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Question for AP SET Law - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 12, 2026

Duration: 120 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100

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Latest AP SET Law Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Law

Question Bank AP SET Law Exam Paper 2 - English

Law

Q 1 :
A. Government of India Act 1858 control     1. Absolute imperial
B.Indian Councils Act 1861                          2.Non official members in executive council 
C. Indian Council                                         3.Separate representation of Muslim community                       Act1909
D. Government of                                         4.Dyarchy in the India Act 1919 provinces    
  1. A.A       B      C        D
    2       3       1        4
  2. B.4       1       2        3
  3. C.3       4       1        2
  4. D.1        2       3        4
Q 2 :
Which of the following is/are the principal features of the government of India Act 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1, 2 and 4
  3. C.2, 3 and 4
  4. D.1, 3 and 4
Q 3 :
Consider the following statements:
The Indian constitution is
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Largely based on government of India
Act, 1935
  1. A.1 and 2 are correct
  2. B.2 and 3 are correct
  3. C.1 and 3 are correct
  4. D.None of the above
Q 4 :
Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism:
1. Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state.
2. Secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.1 and 3
Q 5 :
Which one is not correctly matched?
  1. A.Freedom of speech  -  include freedom of  and expression press
  2. B.Freedom of    -   include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
  3. C.conscience
    Right to personal -  include right to carry on any trade or business liberty
  4. D.(d) Right to equality  -   includes principles of natural justice
Q 6 :
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the 
  1. A.Prime Minister
  2. B.Vice- President
  3. C.Chief Minister
  4. D.Chief Justice
Q 7 :
 An accused person has been provided with the following protections by constitution of India:
1. Ex post facto law
2. Safeguard against arrest and detention
3. Double jeopardy.
 Arrange the protections in the order in which  they appear in the Indian constitution.
  1. A.Codes:
    1, 3, 2
  2. B.1, 2, 3
  3. C.3, 1, 2
  4. D.2, 1,3
Q 8 :
Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
  1. A.75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
  2. B.76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
  3. C.77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
  4. D.78th Amendment to the Constitution of India
Q 9 :
Match the following:
A. Right to go                  1. Bhim Singh's  case.
abroad
B. Prisoner's right            2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty             3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's             4. Sunil Batra's case.
liability
  1. A.Codes:
     A      B      C     D
     2       4       1     3
  2. B.4      2       3     1
  3. C.2      4       3      1
  4. D.4      2       1      3
Q 10 :
A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
  1. A.Three months
  2. B.Six months
  3. C.Nine months
  4. D.Twelve months
Q 11 :
'Test of control' deals with:
  1. A.master and servant relationship
  2. B.measures of damages
  3. C.course of employment
  4. D.implied authority
Q 12 :
In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that the audi alteram partem rule, in essence enforces the equality clause in Article 14 and it is applicable not only to quasi-judicial bodies but also to administrative order adversely affecting the party in question?"
  1. A.U.P. Warehousing Corporation Vs. Vijay Narain
  2. B.Delhi Transport Corporation Vs. DTC Majdoor Union
  3. C.A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
  4. D.Gullapalli Nageshwar Rao Vs. APSRTC
Q 13 :
The inadequacy of consideration will be taken into account by a court of law:
  1. A.when the promisor expresses his desire to get maximum return for his promise
  2. B.when the promisor performs his promise
  3. C.when fraud, coercion or undue influence in the formation of the contract is pleaded
  4. D.always at the discretion of the court
Q 14 :
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)  committed to provide:
(a) Universal access to affordable, reliable  and modern energy services
(b) Improving the share of renewable energy
(c) Doubling of energy efficiency by 2030
(d) Protection of ocean and wetland
  1. A.(a), (b) and (c) are true
  2. B.(a), (c) and (d) are true
  3. C.(b), (c) and (d) are true
  4. D.(a), (b) and (d) are true
Q 15 :
Which of the following statement/statements  is/are NOT correct?
(a) The declaration of National Emergency on the ground of 'Armed Rebellion' was inserted by the Constitutional (42 Amendment) Act, 1976.
(b) President shall not issue a proclamation under Clause (1) Article 352 unless the decision of the Union Cabinet (the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers) is communicated to him in writing.
(c) A resolution approving the proclamation of National Emergency must be passed  by special majority.
(d) A proclamation of Emergency once approved by the Parliament shall remain in force until the emergency ceases.
  1. A.Only (a)
  2. B.(a) and (d) both
  3. C.(b), (c) and (d)
  4. D.(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Q 16 :
Which of the following is not included in the definition of law under Article 13 of the Constitution of India?
  1. A.Legislation
  2. B.Customs
  3. C.Usage having no force of law
  4. D.Ordinance
Q 17 :
Which of the following Article of the Constitution uses the term 'martial law'?
  1. A.Article 33
  2. B.Article 34
  3. C.Article 352
  4. D.Article 353
Q 18 :
Which of the following case is not related to "Theory of basic structure' under Article 368  of the Constitution?
  1. A.Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
  2. B.Waman Rao Vs. Union of India
  3. C.L. Chandra Kumar Vs. Union of India
  4. D.T.K. Rangarajan Vs. Government of Tamil  Nadu
Q 19 :
Which of the following is incorrect in relation to the declaration of financial emergency by  the President under Article 360 of the constitution?
  1. A.A. It shall cease to operate at the expiration  of one month unless approved by both  Houses of Parliament
  2. B.Salary and allowances of persons serving  in connection with affairs of state may be reduced
  3. C.It may be revoked or varied by a  subsequent proclamation by President
  4. D.Salary and allowances of the Judges of  Supreme Court and High Courts may be  reduced
Q 20 :
In which of the following case the Parliament has no power to legislate on the state list ?
  1. A.Consent of two states
  2. B.Implementing international agreements
  3. C.Emergency is in operation
  4. D.In the Public interest if so declared by council of states
Q 21 :
Which of the following case is not related to  the Parliamentary previleges?
  1. A.M.S.M. Sharma Vs. Sri Krishna Sinha
  2. B.State of Karnataka Vs. Union of India
  3. C.Jatish Chandra Ghose Vs. Harisadhan  Mukherjee
  4. D.State of Tamil Nadu Vs. K. Shyam Sunder
Q 22 :
Which one of the following Jurists distinguished between 'expositorial' jurisprudence (What the law is) and 'Censorial' jurisprudence (What the law ought to be)?
  1. A.John Austin
  2. B.Hans Kelsen
  3. C.Jeremy Benthem
  4. D.H.L.A. Hart
Q 23 :
'Now, natural law is not considered as absolute  but as relative. It is natural law with variable contents.' This observation specifically relates to:
  1. A.Dabin
  2. B.Stammler
  3. C.Finnis
  4. D.Acquinas
Q 24 :
According to Professor Hart the meaning of  the term 'Positivism' includes:
(a) Laws are commands.
(b) The analysis of legal concepts is distinct  from sociological and historical inquiries.
(c) Moral judgments cannot be established  or defended by rational argument, evidence or proof.
(d) The law as it is actually laid down, has to be kept separate from the law that ought  to be.
  1. A.Codes:
    Only (a) and (c) are correct
  2. B.Only (a), (b) and (d) are correct
  3. C.Only (a), (c) and (d) are correct
  4. D.(a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
Q 25 :
Match List-I with List-II and give the correct  answer by using the code given below:
        List-I                                      List-II
  (Theory)                                     (Jurist)
(a) Theory of social                     (i) Ehrlich
solidarity
 
(b) Theory of categorical             (ii) Duguit
Imperative
 
(c) Imperative Theory                  (iii) John Austin
of Law
 
(d) Theory of Living Law              (iv) Emanual   Kant
  1. A.Codes:
    (a)   (b)    (c)    (d)
    (iv)    (i)    (ii)    (ii)
  2. B.(ii)    (iv)   (i)     (iii)
  3. C.(ii)    (iv)  (iii)     (i)
  4. D.(i)     (ii)   (iv)    (iii)
Q 26 :
In the Constitution of India, the principle of rule of law is mainly embodied in
  1. A.Article 14
  2. B.Article 32
  3. C.Article 226
  4. D.Article 227
Q 27 :
In case of theft under IPC, the following ingredients are necessary .
I. Dishonest intention to take the property
II. The property can be movable or immovable
III. Property should be taken without the consent of the person
IV. There must be some removal of the property
V. The property must be movable property
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.I, II, III and IV
  2. B.II, III, IV and V
  3. C.I, III, IV and V
  4. D.I, II, III and V
Q 28 :
Which of the following are true with regard to the desertion of spouse under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
I. Factum of separation
II. Animus deserendi
III. Prescribed period of two years must have passed before presentation of petition
IV. With reasonable cause
V. Without the consent of the petitioner
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.I, III, IV and V
  2. B.II, III and IV
  3. C.I, II, III and V
  4. D.I, II and IV
Q 29 :
Choose the correct chronological order of the jurists from the earliest to the latest .
I. Austin, Bentham, Pound, Holmes
II. Bentham, Holmes, Austin, Pound
III. Bentham, Austin, Pound, Holmes
IV. Holmes, Austin, Bentham, Pound
V. Bentham, Holmes, Pound, Austing
Codes :
  1. A.Only II
  2. B.Either I or II
  3. C.Only III
  4. D.Only V
Q 30 :
Given below are two statements .
Statement I  : The power of legislation carries with it the power to delegate and unless the legislature has completely adbicated or effaced itself, there is no restriction on delegation of legislative powers .
Statement II  : Paraliament can abdicate or efface itself by creating a parallel legislative body .
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
  1. A.Both statement I and statement II are correct
  2. B.Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
  3. C.Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
  4. D.Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Q 31 :
Consider the following statements .
I. An agreement without consideration is a void contract
II. An agreement in restraint of marriage is a voidable contract
III. An unmeaning agreement is a void contract
IV. An agreement to do imossible acts is a voidable contract
V. An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is a void contract
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.I and III
  2. B.II and IV
  3. C.I, III and V
  4. D.Only V
Q 32 :
Arrange the following cases chronologically (starting from the earliest to the latest) .
I. National Legal Service Authority v/s UOI
II. Naz Foundation v/s Govt of NCT
III. Navtej Singh Johar v/s UOI
IV. Suresh Kaushal v/s Naz foundation
V. The cases of Navtej Singh Johar and Suresh Kaushal were decided in the same year
Codes :
  1. A.III, V, II, IV
  2. B.IV, II, I, III
  3. C.II, IV, I, III
  4. D.V, IV, I, II
Q 33 :
When an unmarried woman adopts a child and subsequently marries the person who she subsequently marries, shall be the
  1. A.adoptive father of the child
  2. B.stepfather of the child
  3. C.natural father of the child
  4. D.Either 1 or 2
Q 34 :
Choose the correct chronological order of the emergence of the Schools of Jurisprudence (earliest to the latest) .
I. Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism, Realist
II. Historical, Natural, Realist, Analytical Positivism
III. Analytical Positivism, Historical, Realist, Natural
IV. Realist, Hostorical, Analytical positivism, Natural
V. Realist, Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.Only I
  2. B.Only II
  3. C.Only III
  4. D.Only IV
Q 35 :
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 talks about direct selling, e-commerce and electronic service provider .
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Consumer Protection Act, 1986 did not provide about this
  4. D.Both (a) and (c)
Q 36 :
'General principles of law' recognised by civilised states as a source of international law has been applied in following case .
  1. A.Corfu Channel Case
  2. B.Asylum Case
  3. C.Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case
  4. D.Reparations Case
Q 37 :
Match List I with List II .
   List – I                                                                                  List – II
(a) Theory of Justice                                                              (i) David Hume
(b) Idea of Justice                                                                  (ii) John Rawls
(c) Nicomachean Ethics                                                        (iii) Amartya Sen
(d) An Enquiry Concerning the Principles of Morals              (iv) Aristotle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a)      (b)      (c)       (d)                                          
    (i)      (ii)      (iii)       (iv)       
  2. B.(ii)      (iii)      (i)       (iv)         
  3. C.(ii)      (iii)      (iv)      (i)     
  4. D.(ii)      (i)      (iii)       (iv)     
Q 38 :
.......... has to provide by making regulations for any class of class of companies which may file a shelf-prospectus with the Registrar at the stage of first offer of securities .
  1. A.NCLT
  2. B.SEBI
  3. C.IBBI
  4. D.Director of a company
Q 39 :
The following is/are the exceptions to the principle of strict liability .
I. Act of God
II. Consent of the plaintiff
III. Intention of the defendant
IV. Act of third party
V. Minority
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.I and II
  2. B.I, II and IV
  3. C.I, III and IV
  4. D.II and V
Q 40 :
Restitution of conjugal rights has its genesis under the
  1. A.English law
  2. B.Indian law
  3. C.Jewish law
  4. D.Swedish law
Q 41 :
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of right of private defence
Reason (R) : Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing that the shot may kill Z. His shot gives Z a mortal wound. A has not committed any offence
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 42 :
The Hicklin test under Article 19(2) is related to
  1. A.Defamation
  2. B.Decency and Morality
  3. C.Integrity of India
  4. D.Negligence
Q 43 :
Consider the following statements .
I. Courts cannot review the question as to what 'aid and advice' is given by the council of Ministers to the President
II. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a justifiable issue
III. Article 14 cannot be worked against discrimination made by consitutional provisions
IV. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a non-justifiable issue
V. Article 14 can be worked against discrimination made by Constiutional provisions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.I, II and III
  2. B.I, III and IV
  3. C.II, III and IV
  4. D.III, IV and V
Q 44 :
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : A bigamous marriage is void under Hindu Law
Reason (R) : A child born out of void marriage is legitimate child of his parents
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 45 :
Which of the following doctrines is called as 'Doctrine of Non-regonition' ?
  1. A.Estrada Doctrine
  2. B.Hallestein Doctrine
  3. C.Franco Doctrine
  4. D.Stimson Doctrine
Q 46 :
Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) deals with the definition of arrest?
  1. A.Section 41
  2. B.Section 46
  3. C.Section 49
  4. D.Section 51
Q 47 :
In CrPC, what does FIR stand for?
  1. A.First Information Report
  2. B.Final Investigation Record
  3. C.Forensic Information Registry
  4. D.Formal Inquiry Request
Q 48 :
What is the maximum period a person can be detained in police custody without being produced before a magistrate, as per CrPC?
  1. A.12 hours
  2. B.24 hours
  3. C.48 hours
  4. D.72 hours
Q 49 :
Under CrPC, which section deals with the conditions for the grant of bail?
  1. A.Section 41
  2. B.Section 437
  3. C.Section 173
  4. D.Section 306
Q 50 :
What is the primary purpose of a charge sheet in criminal proceedings?
  1. A.To arrest the accused
  2. B.To initiate investigation
  3. C.To record the evidence
  4. D.To accuse the person of an offense

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