To boost your performance in AP TET Social Studies exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in AP TET Social Studies exams.
Latest AP TET Social Studies Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Language I (Hindi), Child Development and Pedagogy, Language II (English), Social Studies
Question Bank AP TET Social Studies Exam - English
Child Development and Pedagogy
Q 1 :
Which of the following is not the aspects of child development?
A.Physical development
B.Social development
C.Cognitive development
D.Maturity
Q 2 :
Development can be described as growth in
A.cognitive state
B.physical state
C.social state
D.All of the above
Q 3 :
Which of the following is not correct about meaning of development?
A.It is a series of changes as a result of maturity
B.It is a series of changes as a result of experience
C.It is a mere progressive series of changes
D.None of the above
Q 4 :
Development sequence starts with ...... and ends with ......
A.ovum-sperm, zygote
B.ovum - sperm, blastocyst
C.blastocyst, zygote
D.ovum - sperm, fertilisation
Q 5 :
The feeling of shame and pride develops in ........ stage.
A.infancy
B.childhood
C.adolescence
D.adulthood
Q 6 :
The major difference about the concept of development between JE Anderson and E Hurlock is that Anderson considers it as ......... and Hurlock considers it as ...
A.growth and behavioural changes, processes for maturing an organism
B.growth and behavioural changes, growth and changes relating to maturity
C.growth and changes relating to maturity processes for maturing an organism
D.None of the above
Q 7 :
Which of the given statement is partially correct about the characteristics of development?
A.Each phase of development has its own variable
B.Development is a process that is continuous predictable and has individual differences
C.Each phase of development is with its own characteristic behaviour
D.Development is affected by cultural changes to a certain extent
Q 8 :
Consider the statement about development in human beings
I. Upto adolescence.
II. Upto adulthood.
III. Throughout life.
Which of the statement(s) given above is correct?
A.Only I
B.Only II
C.Only III
D.None of these
Q 9 :
Consider the given statement(s)
I. Mental development states that sensation is a gateway of knowledge.
II. Motor development accounts for the strength and speed.
III. Change in the individual behaviour due to maturation is learning.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A.Only I
B.Only Il
C.Only III
D.All of these
Q 10 :
Choose the incorrect matching with the help of given codes
I. Physical nervous system and development endocrine glands
II. Adolescence love for exploration.
III. Early childhood : sensitive language development period.
A.Codes
l is incorrect matching
B.Both I, II are incorrect matching
C.Both II, III are incorrect matching
D.None of the above
Q 11 :
Early childhood period is
A.sensitive to language development
B.crucial for maturity level
C.meant for learning through the forced behaviour
D.is complex in terms of growth and development cognitively
Q 12 :
The age group 6 to 11 years falls under
A.early childhood
B.pre-natal age
C.later childhood
D.None of these
Q 13 :
Consider the following statement(s)
I. Physical health and mental abilities are influencer of emotional development.
II. Fulfilling social expectations comes under social development.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A.Only I
B.Only II
C.Neither I nor II
D.Both I and II
Q 14 :
In which of the following stages do children become active members of their peer group?
A.Adolescence
B.Adulthood
C.Early childhood
D.Childhood
Q 15 :
Which of the following statements is not correct about development?
A.Each phase of the development has hazards
B.Development is not aided by stimulation
C.Development is affected by cultural changes
D.Each phase of the development has characteristic behavior
Q 16 :
Which of the following statements is not true about development?
A.Development is the product of interaction
B.Development follows an orderly sequence
C.Development is individualised process
D.Development proceeds from specific to general
Q 17 :
Which one of the following statements best sums up the relationship between development and learning?
A.Development is independent of learning
B.Learning trails behind development
C.Learning and development are synonymous terms
D.Learning and development are inter-related in a complex manner
Q 18 :
Which of the following development tasks is not appropriate to the late childhood?
A.Learning physical skills necessary for ordinary games
B.Achieving a masculine or feminine social role
C.Achieving personal independence
D.Learning to get along with age-mates
Q 19 :
The meaning of development is
A.progressive series of changes
B.progressive series of changes as a result of motivation
C.progressive series of changes as a result of motivation and experience
D.series of changes as a result of maturation and experience
Q 20 :
The best method to study growth and development of the child is
A.psychoanalytic method
B.comparative method
C.development method
D.statistical method
Q 21 :
What are the factors related to learner that affects the learning?
A.Physical and mental health of the learner
B.Level of aspiration and achievement motivation
C.Readiness and will power
D.All of the above
Q 22 :
Cognitive development means
A.development of intelligence
B.development of child
C.development of physical skills
D.development of individual
Q 23 :
Which of the following is most essential for learning?
A.Good percentage child relationship
B.High intelligence
C.Good school
D.Desire to learn
Q 24 :
Which of the following is not good for quality learning ?
A.Making notes
B.Extra reading
C.Using guide books
D.Self study
Q 25 :
Human development is divided into domains such as
A.physical, spiritual, cognitive and social
B.physical, cognitive, emotional and social
C.emotional, cognitive, spiritual and social-psychological
D.psychological, cognitive, emotional and physical
Q 26 :
Development starts from
A.post-childhood stage
B.pre-natal stage
C.the stage of infancy
D.pre-childhood stage
Q 27 :
Adolescents may experience
A.feeling of fear about sins committed in childhood
B.feeling of self-actualisation
C.feeling of satiation about life
D.anxiety and concern about themselves
Q 28 :
Which is the incorrect way to support the language development?
A.Letting the child talk uninterruptedly on a topic
B.Disapproving the use of their own language
C.Supporting initiation taken by children
D.Providing opportunities for using language
Q 29 :
Naresh and Mukesh have same age group. They show quite difference in social and mental development. It is due to the following principle of development.
A.Principle of modifiability
B.Principle of definite and predictable pattern
C.Principle of individuality
D.Principle of uniform pattern
Q 30 :
Development occurs in human being
A.upto the end of adolescence period
B.upto the end of childhood
C.upto the starting of adulthood
D.throughout the life
Language I (Hindi)
Q 31 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A. अधम्र
B. अध्रम
C. अधर्म
D. अध्रिम
Q 32 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A. स्थायि
B. स्थायी
C. स्थाई
D. स्थाइ
Q 33 :
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A. महत्व
B. महतव
C. महत्तव
D. महतत्व
Q 34 :
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
A. आयुष्मान
B. आयुश्मान
C. आयुशमान
D. आयुश्यमान
Q 35 :
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
A. कवियत्री
B. कौसल्या
C. एश्वर्य
D. श्रृंगार
Q 36 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A. पूज
B. पुजय
C. पूज्य
D. पुज्य
Q 37 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A. अनुसरण
B. अनूशरणन
C. अनुशरण
D. अणुशर
Q 38 :
किस क्रमांक में सभी शुद्ध हैं?
A. एक्य,साप्ताहिक
B. आजीविका,आशीर्वाद
C. आर्शिवाद ,अनूकूल
D. निरिक्षण ,कृपालु
Q 39 :
'उज्वल' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है ?
A. उज्जव
B. उज्ज्ल
C. उज्ज्वल
D. उजवल
Q 40 :
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A. जागृत
B. जाग्रति
C. जाग्रित
D. जाग्रत
Q 41 :
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A. उन्नति
B. उनति
C. उन्ती
D. उनती
Q 42 :
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A. अनुशहरण
B. अनोसरण
C. अनुसरन
D. अनुसरण
Q 43 :
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A. आदिकाल
B. रीतिकाल
C. भक्तिकाल
D. आधुनिक काल
Q 44 :
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A. प्राकृत
B. संस्कृत
C. शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D. मागधी
Q 45 :
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A. बी. जी. खरे
B. राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C. प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D. इंशाअल्ला खा
Q 46 :
लेखक को कदम्ब का अभाव क्यों खटकता है ?
A. क्योंकि वह कदम्ब के बिना कृष्ण की कल्पना नहीं कर सकता
B. क्योंकि वह यह मानता है कि कदम्ब के वृक्ष के बिना कृष्ण पूरे नहीं हैं
C. लेखक के लिए कृष्ण कृतित्व का आधार कदम्ब है
D. लेखक प्रकृति प्रेमी है
Q 47 :
निम्नलिखित में से गोपियों के प्रेमभाव विह्नल होने के पीछे कौन उत्प्रेरक का कार्य करता है ?
A. कदम्ब का वृक्ष
B. गोपियों का कृष्ण प्रेम
C. बाँसुरी की धुन
D. अपने प्रिय से मिलने की तीव्र इच्छा
Q 48 :
निम्नलिखित में से यमुना नदी के किस पर्यायवाची शब्द का गद्यांश में प्रयोग हुआ है ?
A. रागिनी
B. कालिन्दी
C. मनभावनी
D. लता
Q 49 :
प्रस्तुत गद्यांश की केन्द्रीय विषय - वस्तु के रूप में कौन उपस्थित है ?
A. गोपियों एवं कृष्ण का प्रेम
B. कदम्ब का वृक्ष
C. कृष्ण व कालिन्दी
D. लौकिकता में अन्तर्निहित अलौकिकता
Q 50 :
निम्नलिखित शब्दों में से कौन - सा शब्द तद्भव शब्द है ?
A. अन्तर्निहित
B. माखन
C. सान्निध्य
D. कृतित्व
Important Questions Package
AP TET Social Studies Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy AP TET Social Studies Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in AP TET Social Studies question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
AP TET Social Studies Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer
₹101[₹500]
2.
AP TET Social Studies Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question with Answer
₹151[₹500]
3.
AP TET Social Studies Exam - English
Description : <strong><span style="color:rgb(128, 0, 0)"><span style="font-size:16px"><span style="font-family:georgia,serif">1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)</span></span></span></strong>
₹151[₹450]
4.
AP TET Social Studies Exam Question Bank Book - English
AP TET Social Studies Exam Paper II - English (Old)
Description : 2000 Question with Answer
₹231[₹500]
Language I (Hindi)
Q 51 :
निम्नलिखित में से किस शब्द में दो प्रत्ययों का प्रयोग हुआ है ?
A. भाव विह्नल
B. अलौकिकता
C. बिसात
D. मुरलीधर
Q 52 :
‘‘............. पर इस अलौकिकता को पहुँचे हुए लोग ही समझ पाते हैं। मुझ जैसों का क्या बिसात ?‘‘ रेखांकित शब्द को निम्नलिखित में से कौन - सा शब्द प्रतिस्थापित कर सकता है ?
A. लक्ष्य प्राप्त
B. लब्धप्रतिष्ठित
C. सिद्ध पुरुष
D. तत्त्वज्ञानी
Q 53 :
प्रस्तुत गद्यांश में छटपटाहट शब्द का क्या अर्थ है ?
A. व्याकुलता
B. व्यग्रता
C. तीव्र इच्छा
D. अभिलाषा
Q 54 :
गद्यांश में किस - किस पर कृष्ण की मनभावनी बाँसुरी का प्रभाव दर्शाया गया है ?
A. केवल जड़ जीवों पर
B. केवल चेतन जीवों पर
C. 1 और 2 दोनों पर
D. इनमें से किसी पर नहीं
Q 55 :
गद्यांश के अनुसार पहले के समाज के उपभोक्ता पर कौन हावी दृष्टिगोचर होता है ?
A. स्वार्थ
B. नैतिकता
C. मानवता
D. यथार्थवादी सोच
Q 56 :
निम्नलिखित में से कौन - सा भाव मनुष्य को सांसारिक संयासी बनाता है ?
A. उपभोक्तावाद व मानववाद का हावी होना
B. नैतिक होना
C. पर हित का भाव रखना
D. आवश्यकताओं एवं उनकी पूर्ति में स्वयं व अन्य में भेद न करना
Q 57 :
गद्यांश के अनुसार जो मानवीय गुणों का ह्नास एवं आदर्शों की असुरक्षा उत्पन्न हुई हैं ? उसकी जड़ में कौन - से कारक निहित हैं ?
A. नव उपभोक्ता संस्कृति
B. सांस्कृतिक उपनिवेशवाद
C. 1 और 2 दोनों
D. स्वार्थ की वृद्धि
Q 58 :
गद्यांश के अनुसार किन नैसर्गिक मानवीय गुणों को व्यापकता प्रदान करने तथा उनके और अधिक शुद्ध रूप ग्रहण करने की बात कही गई है ?
A. नैतिकता
B. स्वार्थ
C. सौन्दर्य - बोध तथा संवेदना
D. सांसारिक संयासी के गुण
Q 59 :
निम्नलिखित में से स्वकेन्द्रित का विलोम शब्द है ?
A. अन्यकेन्द्रित
B. आत्मकेन्द्रित
C. परकेन्द्रित
D. विकेन्द्रित
Q 60 :
निम्नलिखित में से किस शब्द में दो प्रत्ययों का प्रयोग हुआ है ?
A. नैतिकता
B. मनुष्यता
C. सांसारिक
D. संवेदना
Language II (English)
Q 61 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 62 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 63 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 64 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 65 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 66 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 67 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 68 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 69 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 70 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 71 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 72 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 73 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 74 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 75 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 76 :
Which one of the following is not a product that has been made with Kevlar ?
A.Body armor
B.Tennis racquets
C.Bungee jumping cord
D.Brake pads
Q 77 :
For which of the following characteristics is Kevlar known ?
A.Durability
B.Heat resistant
C.Strength
D.All of these
Q 78 :
Which one of the following caused the search for a fabric like Kevlar ?
A.The want of better musical instruments
B.A shortage in the gasoline supply
C.A desire to protect police officers
D.The need to replace asbestos
Q 79 :
A vest made of 15 layers of Kevlar with no steel plates could stop all but which of the following rounds ?
A.Rifle rounds
B.Handgun rounds
C.Shotgun pellets
D.It could stop all of these
Q 80 :
How much stronger is Kevlar than steel ?
A.200 times as strong
B.Half as strong
C.As strong
D.Five times as strong
Q 81 :
What product was Kwolek trying to improve when she invented Kevlar ?
A.Armor
B.Tires
C.Milk
D.Brake pads
Q 82 :
Which one of the following is not the whole truth according to the passage ?
A.Man learns to be happy with what he has
B.Man has a desire for beauty and grace
C.Necessity is the mother of invention
D.Man desires to cut down his needs and wants
Q 83 :
What does the maxim mentioned in the passage teach us ?
A.To be active in life and do something to help mankind
B.To be worldly in the strict sense of the term
C.To be slave of our needs and wants
D.To endeavour constantly to create new passions and desires
Q 84 :
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in the context of the passage ?
I. Man should be passive in his attitude to life.
II. Spirit of inventiveness may not stand in good stead in solving every new problem.
III. Man has a passion for more and more knowledge.
A.Only II and III
B.Only I
C.Only I and II
D.Only III
Q 85 :
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in the context of the passage ?
I. Man should be passive in his attitude to life.
II. Spirit of inventiveness may not stand in good stead in solving every new problem.
III. Man has a passion for more and more knowledge.
A.Only II and III
B.Only I
C.Only I and II
D.Only III
Q 86 :
Which one of the following is similar in meaning to the word 'maxim' as used in the passage ?
A.Observation
B.Principle
C.Direction
D.Value
Q 87 :
Which one of the following is not the characteristic of man as per the passage ?
A.Man desires to have more and more comforts and money
B.Man has many needs and motives
C.Man creates many needs for himself
D.Man seeks to satisfy his needs
Q 88 :
Which one of the following statements is not true as per the passage ?
A.Man's inner spirit tells him to be on the look out for newer and higher wants
B.Spirit of inventiveness will stand in good stead
C.Man is the subject of various wants
D.Man creates new needs because they are sometimes good and beautiful
Q 89 :
Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the word 'Seeks' as used in the passage.
A.Approaches
B.Deplores
C.Avoids
D.Vanishes
Q 90 :
Which one of the following is similar in meaning to the word 'exhorting' as used in the passage ?
A.Clarifying
B.Urging
C.Supporting
D.Demanding
Social Studies
Q 91 :
Choose the industrial cities that grew rapidly in Britain in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries:
A.Leeds and Manchester
B.Bristol and Manchester
C.Carlisle and Leeds
D.Chester and Leeds
Q 92 :
Which were the three Presidency cities of Colonial India in late eighteenth century?
A.Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
B.Calcutta, Bombay and Surat
C.Bombay, Madras and Delhi
D.None of these
Q 93 :
What is Urbanization?
A.Migration of population from rural to urban area
B.Migration of people from urban to rural
C.Migration of people from one country to another
D.Migration of population from one state to another one
Q 94 :
What is de urbanization in the colonial context?
A.The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports emerged due to emergence of new cities.
B.The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports declined due to emergence of new cities.
C.a and b both
D.None of these
Q 95 :
Which of the following Indian cities which were de-urbanized during the nineteenth century?
i. Machlipatnam
ii. Surat
iii. Seringapatam
iv. Bombay
A.i and ii
B.i, iv and ii
C.i, ii and iii
D.i, ii, iii and iv
Q 96 :
In which year Delhi became the capital of British India?
A.1916
B.1913
C.1915
D.1911
Q 97 :
When was Shahjahanabad built?
A.by ShahJahan in 1640
B.by ShahJahan in 1638
C.by ShahJahan in 1639
D.None of these
Q 98 :
Before Delhi, which city was the capital of British India?
A.Calcutta
B.Madras
C.Bombay
D.Agra
Q 99 :
What is Gulfaroshan?
A.It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Patna during 16th century
B.It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Delhi during 18th century
C.It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Delhi during 11th century
D.All of these
Q 100 :
Which period was referred as Delhi renaissance?
A.1857-1860
B.1860-1863
C.1865-1870
D.1830-1857
Q 101 :
In the 1870s, for what reasons the western walls of Shahjahanabad were broken?
A.The walls were broken to establish the railway and to allow the city to expand beyond the walls.
B.The walls were broken to establish textile and iron industries
C.Both a and b
D.None of these
Q 102 :
On which hills was the city of New Delhi built on ?
A.Almoda hills
B.Vindhva hills
C.Raisina Hill
D.None of these
Q 103 :
Name the architects who designed New Delhi and its buildings.
A.Edward Lutyens and Herbert Baker
B.Herbert Baker and Harbar Lutyens
C.Edward Lutyens and Harbar Lutyens
D.None of these
Q 104 :
How many years did it take to build the city of New Delhi?
A.15 years
B.35 years
C.20 years
D.25 years
Q 105 :
Where was Bahadur Shah Zafar exiled to after 1857 revolt?
A.Kashmir
B.south region
C.Afghanistan
D.Burma
Q 106 :
Which of the following Defines Renaissance?
A.It means rebirth of art and learning
B.It is a term often used to describe a time when there is great creative activity
C.a and b both
D.None of these
Q 107 :
When was Delhi College established?
A.1792
B.1793
C.1794
D.1792
Q 108 :
Kamal Khan Gakkhar was made a Mansabdar by:
A.Babur
B.Akabar
C.Shanjahan
D.Jahangir
Q 109 :
The British conquest of Bengal began with the Battle of?
A.Buxur
B.Tripoli
C.St.Tome
D.Plassey
Q 110 :
Haidar Ali and Tipu Sultan were the rulers of?
A.Madhya province
B.Bengal
C.Awadh
D.Mysore
Q 111 :
The earlist manuscripts were written on
A.palm leaves
B.paper
C.wood
D.stones
Q 112 :
What does BC and AD stands for?
A.Anno Domini and Before Common
B.Before Christ and Anno Domini
C.Anno Domini and Before Christ
D.None of the above
Q 113 :
Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of a manuscript?
​(A) It is written on a hard surface such as a stone or a metal.
​(B) It is an old book written by hand.
(C) It is written on palm leaf or on specially prepared bark of the birch tree.
A.Only A
B.B and C
C.Only B
D.All of these
Q 114 :
Which one of the following statements is false?
A.History is about changes that over time, about finding out how things were in the past and how things have changed
B.In the histories narrated by British historians about India, the rule of each Governor-General was important
C.James Mill divided Indian History into three periods Hindu, Muslim and Christian
D.The British in India believed that surveys were important for effective administration
Q 115 :
Which is the criteria to decide that a particular date is important in history?
A.They are the date of birth of a king or emperor
B.A particular event or set of events has occurred on or around that date
C.It is the date of coronation of a king
D.All of the above
Q 116 :
Which of the following are incorrect statements?
(A) The archaeological evidence is obtained by the systematic examination of building monumentas and work of art.
(B) The credit for excavating the Pre-Aryan past goes to Sir William Jones.
(C) The Asiatic Society of Bengal established on 1786.
​(D) James Mill is known as the 'Father of Indian Archaeology'.
A.A and B
B.C and D
C.B and D
D.B, C and D
Q 117 :
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct option
(A) Inscriptions are the most reliable evidence and their study is called epigraphy.
(B) James Princep, the secretary of the Asiatic Society of Bengal succeeded for the first time in deciphering the Brahmi script.
A.Both A and B are true
B.A is false and B is true
C.A and B are false
D.A is true and B is false
Q 118 :
Consider the following statements A and B on the study of coins and choose the correct option
(A) The study of coins is known as numismatics
(B) The coins give us an idea about the socio-political aspect of that period.
A.Both A and B are true
B.A is false and B is true
C.A and B are false
D.A is true and B is false
Q 119 :
Which of the following are correct statements?
(A) Literaiy sources includes manuscripts.
(B) These writings were written by hands.
(C) It gives a reliable glimpses of culture and civilisation of the age
​(D) Raj Tarangini was written by Banbhatta.
A.A, B and C
B.B,C and D
C.A, B and D
D.All of these
Q 120 :
Which objects can archaeologists find which may be made of stone?
A.Remains of buildings, paintings and sculpture
B.Tools, weapons and ornaments found by excavation
C.Coins, pots and pans found beneath the surface of the Earth
D.All ot the above
Q 121 :
On what subjects were books not written in ancient days?
A.Murder mysteries
B.Religious beliefs and practices
C.Lives of the kings
D.Epics, poems and plays
Q 122 :
What is the meaning of ‘periodisation’ in history?
A.Deciding the period of time for which an age like neolithic or paleolithic age lasts
B.Dividing the earlier times into fixed periods of 100 years each
C.Demarcating of time into different unequal periods based on the occurrence of some significant events
D.None of the above
Q 123 :
Which of the following gives the correct meaning of ‘colonisation’ in history?
A.When one country conquers another, it brings about changes in its society
B.When a country ‘colonises’ another, it imposes its religion on the colonised country completely
C.Colonisation implies intermarrying of the colonised people with the colonisers
D.All of the above
Q 124 :
What can a historian not derive from surveys?
A.We can collect the right data, figures and information regarding a subject
B.We can find out past behaviour and structure of society
C.We can find out the culture, habits and means of livelihood of the people
D.All of the above
Q 125 :
In the middle of the 19th century, British historians divided history of Indin into three periods-Hindu India, Muslim India and British India. What is the basis of this division?
A.It was based on the idea that religion of the rulers was an important historical change
B.History of England is also written in a similar way
C.Britishers felt they were more knowledge-able at that point of time in history and so used this division
D.It was convenient and easy to remember
Q 126 :
Which of the following statement about ‘ancient manuscript’ is not correct?
A.They were usually written on Palm leaves
B.They are primary source of the period they reflected
C.They were handwritten and then printed
D.Some manuscript were engraved on stone or metal
Q 127 :
What is ‘Common Era'?
A.A new era developed by amalgamation of Hindu Era and Islamic Era
B.A new era to study historical events
C.Christian Era which is now accepted in major parts of the world
D.Indian Era accepted by the government to issue notices
Q 128 :
The year ‘2012 can also be written as
A.AD 2012
B.AP 2012
C.BC 2012
D.EC 2012
Q 129 :
The division of the period of Indian History into ‘Ancient’, ‘Medieval’ and ‘Modern’ also has problems. Which of the following is one of the problems in it?
A.Tripartite division reflects gradual growth of the Indian state
B.Three periods are insufficient to describe Indian History
C.The concept has been borrowed from the West where modem period was associated with science, reason, democracy, liberty and equality
D.Indian history seems to have diear lines of distinction between ‘Ancient and Medieval’ and ‘Medieval and Modern’ period
Q 130 :
Why would you ask question on historical imagination? Choose the most appropriate option from the following.
A.It encourages comparison of the present with the past
B.It evaluates a student’s ability to identify sources
C.It is fun-way to remember dates and events
D.It shows how historians fill gaps in history with their imagination
Q 131 :
Social studies is different from other fields of learning because its contents and meaning lay stress on ?
A.persons and their vulnerable relationships
B.persons and their relationship with nature
C.persons and their relationships
D.persons and their individual relationships
Q 132 :
Which one of the following is not part of the all - round development of children which 'Social Studies' contributes to ?
A.Evaluation structure
B.Desirable attitudes
C.Essential skills
D.Relevant understandings
Q 133 :
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer
A. Studying human relationship with nature is one of the scopes of social study.
B. Cause and effect relationship is less significant in social study.
Codes :
A.A is true, B is false
B.Both A and B are false
C.A is false, B is true
D.Both A and B are true
Q 134 :
Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
A.The difference between social studies and social science is based on approach
B.The difference between social studies and social science is based on treatment
C.The difference between social studies and social science is based on content
D.All of the above
Q 135 :
The current social studies curriculum does not focus on ?
A.learning through activities
B.learning beyond the textbooks
C.learning by rote
D.learning by discussion
Q 136 :
Which of the following best describes 'Political Science' ?
A.It is a social science discipline concerning politicians
B.It is a social science discipline concerned with the problems of marginalised groups
C.It is a social science discipline concerned with the study of the State Government and politics
D.It is a discipline concerned with indiscipline politicians
Q 137 :
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer
A. On education matter only Central Government can make laws.
B. National Education Policy, 1986 does not talk about girls education.
Codes :
A.A is true, B is false
B.Both A and B are false
C.A is false, B is true
D.Both A and B are true
Q 138 :
As per NCF 2005, selection and organisation of material into a meaningful social science curriculum enables students to develop what ?
A.A better understanding of the subject matter to enable them to pass their exams
B.A critical understanding of society
C.An understanding of the problems India faces today
D.A better knowledge of the world's trouble spots
Q 139 :
As per NCF 2005, which of the following will make the teaching - learning process more interesting and enjoyable ?
A.If the process is participatory but not coercive
B.If it is embellished with many stories
C.If it has many long breaks to enable the children to meditate on what they have learnt
D.If seating of the students in the classroom is changed every day
Q 140 :
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer
A. Education is fundamental to our all - round development, material and spiritual.
B. Establishment of Navodaya Vidalia was initiated by National Education Policy, 1986.
Codes :
A.A is true, B is false
B.Both A and B are true
C.A is false, B is true
D.Both A and B are false
Q 141 :
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer
A. Size and weight of school bags do not influence learning of a child.
B. Yashpal committee report emphasised on use of audio - visuals as a teaching aid.
Codes :
A.A is true, B is false
B.Both A and B are false
C.A is false, B is true
D.Both A and B are true
Q 142 :
Consider the following statements A and B about NCF - 2005
A. It makes a case for doing away with stereotypes based on gender and caste.
B. In social science classes sensitivity towards gender and caste cannot be developed among learners.
Codes :
A.A is true, B is false
B.Both A and B are true
C.A is false, B is true
D.Both A and B are false
Q 143 :
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer
A. A primary level curriculum of social science should be discussion based.
B. At middle level curriculum of social science should be linked with vocational courses.
Codes :
A.A is true, B is false
B.Both A and B are true
C.A is false, B is true
D.Both A and B are false
Q 144 :
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer
A. National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) is a statutory body.
B. NCTE is an apex body to frame National Curriculum framework.
Codes :
A.A is true, B is false
B.Both A and B are true
C.A is false, B is true
D.Both A and B are false
Q 145 :
At different level curriculum of social science is based on recommendation of which organisation/report/committee ?
A.NCF - 2005
B.NCERT
C.All of the above
D.None of the above
Q 146 :
According to NCF 2005, Social Science teaching must adopt methods which promote ?
A.audio - visual materials, photographs and maps
B.problem - solving, dramatization and role play
C.creativity, aesthetics and critical perspectives
D.None of the above
Q 147 :
Choose the most inappropriate statement regarding teaching of Social Science in middle school ?
A.Social Science should be taught as it helps to acquire an understanding of human relationships
B.Social Science should be taught as it helps to sensitise children regarding social reality
C.Social Science should be taught because it helps students debate and reflect on social issues
D.Social Science should be a part of the curriculum so that the learners know about the lives of kings and the battles they fought
Q 148 :
Which of the following statements is incorrect about Social Science ?
A.Social Science creates and widens human, values such as freedom, respect for diversity etc
B.As Social Science deals with people, the nature of enquiry is not scientific
C.Social Science lays the foundations for an analytical and creative mind - set
D.Social Science encompasses diverse concerns of society, including historical, geographical, economic and political dimensions
Q 149 :
The National Curriculum Framework 2005, suggests that instead of 'Civics', the term 'Political Science' be used because ?
A.'Political Science' is a globally recognised field of study
B.Political Science' will provide political training
C.The term 'Civics' was coined in the Raj era and is associated with obedience and loyalty
D.Political Science' is taught at a higher level of education, therefore schools should prepare grounds for it
Q 150 :
The major purpose of assessment in Social Science should be to ?
A.Provide credible feedback on the extent to which educational objectives have been achieved
B.predict the learners' chances of pursuing a successful career in humanities
C.gauge the extent of the knowledge of content acquired by learners
D.maintain a desirable academic quality of knowledge in the students passing out