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Latest AP LAWCET Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge & Mental Ability, Current Affairs, Aptitude for the Study of Law
Question Bank AP LAWCET Exam - English
General Knowledge & Mental Ability
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 9 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 10 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 11 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 12 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 13 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 14 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 15 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 16 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 17 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 18 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 19 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 20 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 21 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 22 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 23 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 24 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 25 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 26 :
Which is the largest textile market in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Madanapalle
B.Tirupati
C.Vijayawada
D.Visakhapatnam
Q 27 :
Which is the largest turmeric market in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Guntur
B.East Godavari
C.West Godavari
D.Krishna
Q 28 :
Which is the largest chilli market in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Guntur
B.East Godavari
C.West Godavari
D.Krishna
Q 29 :
Which is the largest cotton market in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Anantapur
B.Kurnool
C.Chittoor
D.Prakasam
Q 30 :
Which is the largest rice market in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Krishna
B.Guntur
C.East Godavari
D.West Godavari
Current Affairs
Q 31 :
Which river forms the boundary between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana ?
A.Krishna
B.Godavari
C.Tungabhadra
D.Penna
Q 32 :
What is the highest peak in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Anaimudi
B.Mahendragiri
C.Arma Konda
D.Kailasagiri
Q 33 :
The Coromandel Coast is located in which part of Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Northern
B.Southern
C.Eastern
D.Western
Q 34 :
Which of the following districts is not part of the Rayalaseema region ?
A.Anantapur
B.Kurnool
C.Kadapa
D.Visakhapatnam
Q 35 :
Which one of the following rivers does not flow through Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Krishna
B.Godavari
C.Tungabhadra
D.Cauvery
Q 36 :
Approximate indigenous content in DSV Nipun is:
A.50%
B.60%
C.Over 80%
D.100%
Q 37 :
DSV Nipun has an approximate length of:
A.80 metres
B.100 metres
C.150 metres
D.118 metres
Q 38 :
The FIFA World Cup 2026 will be the first to feature how many teams?
A.32
B.40
C.48
D.64
Q 39 :
A recent Russian missile attack on Kyiv (reported around 1 August 2026) resulted in:
A.No casualties
B.At least 3 killed and 15 injured
C.Complete destruction of the city centre
D.Capture of Ukrainian territory
Q 40 :
Who is the current Chairman of ISRO (as of 2026)?
A.V. Narayanan
B.S. Somanath
C.K. Sivan
D.A.S. Kiran Kumar
Q 41 :
Who is the current Chairman of SEBI (as of 2026)?
A.Tuhin Kanta Pandey
B.Madhabi Puri Buch
C.Ajay Tyagi
D.U.K. Sinha
Q 42 :
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act was originally enacted in which year?
A.2024
B.2023
C.2022
D.2025
Q 43 :
Which of the following is a key feature of DSV Nipun?
A.Aircraft carrier capability
B.Nuclear propulsion
C.Saturation diving and submarine rescue systems
D.Ballistic missile launch
Q 44 :
Which of the following is correct regarding India’s retail inflation measurement?
A.WPI is the primary retail measure
B.Inflation is not officially measured
C.Only food inflation is tracked
D.CPI is the primary retail measure used by RBI
Q 45 :
In the Commonwealth Games 2026 men’s javelin final, who won the bronze medal for India?
A.Yash Vir Singh
B.Neeraj Chopra
C.Kishore Jena
D.Rohit Yadav
Q 46 :
Who among the following was appointed as the new Director of the Financial Intelligence Unit–India (FIU-IND) recently?
A.Satya Pal Kumar
B.Pankaj Kumar Mishra
C.Anurag Jain
D.Raj Kumar Goyal
Q 47 :
The Public Examinations Amendment Bill 2026 increases the maximum imprisonment for individuals involved in paper leaks to:
A.3 years
B.5 years
C.10 years
D.7 years
Q 48 :
The Indian Navy recently received its second indigenous Diving Support Vessel (DSV). What is its name?
A.Nistar
B.Nipun
C.INS Vikrant
D.INS Arihant
Q 49 :
The second indigenous Diving Support Vessel ‘Nipun’ was delivered at which location?
A.Mumbai
B.Kochi
C.Visakhapatnam
D.Kolkata
Q 50 :
Which body decides the Repo Rate in India?
A.Finance Ministry
B.SEBI
C.RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)
D.NITI Aayog
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India’s retail inflation is primarily measured using which index?
A.CPI
B.WPI
C.GDP Deflator
D.IIP
Q 52 :
Which institution publishes the Global Innovation Index?
A.World Bank
B.IMF
C.WIPO
D.WTO
Q 53 :
In the Commonwealth Games 2026 javelin final, the gold medal was won by an athlete from:
A.Sri Lanka
B.Australia
C.India
D.England
Q 54 :
Exercise Tarang Shakti is associated with which arm of the Indian Armed Forces?
A.Indian Army
B.Indian Navy
C.Indian Coast Guard
D.Indian Air Force
Q 55 :
Which ministry implements the PM-KISAN Scheme?
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Rural Development
C.Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare
D.Ministry of Food Processing Industries
Q 56 :
The RBI continues to promote which system specifically for small-value digital transactions?
A.RTGS
B.NEFT
C.UPI Lite
D.IMPS
Q 57 :
Which organisation released the Global Tiger Recovery Report 2026?
A.UNEP
B.WWF
C.Global Tiger Forum
D.IUCN
Q 58 :
India became which numbered WTO member to accept the Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (as per recent updates)?
A.120th
B.121st
C.123rd
D.125th
Q 59 :
Who won the silver medal in the men’s javelin throw at the Commonwealth Games 2026 held in Glasgow?
A.Yash Vir Singh
B.Neeraj Chopra
C.Kishore Jena
D.Rohit Yadav
Q 60 :
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which date?
A.27 July 2026
B.29 July 2026
C.31 July 2026
D.30 July 2026
Aptitude for the Study of Law
Q 61 :
A. Government of India Act 1858 control 1. Absolute imperial
B.Indian Councils Act 1861 2.Non official members in executive council
C. Indian Council 3.Separate representation of Muslim community Act1909
D. Government of 4.Dyarchy in the India Act 1919 provinces
A.A B C D
2 3 1 4
B.4 1 2 3
C.3 4 1 2
D.1 2 3 4
Q 62 :
Which of the following is/are the principal features of the government of India Act 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.1, 3 and 4
Q 63 :
Consider the following statements:
The Indian constitution is
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Largely based on government of India
Act, 1935
A.1 and 2 are correct
B.2 and 3 are correct
C.1 and 3 are correct
D.None of the above
Q 64 :
Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism:
1. Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state.
2. Secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2
C.2 and 3
D.1 and 3
Q 65 :
Which one is not correctly matched?
A.Freedom of speech - include freedom of and expression press
B.Freedom of - include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
C.conscience
Right to personal - include right to carry on any trade or business liberty
D.(d) Right to equality - includes principles of natural justice
Q 66 :
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
A.Prime Minister
B.Vice- President
C.Chief Minister
D.Chief Justice
Q 67 :
An accused person has been provided with the following protections by constitution of India:
1. Ex post facto law
2. Safeguard against arrest and detention
3. Double jeopardy.
Arrange the protections in the order in which they appear in the Indian constitution.
A.Codes:
1, 3, 2
B.1, 2, 3
C.3, 1, 2
D.2, 1,3
Q 68 :
Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
A.75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
B.76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
C.77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
D.78th Amendment to the Constitution of India
Q 69 :
Match the following:
A. Right to go 1. Bhim Singh's case.
abroad
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's 4. Sunil Batra's case.
liability
A.Codes:
A B C D
2 4 1 3
B.4 2 3 1
C.2 4 3 1
D.4 2 1 3
Q 70 :
A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
A.Three months
B.Six months
C.Nine months
D.Twelve months
Q 71 :
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A.Habeas corpus - available against private individual as well.
B.Quo warranto - available against subordinate courts only
C.Certiorari - available against autonomous bodies only
D.Prohibition - directs a public authority to perform a task.
Q 72 :
Match the following:
A. Right to go abroad 1. Bhim Singh's case.
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's liability 4. Sunil Batra's case.
A.A B C D
2 4 1 3
B.4 2 3 1
C.2 4 3 1
D.4 2 1 3
Q 73 :
Match the following:
A.Right to live with human dignity enshrined in Art. 21 derives life breath
from DPSP Clauses e and f of Art. 39, 41 and 42.
B.Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of just, fair and reasonable procedure guaranteed by Art. 21.
C.In PIL, a total stranger to a trial cannot be permitted to question the correctness of the conviction of the accused.
D.In case of helplessness or disability, any member of the public can maintain an
Q 74 :
List-I List-II
Balaji vs. Stateof Mysore 1. Doctrine of waiver
of fundamental rights
Maneka Gandhi 2. Religious freedom
vs. UOI
Rev. Stanilaus 3. Right to life and personal liberty
vs. State of MP
Bashesher Nath 4. Reservation for backward classes
vs. IT, Commr. 5. Doctrine of severeability
A.A B C D
4 2 3 1
B.5 4 3 2
C.4 3 2 1
D.5 3 2 1
Q 75 :
List-I List-II
Independence of judiciary 1. Administrative adjudication
Executive legislation 2. Parliamentary form of government
Quasi-judicial functions 3. Appointment and transfer of judges
Collective responsibility 4. Ordinance
A.A B C D
2 1 4 3
B.3 4 1 2
C.2 4 1 3
D.3 I 4 2
Q 76 :
'Test of control' deals with:
A.master and servant relationship
B.measures of damages
C.course of employment
D.implied authority
Q 77 :
In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that the audi alteram partem rule, in essence enforces the equality clause in Article 14 and it is applicable not only to quasi-judicial bodies but also to administrative order adversely affecting the party in question?"
A.U.P. Warehousing Corporation Vs. Vijay Narain
B.Delhi Transport Corporation Vs. DTC Majdoor Union
C.A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
D.Gullapalli Nageshwar Rao Vs. APSRTC
Q 78 :
The inadequacy of consideration will be taken into account by a court of law:
A.when the promisor expresses his desire to get maximum return for his promise
B.when the promisor performs his promise
C.when fraud, coercion or undue influence in the formation of the contract is pleaded
D.always at the discretion of the court
Q 79 :
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) committed to provide:
(a) Universal access to affordable, reliable and modern energy services
(b) Improving the share of renewable energy
(c) Doubling of energy efficiency by 2030
(d) Protection of ocean and wetland
A.(a), (b) and (c) are true
B.(a), (c) and (d) are true
C.(b), (c) and (d) are true
D.(a), (b) and (d) are true
Q 80 :
Which of the following statement/statements is/are NOT correct?
(a) The declaration of National Emergency on the ground of 'Armed Rebellion' was inserted by the Constitutional (42 Amendment) Act, 1976.
(b) President shall not issue a proclamation under Clause (1) Article 352 unless the decision of the Union Cabinet (the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers) is communicated to him in writing.
(c) A resolution approving the proclamation of National Emergency must be passed by special majority.
(d) A proclamation of Emergency once approved by the Parliament shall remain in force until the emergency ceases.
A.Only (a)
B.(a) and (d) both
C.(b), (c) and (d)
D.(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Q 81 :
Which of the following is not included in the definition of law under Article 13 of the Constitution of India?
A.Legislation
B.Customs
C.Usage having no force of law
D.Ordinance
Q 82 :
Which of the following Article of the Constitution uses the term 'martial law'?
A.Article 33
B.Article 34
C.Article 352
D.Article 353
Q 83 :
Which of the following case is not related to "Theory of basic structure' under Article 368 of the Constitution?
A.Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
B.Waman Rao Vs. Union of India
C.L. Chandra Kumar Vs. Union of India
D.T.K. Rangarajan Vs. Government of Tamil Nadu
Q 84 :
Which of the following is incorrect in relation to the declaration of financial emergency by the President under Article 360 of the constitution?
A.A. It shall cease to operate at the expiration of one month unless approved by both Houses of Parliament
B.Salary and allowances of persons serving in connection with affairs of state may be reduced
C.It may be revoked or varied by a subsequent proclamation by President
D.Salary and allowances of the Judges of Supreme Court and High Courts may be reduced
Q 85 :
In which of the following case the Parliament has no power to legislate on the state list ?
A.Consent of two states
B.Implementing international agreements
C.Emergency is in operation
D.In the Public interest if so declared by council of states
Q 86 :
In the Constitution of India, the principle of rule of law is mainly embodied in
A.Article 14
B.Article 32
C.Article 226
D.Article 227
Q 87 :
In case of theft under IPC, the following ingredients are necessary .
I. Dishonest intention to take the property
II. The property can be movable or immovable
III. Property should be taken without the consent of the person
IV. There must be some removal of the property
V. The property must be movable property
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.I, II, III and IV
B.II, III, IV and V
C.I, III, IV and V
D.I, II, III and V
Q 88 :
Which of the following are true with regard to the desertion of spouse under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
I. Factum of separation
II. Animus deserendi
III. Prescribed period of two years must have passed before presentation of petition
IV. With reasonable cause
V. Without the consent of the petitioner
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.I, III, IV and V
B.II, III and IV
C.I, II, III and V
D.I, II and IV
Q 89 :
Choose the correct chronological order of the jurists from the earliest to the latest .
I. Austin, Bentham, Pound, Holmes
II. Bentham, Holmes, Austin, Pound
III. Bentham, Austin, Pound, Holmes
IV. Holmes, Austin, Bentham, Pound
V. Bentham, Holmes, Pound, Austing
Codes :
A.Only II
B.Either I or II
C.Only III
D.Only V
Q 90 :
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : The power of legislation carries with it the power to delegate and unless the legislature has completely adbicated or effaced itself, there is no restriction on delegation of legislative powers .
Statement II : Paraliament can abdicate or efface itself by creating a parallel legislative body .
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A.Both statement I and statement II are correct
B.Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C.Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D.Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Q 91 :
Consider the following statements .
I. An agreement without consideration is a void contract
II. An agreement in restraint of marriage is a voidable contract
III. An unmeaning agreement is a void contract
IV. An agreement to do imossible acts is a voidable contract
V. An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is a void contract
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.I and III
B.II and IV
C.I, III and V
D.Only V
Q 92 :
Arrange the following cases chronologically (starting from the earliest to the latest) .
I. National Legal Service Authority v/s UOI
II. Naz Foundation v/s Govt of NCT
III. Navtej Singh Johar v/s UOI
IV. Suresh Kaushal v/s Naz foundation
V. The cases of Navtej Singh Johar and Suresh Kaushal were decided in the same year
Codes :
A.III, V, II, IV
B.IV, II, I, III
C.II, IV, I, III
D.V, IV, I, II
Q 93 :
When an unmarried woman adopts a child and subsequently marries the person who she subsequently marries, shall be the
A.adoptive father of the child
B.stepfather of the child
C.natural father of the child
D.Either 1 or 2
Q 94 :
Choose the correct chronological order of the emergence of the Schools of Jurisprudence (earliest to the latest) .
I. Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism, Realist
II. Historical, Natural, Realist, Analytical Positivism
III. Analytical Positivism, Historical, Realist, Natural
IV. Realist, Hostorical, Analytical positivism, Natural
V. Realist, Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.Only I
B.Only II
C.Only III
D.Only IV
Q 95 :
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 talks about direct selling, e-commerce and electronic service provider .
A.True
B.False
C.Consumer Protection Act, 1986 did not provide about this
D.Both (a) and (c)
Q 96 :
'General principles of law' recognised by civilised states as a source of international law has been applied in following case .
A.Corfu Channel Case
B.Asylum Case
C.Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case
D.Reparations Case
Q 97 :
Match List I with List II .
List – I List – II
(a) Theory of Justice (i) David Hume
(b) Idea of Justice (ii) John Rawls
(c) Nicomachean Ethics (iii) Amartya Sen
(d) An Enquiry Concerning the Principles of Morals (iv) Aristotle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B.(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
C.(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D.(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Q 98 :
.......... has to provide by making regulations for any class of class of companies which may file a shelf-prospectus with the Registrar at the stage of first offer of securities .
A.NCLT
B.SEBI
C.IBBI
D.Director of a company
Q 99 :
The following is/are the exceptions to the principle of strict liability .
I. Act of God
II. Consent of the plaintiff
III. Intention of the defendant
IV. Act of third party
V. Minority
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.I and II
B.I, II and IV
C.I, III and IV
D.II and V
Q 100 :
Restitution of conjugal rights has its genesis under the
A.English law
B.Indian law
C.Jewish law
D.Swedish law
Q 101 :
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of right of private defence
Reason (R) : Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing that the shot may kill Z. His shot gives Z a mortal wound. A has not committed any offence
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 102 :
The Hicklin test under Article 19(2) is related to
A.Defamation
B.Decency and Morality
C.Integrity of India
D.Negligence
Q 103 :
Consider the following statements .
I. Courts cannot review the question as to what 'aid and advice' is given by the council of Ministers to the President
II. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a justifiable issue
III. Article 14 cannot be worked against discrimination made by consitutional provisions
IV. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a non-justifiable issue
V. Article 14 can be worked against discrimination made by Constiutional provisions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.I, II and III
B.I, III and IV
C.II, III and IV
D.III, IV and V
Q 104 :
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : A bigamous marriage is void under Hindu Law
Reason (R) : A child born out of void marriage is legitimate child of his parents
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 105 :
Which of the following doctrines is called as 'Doctrine of Non-regonition' ?
A.Estrada Doctrine
B.Hallestein Doctrine
C.Franco Doctrine
D.Stimson Doctrine
Q 106 :
Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall require it to be taken at a meeting .
A.by a majority of not less than two-third of the weighted votes of the members present
B.by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present
C.by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the weighted votes of all the mebers of the council
D.by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of all the members of the council
Q 107 :
Match List – I with List II
List I List – II
(a) Mersey Docke v/s proctor I. statutory Authority
(b) Metropolitan Asylum District v/s Hill II. Vicarious Liability
(c) Nichols v/s Marsland III. Invevitable Accident
(d) Holmes v/s Mather IV. Act of God
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (v) (ii) (iii)
B.(v) (iv) (i) (ii)
C.(i) (iii) (ii) (v)
D.(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Q 108 :
The doctrine, res-ipsa loquitur was applied by the Supreme court in
A.Alka v/s Union of India
B.Asa Ram v/s Municipal Corporation of Delhi
C.Municipal Corporation of Delhi V/s Subhagwanti
D.Jasbir kaur V/s State of Punjab
Q 109 :
The Institution of Ombudsman was first developed in
A.India
B.UK
C.France
D.Sweden
Q 110 :
Trade secrets do not cover the following information .
A.commercially valuable
B.production methods
C.business plans
D.information discovered by reverse engineering
Q 111 :
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Post-modernism I. Grund norm
(b) Source of Law II. Ratio decidendi
(c) Authority of a decision as a precedent III. Critical legal studies
(d) Analytical school IV. Volkgeist
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
B.(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
C.(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
D.(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Q 112 :
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid I. 354-A, IPC
(b) Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid II. 326-B IPC
(c) Sexual harassment and punishment for sexual harassment III. 354-D IPC
(d) Stalking IV. 326-A, IPC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
B.(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
C.(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
D.(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Q 113 :
Ordinarly, a delegated legislation can be given
A.prospective effect only
B.retrospective effect only
C.Both propsective and retrospective effect
D.effect as the court may decide
Q 114 :
Read the following principles of the Rio-Declaration on Environment and Devleopment (1992) and select the correct answer from the given options .
I. Principle 1 – Human beings are at the centre of concern for sustainable development
II. Principle 16 – In order to protect the environment, the precautionary approach shall be widely applied by states according to their capabilities
III. Principle 14 – Environmental impact assessment shall be undertaken for proposed activities that are liekly to have a significant adverse impact on the environment
IV. Principle 20 – Women have a vital role in environmental management and development
V. Principle 24 – Peace, development and environmental protection are interdependent and indivisible
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.I and IV
B.II and III
C.III and V
D.II and V
Q 115 :
Among the Muslims, Sariri is the stage
A.When the boy or the girl is below 10 years of age
B.When the boy or the girl is above seven years but below fifteen years
C.When the boy or the girl is above fifteen years of age
D.when the boy of the girl is above 10 years of age
Q 116 :
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1915
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.The Government of India Act, 1935
Q 117 :
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 118 :
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.None of the above
Q 119 :
The concept of 'trusts' originated in"
A.France
B.Germany
C.England
D.Rome
Q 120 :
Who gave the following comment? "Trust is the very centre and kernel of equity"
