Question 9Single Answer
Point out the correct answer
Law of Evidence is
  1. A
    Lex Talionis
  2. B
    Lex Fori
  3. C
    Lex Loci
  4. D
    Lex Situ
Question 10Single Answer
The meaning of 'Lex Loci' is :
  1. A
    Law of the Land is Supreme
  2. B
    Law of Land
  3. C
    Local Laws
  4. D
    Law of England
Question 11Single Answer
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been divided into………Parts and ........... Chapters .
  1. A
    2, 10
  2. B
    3, 11
  3. C
    4, 12 3, 12
  4. D
    3, 12
Question 12Single Answer
How many Sections and Chapters are there in Indian Evidence Act ?
  1. A
    164 Sections and 10 Chapters
  2. B
    167 Sections and 10 Chapters
  3. C
    167 Sections and 11 Chapters
  4. D
    167 Sections and 9 Chapters
Question 13Single Answer
As per preamble of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this Act is
  1. A
    to provide, define and amend the law of evidence
  2. B
    to provide, consolidate the law of evidence
  3. C
    to define and amend the law of evidence
  4. D
    to consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
Question 14Single Answer
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was enacted on the of
  1. A
    6th October, 1860
  2. B
    1st March, 1874
  3. C
    15th March, 1872
  4. D
    1st September, 1872
Question 15Single Answer
Which one of of the following dates enforcement of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is correct ?
  1. A
    15th March, 1872
  2. B
    1st September, 1872
  3. C
    1st July, 1872
  4. D
    1st February, 1872
Question 16Single Answer
Indian evidence act was enforced
  1. A
    1 Sep. 1862
  2. B
    1 Oct. 1872
  3. C
    1 July 1872
  4. D
    None of the above
Question 17Single Answer
The Indian Evidence Act applies to -
  1. A
    proceedings before tribunals
  2. B
    affidavits presented to any court or
  3. C
    proceedings before an arbitrator
  4. D
    None of the above
Question 18Single Answer
The affidavit given to the Court is
  1. A
    not an evidence
  2. B
    an evidence
  3. C
    merely a written statement
  4. D
    a proof
Question 19Single Answer
Indian Evidence Act 1872 does not apply to
  1. A
    Affidavits produced before the court
  2. B
    proceedings before the arbitrator
  3. C
    Both (a) and (b)
  4. D
    On Judicial proceedings before the courtv
Question 20Single Answer
The Indian Evidence Act applies to
  1. A
    Affidavits
  2. B
    Judicial proceedings
  3. C
    Arbitration proceedings
  4. D
    All of these
Question 21Single Answer
The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, deals primarily with:
  1. A
    Contracts
  2. B
    Property
  3. C
    Negotiable instruments
  4. D
    Company law
Question 22Single Answer
Which of the following is not considered a negotiable instrument?
  1. A
    Cheque
  2. B
    Bill of exchange
  3. C
    Promissory note
  4. D
    Contract
Question 23Single Answer
A negotiable instrument must be:
  1. A
    Signed by the payee
  2. B
    In writing
  3. C
    Not transferable
  4. D
    Executed in duplicate
Question 24Single Answer
A "promissory note" is defined under:
  1. A
    Section 4
  2. B
    Section 5
  3. C
    Section 6
  4. D
    Section 7
Question 25Single Answer
In a bill of exchange, the party who orders payment is known as the:
  1. A
    Payee
  2. B
    Drawer
  3. C
    Drawee
  4. D
    Endorser
Question 26Single Answer
A "cheque" is defined under:
  1. A
    Section 6
  2. B
    Section 7
  3. C
    Section 8
  4. D
    Section 9
Question 27Single Answer
Which of the following is essential for a valid cheque?
  1. A
    It must be dated
  2. B
    It must be signed by the payee
  3. C
    It must be endorsed
  4. D
    It must have a witness
Question 28Single Answer
The holder of a negotiable instrument is entitled to:
  1. A
    Demand payment
  2. B
    Transfer it freely
  3. C
    Both a and b
  4. D
    None of the above
Question 29Single Answer
A "holder in due course" is defined under:
  1. A
    Section 9
  2. B
    Section 10
  3. C
    Section 13
  4. D
    Section 15
Question 30Single Answer
A negotiable instrument can be transferred by:
  1. A
    Delivery only
  2. B
    Endorsement and delivery
  3. C
    Notarization
  4. D
    None of the above
Question 31Single Answer
1. Which of the following is correct answer ?
i. Provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir
ii. All provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Nagaland
Choose the correct answer
  1. A
    Only (i) is correct
  2. B
    Only (ii) is correct
  3. C
    Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
  4. D
    Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Question 32Single Answer
Which among the following chapters of the Cr.P.C., 1973 does not apply to the State of Nagaland and the tribal areas ?
  1. A
    Chapter VIII
  2. B
    Chapter IX
  3. C
    Chapter X
  4. D
    Chapter XI
Question 33Single Answer
The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following -
  1. A
    State of Tripura
  2. B
    State of Assam
  3. C
    State of Meghalya
  4. D
    State of Nagaland
Question 34Single Answer
Reason for non-applicability of some of the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code to the State of Nagaland have been stated by the Supreme Court in -
  1. A
    State of Nagaland v. Ratan Singh
  2. B
    Maharaja Vikram Kishore of Tripura v. Province of Assam
  3. C
    Zarzoliana v. Government of Mizoram
  4. D
    State of Nagaland v. Chung
Question 35Single Answer
What is the meaning of 'tribal areas' for the purpose of Section 1 of the Criminal Procedure Code ?
  1. A
    Municipal area of Shilong
  2. B
    Municipal area of Mizoram
  3. C
    Assam as prescribed in Para 20 of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
  4. D
    Arunachal Pradesh as prescribed by the Constitution
Question 36Single Answer
Assertion (A) : Subject to some exceptions the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure are not applicable to tribal areas in undivided Assam.
Reason (R) : These areas enjoy special status like the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Code
  1. A
    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
  2. B
    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
  3. C
    (A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. D
    (A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 37Single Answer
When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 came into force ?
  1. A
    On April 1, 1973
  2. B
    On April 1, 1974
  3. C
    On January 1, 1974
  4. D
    On March 1, 1974
Question 38Single Answer
When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 received the assent of the President of India ?
  1. A
    25-12-1973
  2. B
    25-01-1974
  3. C
    25-02-1974
  4. D
    25-05-1974
Question 39Single Answer
The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2005 (No. 25 of 2005) received the assent of the President on :
  1. A
    21st July, 2005
  2. B
    23rd June, 2005
  3. C
    22nd August, 2005
  4. D
    20th September, 2005
Question 40Single Answer
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, came into effect on
  1. A
    6th April, 2013
  2. B
    3rd  February, 2013
  3. C
    7th January, 2013
  4. D
    5th March, 2013
Question 41Single Answer
Consider the following statements -
1. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
2. The provisions relating to Chapters VIII, X, XI under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 shall not apply to the State of Nagaland and to the Tribal Areas
3. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 shall came into force on 25th January, 1974
4. Chapter II of Cr.P.C. deals with Constitution of Criminal Courts and Offices
Which of the statements given below is correct ?
  1. A
    (1), (2), (3) and (4)
  2. B
    (2), (3) and (4)
  3. C
    (2) and (3) only
  4. D
    (1) and (4) only
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
  1. A
    Police report : Section 2(r)
  2. B
    Cognizable offence : Section 2(c)
  3. C
    Bailable offence : Section 2(b)
  4. D
    Investigation : Section 2(h)
Question 43Single Answer
'Bailable offence' means and offence which is shown as bailable in
  1. A
    the First Schedule of Cr.P.C
  2. B
    the Second Schedule of Cr.P.C
  3. C
    Section 425 Cr.P.C
  4. D
    Section 426 Cr.P.C.
Question 44Single Answer
What offence is bailable ?
  1. A
    Mentioned as bailable offence in I Schedule of Cr.P.C
  2. B
    All cases of summon's trial
  3. C
    All non-cognizable offences
  4. D
    All cases which are not triable by session
Question 45Single Answer
Non-bailable offence means -
  1. A
    Only those offence which are shown non bailable in the first schedule
  2. B
    All those offence which are not shown as bailable under first schedule or any other laws for the time being inforce
  3. C
    Such kind of offence for which police may arrest any person without warrant
  4. D
    Such kind of offence for which police cannot arrest any person without warrant
Question 46Single Answer
Who can frame the 'charge' according to the Criminal Procedure Code ?
  1. A
    Court
  2. B
    Public Prosecutor
  3. C
    Office-in-charge of the concerned police station
  4. D
    All of the above 
Question 47Single Answer
A precise formulation of a specific accusation is called
  1. A
    Bailable offence
  2. B
    Cognizable offence
  3. C
    Charge
  4. D
    Non-compoundable offence
Question 48Single Answer
Under which Section of Cr.P.C. cognizable offence has been defined ?
  1. A
    Section 2(a)
  2. B
    Section 2(c)
  3. C
    Section 2(i)
  4. D
    Section 2(1)
Question 49Single Answer
Section 2(c) of the code of Criminal Procedure defines -
  1. A
    Bailable offence
  2. B
    Non- Bailable offence
  3. C
    Cognizable offence
  4. D
    Non-cognizable offence
Question 50Single Answer
In a cognizable offence a police officer :
  1. A
    Cannot arrest an accused without warrant
  2. B
    May arrest an accused without warrant
  3. C
    Can keep the accused in police custody without a remand order
  4. D
    Is not required to produce the accused before a Magistrate
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