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Latest APPSC AE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Awareness & Logical Reasoning, Civil
Question Bank APPSC AE Recruitment (Civil) Exam - English
General Awareness & Logical Reasoning
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 4 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 5 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 6 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 7 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 8 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 9 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 10 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 11 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 12 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 13 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 14 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 15 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 16 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 17 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 18 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 19 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 20 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 21 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 22 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 23 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 24 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 25 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A.P
B.Q
C.B
D.K
E.None of these
Q 26 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A.None
B.One
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than Four
Q 27 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 28 :
Which river forms the boundary between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana ?
A.Krishna
B.Godavari
C.Tungabhadra
D.Penna
Q 29 :
What is the highest peak in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Anaimudi
B.Mahendragiri
C.Arma Konda
D.Kailasagiri
Q 30 :
The Coromandel Coast is located in which part of Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Northern
B.Southern
C.Eastern
D.Western
Q 31 :
Which of the following districts is not part of the Rayalaseema region ?
A.Anantapur
B.Kurnool
C.Kadapa
D.Visakhapatnam
Q 32 :
Which one of the following rivers does not flow through Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Krishna
B.Godavari
C.Tungabhadra
D.Cauvery
Q 33 :
Which of the following wildlife sanctuaries is located in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Bandipur National Park
B.Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
C.Bandhavgarh National Park
D.Jim Corbett National Park
Q 34 :
Which one of the following is not a port in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Visakhapatnam Port
B.Krishnapatnam Port
C.Kakinada Port
D.Kolkata Port
Q 35 :
Which district in Andhra Pradesh is famous for its beaches ?
A.Vijayanagaram
B.Nellore
C.Srikakulam
D.Chittoor
Q 36 :
What is the name of the largest freshwater lake in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Pulicat Lake
B.Kolleru Lake
C.Hussain Sagar Lake
D.Chilika Lake
Q 37 :
Which district in Andhra Pradesh is known for its granite reserves ?
A.Anantapur
B.Guntur
C.Prakasam
D.Srikakulam
Q 38 :
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
B.Raskhan
C.Rich Khusrow
D.Rich Hasan
Q 39 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 40 :
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A.Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B.Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C.Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D.Dr. Satish Dhawan
Q 41 :
Which global body focuses on vaccine distribution equity?
A.WTO
B.IMF
C.GAVI
D.UNESCO
Q 42 :
Which Indian scheme provides health coverage to poor families?
A.Ayushman Bharat
B.PMAY
C.Digital India
D.Skill India
Q 43 :
Which country recently invested heavily in biotech research?
A.USA
B.India
C.China
D.UK
Q 44 :
Which organization monitors global pandemics?
A.WTO
B.IMF
C.WHO
D.UNESCO
Q 45 :
Which Indian institution conducts medical research?
A.ISRO
B.DRDO
C.ICMR
D.BARC
Q 46 :
Which country recently partnered with WHO for malaria elimination?
A.Nigeria
B.India
C.Indonesia
D.Thailand
Q 47 :
Which Indian state is leading in public health reforms?
A.Assam
B.Bihar
C.Jharkhand
D.Kerala
Q 48 :
Which organization provides emergency health support globally?
A.ILO
B.IMF
C.WTO
D.Red Cross
Q 49 :
Which country recently launched a digital health mission?
A.China
B.India
C.USA
D.Japan
Q 50 :
Which Indian app supports digital health records?
A.Aarogya Setu
B.CoWIN
C.DigiLocker
D.UMANG
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APPSC AE Recruitment (Civil) Exam Question Bank Book - English
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
A.Maximum daily demand
B.Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
C.Average demand
D.Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
Q 52 :
A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
A.Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
B.Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
C.Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
D.Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days
Q 53 :
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
A.40.5m3
B.50m3
C.75m3
D.94.7m3
Q 54 :
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
A.Flow rate through the tank
B.Diameter of the particle intended to be removed
C.Volume of the sedimentation tank
D.Detention time in the tank
Q 55 :
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.3 and 4 only
Q 56 :
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
A.3.6 mg/l
B.13.6 mg/l
C.33.6 mg/l
D.53.6 mg/l
Q 57 :
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.3 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 58 :
Quick sand condition occurs when
A.the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
B.the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
C.the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil
D.the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil
Q 59 :
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
A.5 m2
B.25 m2
C.10 m2
D.20 m2Â
Q 60 :
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Q 61 :
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A.1 and 3 only
B.1 and 4 only
C.2 and 4 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 62 :
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.2, 3 and 4 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 63 :
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
A.Methane and Hydrogen
B.Hydrogen Sulphide
C.Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D.Ammonia
Q 64 :
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
A.Excessive burning of bricks
B.High silt content in brick clay
C.High porosity of bricks
D.Soluble salts present in parent clay
Q 65 :
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 66 :
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 67 :
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 68 :
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
A.Tricalcium silicate
B.Dicalcium silicate
C.Tricalcium aluminate
D.Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Q 69 :
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Q 70 :
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
A.3.00
B.3.45
C.4.50
D.6.00
Q 71 :
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 72 :
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.2 and 3 only
B.2 and 4 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.1 and 4 only
Q 73 :
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 4 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.3 and 4 only
Q 74 :
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 75 :
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 3 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 4 only
D.2 and 4 only
Q 76 :
Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Q 77 :
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 3 only
B.1 and 4 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.2 and 4 only
Q 78 :
A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm2 and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is
A.100.6 N/mm2
B.120.4 N/mm2
C.140.2 N/mm2
D.160.0 N/mm2
Q 79 :
In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called
A.Annealing effect
B.Bauschinger effect
C.Strain rate effect
D.Fatigue effect
Q 80 :
Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 only
C.2 only
D.3 only
Q 81 :
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A.30 l
B.35 l
C.40 l
D.45 l
Q 82 :
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
A.1 : 1 : 1
B.1 : 2 : 3
C.1 : 2 : 4
D.1 : 3 : 4
Q 83 :
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 3 and 5
C.2, 3 and 4
D.2, 4 and 5
Q 84 :
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
A.10
B.20
C.25
D.30
Q 85 :
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
A.11.8
B.12.4
C.14.2
D.14.8
Q 86 :
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.1, 3 and 4
Q 87 :
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.3 and 4
Q 88 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 89 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 5 only
C.1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q 90 :
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
A.165 l
B.205 l
C.245 l
D.285 l
Q 91 :
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
A.IS : 4970-1973
B.IS : 1708-1969
C.IS : 1141-1958
D.IS : 399-1963
Q 92 :
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.2 and 4 only
C.1 and 4 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 93 :
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
A.Parallel to each other
B.At right angle to one another
C.45° oblique to adjacent grain
D.Not constrained by any consideration
Q 94 :
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
A.It must be free from lumps of lime
B.It should not be mixed with salty water
C.It must be non-homogeneous
D.It should not contain vegetable and organic matter
Q 95 :
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
A.440 kg/cm2
B.175 kg/cm2
C.100kg/cm2
D.75kg/cm2
Q 96 :
Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.3 and 4
C.2 and 3
D.1 and 4
Q 97 :
Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3
C.1, 2 and 4
D.2, 3 and 4
Q 98 :
Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?
A.Magnesium oxide
B.Silica
C.Alumina
D.Calcium sulphate
Q 99 :
Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
A.Ordinary Portland
B.High Alumina
C.Low-heat Portland
D.Portland Cement
Q 100 :
Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.2, 3 and 4
C.3, 4 and 5
D.2, 3 and 5
Q 101 :
What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?
A.11 to 15 mm
B.8 to 10 mm
C.15 to 17 mm
D.5 to 7 mm
Q 102 :
Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (QA to QB) .
C.1
Q 103 :
Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .
A.The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B.Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C.The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D.The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
Q 104 :
A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is
A.​​0.5 L
B.0.85 L
C.2 L
D.0.75 L
Q 105 :
What is the principle of plane surveying ?
A.Working from part to whole
B.Working from point to area
C.Working from angle to volume
D.Working from whole to part
Q 106 :
According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :
A.100 m
B.1000 m
C.600 m
D.150 m
Q 107 :
A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :
A.20
B.25
C.15
D.10
Q 108 :
What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?
A.Reduces the secondary hydration process
B.Increases the heat of hydration
C.Increases the amount of air entrainment
D.Reduces the heat of hydration
Q 109 :
As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :
A.M 20 and M 30
B.M 20 and M 25
C.M 22 and M 40
D.M 15 and M 25
Q 110 :
Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :
A.Mass density
B.Moment of inertia
C.Poission’s ratio
D.Modulus of elasticity
Q 111 :
As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?
A.120
B.140
C.70
D.60
Q 112 :
No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :
A.0.5 m2
B.1.0 m2
C.3 m2
D.0.75 m2
Q 113 :
What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?
A.20 cm
B.10 cm
C.30 cm
D.25 cm
Q 114 :
Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements
A.Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
B.Both statements S1 and S2 are false
C.Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
D.Both statements S1 and S2 are true
Q 115 :
If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :
A.121o25'
B.148o25'
C.58o25'
D.211o25'
Q 116 :
The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :
A.creek
B.crest
C.limp
D.nappe
Q 117 :
According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?
A.10 - 25 mm
B.25 - 50 mm
C.0 - 10 mm
D.50 - 100 mm
Q 118 :
Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?
A.March / April to June / July
B.December / January to April / May
C.May / June to October / November
D.October / November to April / May
Q 119 :
The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :
A.market value
B.book value
C.scrap value
D.salvage value
Q 120 :
The amount of cement required for 100 m2 area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :
A.2.5 m2
B.0.55 m2
C.1.10 m2
D.0.25 m2
Q 121 :
Select the correct statement related to increasing the carbon content in steel from 0.2 to 0.9 percent .
A.Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and increases the ductility
B.Increasing the carbon content in steel increases the yield stress and reduces the ductility
C.Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and does not affect the ductility
D.Increasing the carbon content in steel does not have any effect on the yield stress or ductility
Q 122 :
Which of the following laws states that pressure or intensity of pressure at a point is static fluid is equal in all directions ?
A.Newton's law
B.Pascal's law
C.Darcy's law
D.Hydrostatic law
Q 123 :
The determination of plasticity index and the percentage by weight of clay mineral finer than 2 µ present in the soil were done for two soil samples A and B. The ratio of plasticity index to the percentage of clay size particle for the samples A and B are given in the table .
Soil sample Ratio of plasticity index to percentage of clay size particle
Sample A Less than 0.75
Sample B Greater than 1.25 The two soil sample A and B are classified as
A.Sample A : Inactive; Sample B : Active
B.Sample A : Active; Sample B : Normal
C.Sample A : Active; Sample B : Inactive
D.Sample A : Normal ; Sample B : Inactive
Q 124 :
Which of the following compounds of cement is responsible for early strength ?
A.C4AF
B.C3S
C.C3A
D.C2A
Q 125 :
According to SP : 27 - 1984, the thickness of slab or RC slab shall be measured to the nearest of :
A.0.0002 m
B.0.005 m
C.0.0001 m
D.0.01 m
Q 126 :
Classify the following pollutants as primary pollutants (PP) and secondary pollutants (SP). Ozone, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, photochemical smog, Nitrogen oxides, Aerosol/mist, Hydrocarbons, Perory - Acetyl - Nitrate, Sulphur dioxide.
A.bulk unit weight of a soil when it is fully saturated
B.saturated bulk unit weight to total void
C.total void to saturated bulk unit weight
D.total void to saturated bulk unit weight
Q 128 :
Identify the test to be conducted for the determination of the modulus of subgrade reaction in pavement design .
A.Plate bearing test
B.Triaxial test
C.CBR test
D.Direct shear test
Q 129 :
In limit state design, the design bond stress for deformed bars (conforming to IS 1786) for M20 concrete mentioned in IS 456 : 2000 is (in N/mm2 units) :
A.1.2
B.1.8
C.1.68
D.1.92
Q 130 :
Which of the following can be considered as a taking off point in road planning in India ?
A.Lucknow plan
B.Delhi plan
C.Bombay plan
D.Nagpur plan
Q 131 :
The following two statements pertain to a simply supported under reinforced concrete beam. Select the correct option with regard is these statements .
1. The failure of the beam takes place due to the yielding of steel .
2. The moment of resistance of the beam is more than that of the balanced section of the beam .
A.Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
B.Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true
C.Both statement 1 and 2 are true
D.Both statement 1 and 2 are false
Q 132 :
A continuous beam ABC with span AB = BC = L is shown in the figure. Support A is fixed type, and supports B and C are roller type. The kinematic indeterminacy of the beam is :
A.2
B.3
C.5
D.4
Q 133 :
The soils transported and deposited by a river or a stream care called :
A.aeolian soils
B.alluvial soils
C.lacustrine soils
D.marine soils
Q 134 :
What is the mechanical extra widening required for a two-lane pavement of width 7 m on a horizontal curve of radius 250 m, if the longest wheel base of a vehicle expected on the road is 5 m with a design speed of 70 km/h ?
A.0.155 m
B.0.225 m
C.0.100 m
D.0.552 m
Q 135 :
The following are some of the errors that area associated with a total station survey work. Vertical collimation error, Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error Categorize the given errors as those due to temporary adjustments (T) and permanent adjustments (P).
According to IS 800 : 2007, identify the property which is considered as a mechanical property of structural steel, important in design .
A.Unit mass
B.Maximum percent elongation on a standard gauge length
C.Co - efficient of thermal expansion
D.Poisson ration
Q 137 :
Which of the following methods is NOT used for measuring air content in fresh concrete ?
A.Blaine air permeability method
B.Gravimetric method
C.Pressure method
D.Volumetric method
Q 138 :
Which of the following methods is NOT used for the calculation of depreciation of a structure ?
A.Straight line method
B.Quantity survey method
C.Geometric projection method
D.Declining balance method
Q 139 :
The failure of an over reinforced concrete beam is due to :
A.compression failure
B.mid failure
C.shear failure
D.tension failure
Q 140 :
In which type of estimate is 'Court yard' NOT considered ?
A.Unit rate estimate
B.Plinth area estimate
C.Lump sum estimate
D.Cub rate estimate
Q 141 :
Match the items in List 1 (name of quantities) with those in List 2 (unit of quantities in the SI system). Use codes in List for matching .
​ List 1 List 2
M. Dynamic viscosity 1. N/m
N. Kinematic viscosity 2. N.m
O. Surface tension 3. N.s/m2
P. Energy 4. m2/s
A.M-3, N-4, O-2, P-1
B.M-3, N-4, O-1, P-2
C.M-4, N-3, O-1, P-2
D.M-2, N-4, O-1, P-3
Q 142 :
A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to the following bending moments .
Moment due to dead load = 50 kNm
Moment due to live load = 50 kNm
Moment due to seismic load = 20 kNm
The design bending moment for limit state of collapse is :
A.120 kNm
B.180 kNm
C.144 kNm
D.150 kNm
Q 143 :
In a workshop shade, trusses are spaced at 4 m centre to centre. The purlins are spaced at 1.4 m centre to centre along the slope of 300. The (Dead Load + Live load) is 3 kNm2 and the wind load in 5 kNm2. The vertical and the inclined point loads, respectively, will be :
A.14.54 kN and 28 kN
B.17.8 kN and 48 kN
C.20 kN and 24 kN
D.18 kN and 21 kN
Q 144 :
What will be the percentage of passing aggregate for the grading zone 1 of sieve size 1.18 mm ?
A.100%
B.10% - 20%
C.7% - 25%
D.30% - 70%
Q 145 :
The annual or periodical payment for repayment of the capital amount invested on a property for a specified period is known as :
A.depreciation
B.obsolescence
C.amortization
D.annuity
Q 146 :
Among the following river training works, which are aligned either parallel or at an angle to the banks, identify the one having a difference in alignment when compared to others :
A.Flood walls
B.Guide banks
C.Groynes
D.Levees
Q 147 :
The test commonly to determine the grade of bitumen in terms of its hardness is :
A.the penetration test
B.the ductility test
C.the softening point test
D.the flash and fire point test
Q 148 :
A level section has formation width of 10 m, side slope of 1 : 2 (vertical : horizontal) and central height of 2 m. Determine the quantity of earthwork required for a 1 km length of formation (in m3) .
A.24,000
B.20,000
C.18,000
D.28,000
Q 149 :
Which type of odour characteristic is NOT used for classifying odour of a given water sample as per IS 3025 (part-5) 1983 ?
A.Degree of sweetness
B.Degree of turbidity
C.Degree of pungency
D.Degree of smokiness
Q 150 :
The liquid limit and plastic limit of clay materials is 45% and 25% respectively, what is the activity of clay materials if 20% by weight of particles of size less than 2 microns ?
