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Question Bank

APPSC ASO (Screening Test) Exam - English

Duration: 150 · Questions: 150 · Max Marks: 150 · Language: 3

View APPSC Assistant Statistical Officer 2026 Exam Page

General Studies & Mental Ability and Subject Releated

1
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
  1. A.Window
  2. B.Pop-up menu
  3. C.Message box
  4. D.Taskbar
2
What is active desktop ?
  1. A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
  2. B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
  3. C.both a and b above mentioned
  4. D.A software
  5. E.None of these
3
What is meant by an active window?
  1. A.A window that is minimized
  2. B.The window currently receiving user input
  3. C.Any window currently open
  4. D.The window opened first
4
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
  1. A.An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
  2. B.A computer operating system
  3. C.A spreadsheet application
  4. D.A database management system
5
An application is
  1. A.word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
  2. B.computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
  3. C.Both a and b above mentioned
  4. D.a document
  5. E.None of these
6
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
7
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
8
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
9
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
10
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
11
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
  1. A.metastable state to any lower state
  2. B.any higher state of lower state
  3. C.metastable state to ground state
  4. D.any higher state to ground state
12
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
  1. A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
  2. B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
  3. C.zero at any point inside the pipe
  4. D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
13
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
  1. A.0.45 m    
  2. B.0.15 m
  3. C.0.30 m       
  4. D.0.6 m
14
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
  1. A.having a constant phase difference
  2. B.of equal wavelength
  3. C.of equal speed
  4. D.having same shape of wavefront
15
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
  1. A.0.75 A     
  2. B.1 A
  3. C.2 A         
  4. D.1.5 A
16
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
  1. A.between 7 and 8
  2. B.between 5 and 6
  3. C.between 6 and 7
  4. D.between 10 and 11
17
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
  1. A.1.93 A         
  2. B.9.65 A
  3. C.19.3 A        
  4. D.0.965 A
18
The one which decreases with dilution is
  1. A.molar conductance
  2. B.conductance
  3. C.specific conductance
  4. D.equivalent conductance
19
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
  1. A.28 mm   
  2. B.56 mm
  3. C.70 mm    
  4. D.140 mm
20
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
  1. A.1 M solution of glucose
  2. B.0.05 M solution of glucose
  3. C.6% solution of glucose
  4. D.25% solution of glucose
21
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
  1. A.the nature of enzymes involved
  2. B.the nature of the substrate
  3. C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
  4. D.the amount of oxygen utilised
22
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
  1. A.Water vapour
  2. B.Carbon monoxide
  3. C.Methane
  4. D.Oxygen
23
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
  1. A.50%          
  2. B.75%
  3. C.0% 
  4. D.25%
24
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
  1. A.fresh-water mussel
  2. B.tortoise
  3. C.frog
  4. D.jelly fish
25
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
  1. A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
  2. B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
  3. C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
  4. D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
26
Total number of districts in Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A. 10
  2. B. 12
  3. C. 13
  4. D.17
27
Which one is the largest district by area wise in Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Kurnool
  2. B. Anantapur
  3. C. Kadapa
  4. D.Nellore                                
28
Who is the first sports person to received Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award from Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Pullela Gopichand
  2. B.Karnam Malleswari
  3. C.Saina Nehwal
  4. D.Sania Mirza          
29
Before Hyderabad was made capital in 1956, which city was the capital of Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Warangal
  2. B.Vijayawada
  3. C.Visakhapatnam
  4. D.Kurnool
30
In which district, the TirumalaVenkateswara Temple is located ?
  1. A.Chittoor
  2. B.Krishna
  3. C.Kurnool
  4. D.Vizianagaram     
31
Who was the first person to translate the Mahabharata into Telugu language ?
  1. A.Pothana
  2. B.Tikkana
  3. C.Nannayya
  4. D.Vemana               
32
Which one was the first dynasty to rule Vijayanagara Empire ?
  1. A.Tuluva dynasty
  2. B.Saluva dynasty
  3. C.Sangama dynasty
  4. D.Aravidu dynasty
33
Who is not in the group known as Kavitraya (three great poets) of Telugu literature ?
  1. A.Nannaya
  2. B.Tikanna
  3. C.Yerrapragada
  4. D.Pothana
34
When NT Rama Rao become the first chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.1978
  2. B. 1983
  3. C.1985
  4. D. 1992                      
35
Which one is the only constituency from where NT Rama Rao defeated in assembly election ?
  1. A.Kalwakurthy
  2. B.Hindupur
  3. C.Tekkali
  4. D. Nalgonda                            
36
Under Cournot Model of Duopoly, each duopolist will produce :
  1. A.half the output
  2. B.one-fourth of the output
  3. C.one-six of the output
  4. D.one-third of the total output
37
As long as the substitution effect dominates the income effect, the labour supply curve is :
  1. A.negatively sloped
  2. B.positively sloped
  3. C.bend backward
  4. D.shifting towards left 
38
Assertion (A)     :  Monopoly is Pareto inefficient .
Reason (R)         :  It would be possible to change the allocation of resources to make the amount of Income he would be prepared to pay in exchange of the reduction in price
  1. A.Codes:
    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.(A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
  3. C.Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is incorrect explanation of (A)
  4. D.(R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect 
39
If MPk/MPk does not change with any proportionate change in labour and capital then the production function  is :
  1. A.Linear
  2. B.Non-Linear
  3. C.Homogeneous
  4. D.Homothetic
40
Match the items in the List-I with items in List-II select the correct answer from the code given below :
  List-I                                      List-II
I. Agency Theory of        1. O.E. Williamson 
   Firm
II. X-inefficiency              2. M.C. Jenson and W. J. Meckling
III. The Utility                 3. Wilfredo Pareto
    Maximisation
     Model
IV. Edgeworth box         4. Harvey Leibenstein
      Diagram first
      Used by
  1. A.Codes:
    I               II             III            IV
    3              2              1              4
  2. B.2              4              1              3      
  3. C.2              3              4              1
  4. D.3              4              1              2
41
Green Box subsidies under WTO are allowed because they are considered to be : 
  1. A.Minimally trade distorting
  2. B.higher among developed and relatively lower for developing counties
  3. C.They are confined to agriculture sector
  4. D.They are related to GATS provision
42
Which one of the following is not reserved for public sector ?
  1. A.Atomic energy
  2. B.Railways
  3. C.Insurance
  4. D.Port Trust of India
43
The rate at which the Central Bank discounts the bills of commercial banks is called :
  1. A.Discount Rate
  2. B.Bill Rate
  3. C.Interest Rate   
  4. D.Lending Rate
44
If the economy is the liquidity trap then 
  1. A.Fiscal policy will be more effective
  2. B.Monetary policy will be more effective
  3. C.Crowding our effect will make fiscal and monetary policy effective
  4. D.None of the above
45
If the price consumption curve of a commodity is bending backwards , then the commodity must be : 
  1. A.An inferior commodity
  2. B.A perfectly elastic commodity
  3. C.Normal commodity
  4. D.Giffen goods
46
Marginal Revenue of a Monopoly firm is less than the price, Because :
  1. A.Demand curve has a positive slope
  2. B.Demand curve has a negative slope
  3. C.Monopolist is in equilibrium
  4. D.Monopolist incurs losses
47
For an inferior goods , income consumption curve and Engles curves are :
  1. A.Positively sloped
  2. B.Negative sloped
  3. C.Are the same 
  4. D.Income consumption curve positively sloped and the Engles curve is negative sloped
48
The classical economists focused on the role of money as :
  1. A.Medium of exchange 
  2. B.medium of distribution
  3. C.wealth
  4. D.link between present and future
49
If the demand for money is perfectly interest inelastic , the LM schedule will be :
  1. A.Upward sloping  
  2. B.Downward sloping
  3. C.Horizontal line 
  4. D.vertical line
50
Harrod –Domer model of economic growth is based on the equilibrium between
  1. A.Income generation and productive capacity creation
  2. B.Equilibrium between income and consumption
  3. C.Equilibrium between income and consumption
  4. D.None of the above
51
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
52
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
53
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
54
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
55
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
56
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
57
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
58
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
59
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
60
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
61
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
  1. A.N
  2. B.Q
  3. C.J
  4. D.M
  5. E.None of these
62
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
63
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
  1. A.The only argument I is strong
  2. B.Only argument II is strong
  3. C.Either I or II is strong
  4. D.Neither I nor II is strong
64
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
  1. A.P
  2. B.L
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
65
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
66
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.One
  2. B.Two
  3. C.Three
  4. D.Four
  5. E.More than four
67
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can  be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
  1. A.I
  2. B.A
  3. C.L
  4. D.M
  5. E.N
68
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
69
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
  1. A.26
  2. B.28
  3. C.30
  4. D.32
  5. E.None of these
70
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
71
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
72
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
73
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
74
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
75
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
76
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A.4     
  2. B.3
  3. C.2 
  4. D.5
77
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/5
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
78
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A.169  
  2. B.36
  3. C.196 
  4. D.Can not say
79
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
  1. A.16   
  2. B.25
  3. C.28  
  4. D.30
80
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
  1. A.93     
  2. B.103
  3. C.60.5
  4. D.121
81
Which is greater ?
  1. A.15/16
  2. B.17/18
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
82
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
  1. A.3 
  2. B.4
  3. C.5    
  4. D.7
83
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
  1. A.XLI 
  2. B.XLVI
  3. C.XLIV 
  4. D.XLVIC
84
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
  1. A.1/11
  2. B.9/11
  3. C.1/9
  4. D.9/10
85
What is (98 times 102) ?
  1. A.9996
  2. B.10000
  3. C.10096
  4. D.10196
86
Which is smaller ?
  1. A.9/11
  2. B.7/9
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
87
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
  1. A.26/45
  2. B.52/90
  3. C.13/22
  4. D.5/9
88
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
  1. A.81/100
  2. B.9/10
  3. C.8/9
  4. D.9/11
89
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
  1. A.3528 
  2. B.3852
  3. C.3582  
  4. D.3825
90
Which is greater ?
  1. A.13/17
  2. B.11/14
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
91
What is the capital of Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Hyderabad
  2. B.Amravati
  3. C.Guntur District
  4. D.Mangalagiri
92
What is the official language of Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Rajasthani
  2. B.Malyalam
  3. C.Gujarati
  4. D.Telugu
93
How many districts are there in Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.First
  2. B.Eleventh
  3. C.Thirteen
  4. D.Fifteen
94
What is the population of Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.8.46 Crores
  2. B.52.88 Millions
  3. C.141.7 Crores
  4. D.49.67 Million
95
Which is the largest city in Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.Amaravati
  2. B.Visakhapatnam
  3. C.Nellore
  4. D.Kurnool
96
What is the literacy rate in Andhra Pradesh ?
  1. A.67.35% (2022 census)
  2. B.75.87 % (2020 census)
  3. C.67.40 % (2019 census)
  4. D.67.02% (2011 census)
97
If x and y are related by x – y – 10 = 0 and mode of x is known to be 23, then the mode of y is :
  1. A.20
  2. B.13
  3. C.3
  4. D.23
98
A man travels at a speed of 20 km/hr and then returns at a speed of 30 km/hr. His average speed of the whole journey is
  1. A.25 km/hr
  2. B.24.5 km/hr
  3. C.24 km/hr
  4. D.None
99
A student obtained the mean and standard deviation of 100 observations as 40 and 5.1 respectively. It was later discovered that he had wrongly copied down an observation as 50 instead of 40. The correct standard deviation is
  1. A.5
  2. B.6
  3. C.3
  4. D.7
100
For a moderately skewed distribution, quartile deviation and the standard deviation are related by
    101
    The median of the data 13, 8, 11, 6, 4, 15, 2, 18 is
    1. A.5
    2. B.8
    3. C.11
    4. D.9.5
    102
    The sum of the squares of deviations of a set of observations has the smallest value; when the deviations are taken from their
    1. A.A.M.
    2. B.H. M.
    3. C.G. M.
    4. D.None
    103
    If two samples of sizes 30 and 20 have means as 55 and 60 and variances as 16 and 25 respectively, then what would be the S.D. of the combined sample size 50 ?
    1. A.5.33
    2. B.5.17
    3. C.5.06
    4. D.5
    104
    If two variables x & y are related by 2x + 3y –7 = 0 and the mean and mean deviation about mean of x are 1 and 0.3 respectively, then the coefficient of mean deviation of y about mean is
    1. A.–5
    2. B.4
    3. C.12
    4. D.50
    105
    Which of the following result hold for a set of distinct positive observations ?
    1. A.A.M > G.M > H.M
    2. B.G.M. > A.M. > H.M
    3. C.G.M > A.M > H.M
    4. D.A.M > G.M > H.M
    106
    Measures of dispersion are called averages of the ____ order .
    1. A.1st
    2. B.2nd
    3. C.3rd
    4. D.None
    107
    Which is the largest textile market in Andhra Pradesh ?
    1. A.Madanapalle
    2. B.Tirupati
    3. C.Vijayawada
    4. D.Visakhapatnam
    108
    Which is the largest turmeric market in Andhra Pradesh ?
    1. A.Guntur
    2. B.East Godavari
    3. C.West Godavari
    4. D.Krishna
    109
    Which is the largest chilli market in Andhra Pradesh ?
    1. A.Guntur
    2. B.East Godavari
    3. C.West Godavari
    4. D.Krishna
    110
    Which is the largest cotton market in Andhra Pradesh ?
    1. A.Anantapur
    2. B.Kurnool
    3. C.Chittoor
    4. D.Prakasam
    111
    Which is the largest rice market in Andhra Pradesh ?
    1. A.Krishna
    2. B.Guntur
    3. C.East Godavari
    4. D.West Godavari
    112
    Which river forms the boundary between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana ?
    1. A.Krishna
    2. B.Godavari
    3. C.Tungabhadra
    4. D.Penna
    113
    What is the highest peak in Andhra Pradesh ?
    1. A.Anaimudi
    2. B.Mahendragiri
    3. C.Arma Konda
    4. D.Kailasagiri
    114
    The Coromandel Coast is located in which part of Andhra Pradesh ?
    1. A.Northern
    2. B.Southern
    3. C.Eastern
    4. D.Western
    115
    Which of the following districts is not part of the Rayalaseema region ?
    1. A.Anantapur
    2. B.Kurnool
    3. C.Kadapa
    4. D.Visakhapatnam
    116
    Which one of the following rivers does not flow through Andhra Pradesh ?
    1. A.Krishna
    2. B.Godavari
    3. C.Tungabhadra
    4. D.Cauvery
    117
    Which of the following wildlife sanctuaries is located in Andhra Pradesh ?
    1. A.Bandipur National Park
    2. B.Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
    3. C.Bandhavgarh National Park
    4. D.Jim Corbett National Park
    118
    Which one of the following is not a port in Andhra Pradesh ?
    1. A.Visakhapatnam Port
    2. B.Krishnapatnam Port
    3. C.Kakinada Port
    4. D.Kolkata Port
    119
    Which district in Andhra Pradesh is famous for its beaches ?
    1. A.Vijayanagaram
    2. B.Nellore
    3. C.Srikakulam
    4. D.Chittoor
    120
    What is the name of the largest freshwater lake in Andhra Pradesh ?
    1. A.Pulicat Lake
    2. B.Kolleru Lake
    3. C.Hussain Sagar Lake
    4. D.Chilika Lake
    121
    Which district in Andhra Pradesh is known for its granite reserves ?
    1. A.Anantapur
    2. B.Guntur
    3. C.Prakasam
    4. D.Srikakulam
    122

    "Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

    1. A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
    2. B.Raskhan
    3. C.Rich Khusrow
    4. D.Rich Hasan
    123
    What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
    1. A.Muhammad Hasan
    2. B.Muhammad Hussain
    3. C.Muhammad Khusrow
    4. D.Muhammad Mine
    124
    Who is considered the founder of the Sufi movement in India?
    1. A.Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Aunty
    2. B.Nizamuddin Awliya
    3. C.muinuddin Chishti
    4. D.Naseeruddin Mahmud
    125
    When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
    1. A.1946
    2. B.1947
    3. C.1948
    4. D.1950
    126
    Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
    1. A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    2. B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    3. C.Jawaharlal Nehru
    4. D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
    127
    The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
    1. A.Mahatma Gandhi
    2. B.M.N. Roy
    3. C.Jawaharlal Nehru
    4. D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
    128
    Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
    1. A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy
    2. B.Swami Vivekananda
    3. C.Rabindranath Tagore
    4. D.Mahatma Gandhi
    129
    Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
    1. A.Kathak
    2. B.Kuchipudi
    3. C.Bharatanatyam
    4. D.Odissi
    130
    Which of the following is a famous festival of Kerala ?
    1. A.Pongal
    2. B.Onam
    3. C.Baisakhi
    4. D.Makar Sankranti
    131
    Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
    1. A.Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
    2. B.Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
    3. C.Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
    4. D.Dr. Satish Dhawan
    132
    Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
    1. A.BARC
    2. B.ISRO
    3. C.DRDO
    4. D.HAL
    133
    In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
    1. A.1975
    2. B.1965
    3. C.1980
    4. D.1990
    134
    What is the name of India's first indigenously developed satellite launched by ISRO?
    1. A.INSAT-1A
    2. B.Aryabhata
    3. C.Rohini
    4. D.Bhaskara
    135
    What is the name of India's first nuclear reactor?
    1. A.Dhruva
    2. B.Kamini
    3. C.Apsara
    4. D.Kalpakkam
    136
    What is the primary goal of disaster management?
    1. A.Preventing all disasters
    2. B.Reducing the impact of disasters on life and property
    3. C.Ensuring economic growth
    4. D.Creating more disaster-prone areas
    137
    Which of the following is the correct definition of disaster management?
    1. A.Managing financial resources during crises
    2. B.The systematic process of preparing for, responding to, and recovering from disasters
    3. C.Building resilience for natural growth
    4. D.Coordinating between economic and environmental growth
    138
    Which type of disaster management focuses on reducing future risks through planning?
    1. A.Mitigation
    2. B.Recovery
    3. C.Emergency response
    4. D.Rescue operations
    139
    What does "disaster risk" refer to?
    1. A.The financial cost of disasters
    2. B.The probability of harmful consequences or losses due to disasters
    3. C.The environmental benefits of disasters
    4. D.The inevitability of natural events
    140
    Which phase of disaster management involves activities like evacuation and emergency rescue?
    1. A.Preparedness
    2. B.Response
    3. C.Mitigation
    4. D.Recovery
    141
    What is the concept of "resilience" in disaster management?
    1. A.The ability to recover quickly after a disaster
    2. B.Complete prevention of disasters
    3. C.Increasing vulnerability to risks
    4. D.Ensuring immediate financial recovery
    142
    Which of the following is NOT a phase of disaster management?
    1. A.Preparedness
    2. B.Prevention
    3. C.Construction
    4. D.Recovery
    143
    Which international framework focuses on disaster risk reduction?
    1. A.Kyoto Protocol
    2. B.Paris Agreement
    3. C.Sendai Framework
    4. D.Basel Convention
    144
    What does the term "hazard" refer to in disaster management?
    1. A.A potential threat that may cause loss or damage
    2. B.An unavoidable event
    3. C.An artificial risk
    4. D.A rescue activity
    145
    Which organization in India is primarily responsible for disaster management?
    1. A.Ministry of Environment
    2. B.National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
    3. C.Indian Meteorological Department
    4. D.NITI Aayog
    146
    Which country's Supreme Leader, Ali Khamenei, was assassinated in a joint US-Israel strike in late February 2026?
    1. A.Syria
    2. B.Iraq
    3. C.Lebanon
    4. D.Iran
    147
    What was the primary goal stated for the 2026 Israeli–United States strikes on Iran?
    1. A.Nuclear disarmament only
    2. B.Border security
    3. C.Economic sanctions enforcement
    4. D.Regime change in Tehran
    148
    Which Indian state won its maiden Ranji Trophy title recently (reported in early March 2026)?
    1. A.Mumbai
    2. B.Tamil Nadu
    3. C.Jammu & Kashmir
    4. D.Karnataka
    149
    What funding amount did Germany announce for a new climate resilience initiative with India in February 2026?
    1. A.EUR 10 million
    2. B.EUR 100 million
    3. C.EUR 50 million
    4. D.EUR 20 million
    150
    Which Indian state launched its first Dark Sky Park in Kolli Hills in February 2026?
    1. A.Kerala
    2. B.Tamil Nadu
    3. C.Uttarakhand
    4. D.Himachal Pradesh