A fixed quantity of matter or region selected for study
C
Only a liquid body
D
Only the atmosphere
Question 2Single Answer
A closed thermodynamic system permits transfer of:
A
Mass only
B
Neither mass nor energy
C
Both mass and energy
D
Energy only
Question 3Single Answer
An open thermodynamic system permits transfer of:
A
Energy only
B
Mass only
C
Both mass and energy
D
Neither mass nor energy
Question 4Single Answer
An isolated system exchanges with its surroundings:
A
Neither mass nor energy
B
Work only
C
Mass only
D
Heat only
Question 5Single Answer
Which is an example of an open system?
A
Sealed pressure vessel
B
Thermos flask
C
Steam turbine
D
Closed gas cylinder
Question 6Single Answer
Which is an example of a closed system?
A
Compressor
B
Gas enclosed in a piston-cylinder arrangement
C
Turbine
D
Nozzle
Question 7Single Answer
Pressure is a:
A
Path function
B
Thermodynamic property
C
Process only
D
Cycle
Question 8Single Answer
Heat is considered a:
A
Path function
B
State property
C
Point function
D
Intensive property
Question 9Single Answer
Work in thermodynamics is a:
A
Property
B
Path function
C
State variable
D
Intensive property
Question 10Single Answer
Temperature is a:
A
Extensive property
B
Process quantity
C
Path function
D
Intensive property
Question 11Single Answer
Volume is normally classified as a:
A
Intensive property
B
Path function
C
Extensive property
D
Dimensionless quantity
Question 12Single Answer
Specific volume is a:
A
Intensive property
B
Extensive property
C
Path function
D
Process variable
Question 13Single Answer
Internal energy is a:
A
Point function
B
Path function
C
Process function
D
Dimensionless quantity
Question 14Single Answer
A thermodynamic cycle is completed when the system:
A
Reaches zero pressure
B
Stops transferring heat
C
Reaches maximum temperature
D
Returns to its initial state
Question 15Single Answer
Thermodynamic equilibrium requires:
A
Thermal equilibrium only
B
Thermal, mechanical and chemical equilibrium
C
Chemical equilibrium only
D
Mechanical equilibrium only
Question 16Single Answer
Zeroth law of thermodynamics forms the basis for measurement of:
A
Pressure
B
Temperature
C
Work
D
Volume
Question 17Single Answer
According to the Zeroth law, if bodies A and B are separately in thermal equilibrium with body C, then A and B are:
A
At different pressures
B
Of equal volume
C
Chemically identical
D
In thermal equilibrium with each other
Question 18Single Answer
The first law of thermodynamics is based on conservation of:
A
Momentum
B
Mass only
C
Entropy
D
Energy
Question 19Single Answer
For a thermodynamic cycle, change in internal energy is:
A
Positive
B
Negative
C
Infinite
D
Zero
Question 20Single Answer
For a closed system, the first law can be written as:
A
Q = ΞU + W
B
Q = W β ΞU
C
W = ΞU β Q
D
ΞU = Q + W always
Question 21Single Answer
Enthalpy is defined as:
A
H = U β PV
B
H = U/PV
C
H = PV β U
D
H = U + PV
Question 22Single Answer
The SI unit of enthalpy is:
A
Watt
B
Pascal
C
Newton
D
Joule
Question 23Single Answer
Specific enthalpy is normally expressed in:
A
kW/kg
B
kJ/kg
C
N/kg
D
Pa/kg
Question 24Single Answer
The second law of thermodynamics introduces the concept of:
A
Entropy
B
Mass
C
Velocity
D
Momentum
Question 25Single Answer
Entropy of an isolated system during an irreversible process:
A
Decreases
B
Remains zero
C
Becomes negative
D
Increases
Question 26Single Answer
Kelvin-Planck statement is associated with the:
A
Zeroth law
B
Second law
C
First law
D
Boyle's law
Question 27Single Answer
Clausius statement states that heat cannot, by itself, flow from:
A
Hot body to cold body
B
Cold body to hot body
C
Solid to liquid
D
Liquid to gas
Question 28Single Answer
A perpetual motion machine of the first kind violates the:
A
Zeroth law
B
Second law
C
First law
D
Third law
Question 29Single Answer
A perpetual motion machine of the second kind violates the:
A
First law
B
Charles' law
C
Boyle's law
D
Second law
Question 30Single Answer
A pure substance has:
A
Always one phase
B
Uniform chemical composition throughout
C
Always solid form
D
Zero internal energy
Question 31Single Answer
Water existing as liquid and vapor can still be considered a:
A
Mixture of pure substances
B
Solid solution
C
Non-equilibrium system only
D
Pure substance
Question 32Single Answer
The temperature at which a liquid starts boiling at a specified pressure is called:
A
Critical temperature
B
Triple temperature
C
Dew point only
D
Saturation temperature
Question 33Single Answer
Saturation pressure is the pressure corresponding to:
A
Maximum entropy
B
Maximum volume
C
Zero temperature
D
A given saturation temperature
Question 34Single Answer
Dry saturated steam contains:
A
Liquid droplets only
B
Only saturated vapor
C
Superheated vapor
D
Subcooled water
Question 35Single Answer
Wet steam contains:
A
Ice and water only
B
Superheated vapor only
C
Liquid water only
D
Saturated vapor and liquid droplets
Question 36Single Answer
Dryness fraction of saturated liquid is:
A
1
B
0
C
2
D
Infinite
Question 37Single Answer
Steam heated above its saturation temperature at a given pressure becomes:
A
Superheated steam
B
Wet steam
C
Saturated liquid
D
Compressed water only
Question 38Single Answer
The critical point is the state at which:
A
Solid and liquid become identical
B
Liquid and vapor phases become indistinguishable
C
Pressure becomes zero
D
Enthalpy becomes zero
Question 39Single Answer
At the triple point, a substance exists simultaneously as:
A
Liquid and vapor only
B
Solid and liquid only
C
Solid, liquid and vapor
D
Plasma only
Question 40Single Answer
A Mollier diagram is a plot of:
A
Pressure versus volume
B
Temperature versus entropy
C
Pressure versus temperature
D
Enthalpy versus entropy
Question 41Single Answer
The Mollier diagram is particularly useful in analyzing:
A
Electrical circuits
B
Gear trains
C
Shaft design
D
Steam processes
Question 42Single Answer
In an h-s diagram, the vertical coordinate generally represents:
A
Entropy
B
Volume
C
Pressure
D
Enthalpy
Question 43Single Answer
The Rankine cycle is an ideal cycle used for:
A
Gasoline engines
B
Steam power plants
C
Diesel engines
D
Refrigerators only
Question 44Single Answer
The main components of a simple Rankine cycle include:
A
Carburetor, cylinder and silencer
B
Boiler, turbine, condenser and pump
C
Gearbox, clutch and differential
D
Battery, starter and alternator
Question 45Single Answer
In a Rankine cycle, heat is supplied in the:
A
Condenser
B
Pump
C
Boiler
D
Cooling tower only
Question 46Single Answer
In the Rankine cycle, useful work is mainly produced by the:
A
Turbine
B
Boiler
C
Pump
D
Condenser
Question 47Single Answer
Heat rejection in a Rankine cycle occurs mainly in the:
A
Boiler
B
Turbine
C
Pump
D
Condenser
Question 48Single Answer
The pump in a Rankine cycle handles:
A
Steam only
B
Exhaust gas
C
Air only
D
Liquid water
Question 49Single Answer
Pump work in a Rankine cycle is generally:
A
Much larger than turbine work
B
Equal to turbine work
C
Smaller than turbine work
D
Infinite
Question 50Single Answer
Increasing boiler pressure generally tends to:
A
Make pump work zero
B
Eliminate turbine work
C
Eliminate condenser
D
Improve Rankine-cycle efficiency
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Automobile Engineering (Diploma Standard)
Question 51Single Answer
Superheating steam before turbine entry generally:
A
Increases cycle efficiency
B
Reduces turbine work
C
Stops condensation completely in all cases
D
Makes boiler unnecessary
Question 52Single Answer
Lowering condenser pressure in a Rankine cycle generally:
A
Decreases efficiency
B
Stops heat rejection
C
Has no effect
D
Increases efficiency
Question 53Single Answer
A reversible adiabatic process is also known as:
A
Isothermal
B
Isobaric
C
Isentropic
D
Isochoric
Question 54Single Answer
During an isothermal process of an ideal gas, the temperature:
A
Remains constant
B
Increases continuously
C
Decreases continuously
D
Becomes zero
Question 55Single Answer
During an isochoric process:
A
Pressure is constant
B
Temperature is constant
C
Entropy is always zero
D
Volume is constant
Question 56Single Answer
During an isobaric process:
A
Temperature remains zero
B
Volume remains constant
C
Pressure remains constant
D
Work is always zero
Question 57Single Answer
Boundary work during a constant-volume process is:
A
Zero
B
Maximum
C
Infinite
D
Always negative
Question 58Single Answer
Specific heat at constant pressure for an ideal gas is represented by:
A
Cα΅₯
B
Cβ
C
R only
D
Ξ³ only
Question 59Single Answer
For an ideal gas:
A
Cβ β Cα΅₯ = R
B
Cβ + Cα΅₯ = 0
C
Cβ = Cα΅₯ always
D
Cα΅₯ β Cβ = R
Question 60Single Answer
The air-standard Otto cycle represents an idealized:
A
Compression-ignition engine
B
Gas refrigerator
C
Steam turbine
D
Spark-ignition engine
Question 61Single Answer
Heat addition in the ideal Otto cycle occurs at:
A
Constant pressure
B
Constant volume
C
Constant temperature
D
Constant entropy
Question 62Single Answer
Heat rejection in the ideal Otto cycle occurs at:
A
Constant entropy
B
Constant pressure
C
Constant volume
D
Constant enthalpy
Question 63Single Answer
The ideal Diesel cycle has heat addition at:
A
Constant volume
B
Constant entropy
C
Constant pressure
D
Constant temperature
Question 64Single Answer
The ideal Dual cycle has heat addition at:
A
Constant volume only
B
Constant pressure only
C
Both constant volume and constant pressure
D
Constant temperature only
Question 65Single Answer
Thermal efficiency of an ideal Otto cycle primarily depends upon:
A
Compression ratio and specific heat ratio
B
Engine speed only
C
Bore only
D
Fuel tank capacity
Question 66Single Answer
Increasing compression ratio in an Otto cycle generally:
A
Increases efficiency
B
Reduces efficiency
C
Has no effect
D
Makes efficiency zero
Question 67Single Answer
The compression ratio is the ratio of:
A
Clearance volume to swept volume
B
Maximum cylinder volume to minimum cylinder volume
C
Bore to stroke
D
Pressure to temperature
Question 68Single Answer
The cutoff ratio is particularly associated with the:
A
Otto cycle
B
Diesel cycle
C
Stirling cycle only
D
Rankine cycle
Question 69Single Answer
For the same compression ratio, the ideal cycle having the highest efficiency is generally the:
A
Diesel cycle
B
Otto cycle
C
Rankine cycle
D
Refrigeration cycle
Question 70Single Answer
Mean effective pressure is defined as the hypothetical constant pressure that would produce:
A
Minimum cylinder volume
B
Zero work
C
Maximum temperature
D
The same net work per cycle
Question 71Single Answer
Mean effective pressure is useful for comparing:
A
Fuel colors
B
Engines of different sizes
C
Tyre patterns only
D
Battery voltages only
Question 72Single Answer
Indicated mean effective pressure is calculated from the:
A
Battery rating
B
Wheel alignment chart
C
Indicator diagram
D
Gear tooth profile
Question 73Single Answer
Brake mean effective pressure is based on:
A
Indicated power
B
Friction power only
C
Brake power
D
Heat input only
Question 74Single Answer
Diagram factor is generally the ratio of actual mean effective pressure to:
A
Theoretical mean effective pressure
B
Swept volume
C
Engine speed
D
Compression ratio
Question 75Single Answer
The air-standard assumption treats the working fluid as:
A
Air circulating in a closed cycle
B
Steam
C
Petrol only
D
Diesel only
Question 76Single Answer
In air-standard analysis, combustion is replaced by:
A
Compression
B
Heat rejection
C
Expansion only
D
External heat addition
Question 77Single Answer
Exhaust in an air-standard cycle is replaced by:
A
Constant heat supply
B
Friction
C
Compression
D
Heat rejection
Question 78Single Answer
Specific heat ratio Ξ³ equals:
A
Cα΅₯/Cβ
B
Cβ + Cα΅₯
C
Cβ β Cα΅₯
D
Cβ/Cα΅₯
Question 79Single Answer
The ideal Otto cycle consists of:
A
Four isochoric processes
B
Two isothermal and two constant-pressure processes
C
Four constant-pressure processes
D
Two isentropic and two constant-volume processes
Question 80Single Answer
The ideal Diesel cycle consists of:
A
Two isentropic, one constant-pressure and one constant-volume process
B
Four constant-volume processes
C
Four isothermal processes
D
Two constant-temperature processes only
Question 81Single Answer
Compression in an ideal Otto cycle is assumed to be:
A
Isobaric
B
Isentropic
C
Isochoric
D
Isothermal
Question 82Single Answer
Expansion in an ideal Diesel cycle is assumed to be:
A
Constant volume
B
Isothermal
C
Constant pressure
D
Isentropic
Question 83Single Answer
A Stirling engine is a:
A
Internal combustion engine only
B
External combustion engine
C
Hydraulic engine
D
Electric motor
Question 84Single Answer
The Stirling cycle ideally includes:
A
Two isobaric processes only
B
Four isentropic processes
C
Four constant-pressure processes
D
Two isothermal and two constant-volume regenerative processes
Question 85Single Answer
A regenerator in a Stirling engine is used to:
A
Increase friction
B
Store fuel
C
Store heat temporarily
D
Reduce cylinder volume
Question 86Single Answer
An ideal Stirling cycle with perfect regeneration can attain an efficiency equal to the:
A
Otto-cycle efficiency only
B
Diesel efficiency only
C
Carnot efficiency for the same temperature limits
D
Rankine efficiency only
Question 87Single Answer
In an SI engine, increase in compression ratio is limited mainly by:
A
Tyre pressure
B
Lubrication pressure
C
Battery size
D
Knocking
Question 88Single Answer
Diesel engines normally use a compression ratio that is:
A
Lower than SI engines
B
Higher than SI engines
C
Exactly 1
D
Always below 5
Question 89Single Answer
The compression ratio of an engine is dimensionless because it is a ratio of:
A
Volumes
B
Temperatures
C
Pressures
D
Powers
Question 90Single Answer
Swept volume is the volume displaced by the piston between:
A
TDC and BDC
B
Inlet and exhaust valves
C
Two spark plugs
D
Two crankpins
Question 91Single Answer
Clearance volume is the cylinder volume when the piston is at:
A
BDC
B
Mid-stroke
C
TDC
D
Exhaust valve only
Question 92Single Answer
The ratio of cylinder bore to piston stroke is called:
A
Compression ratio
B
Bore-stroke ratio
C
Cutoff ratio
D
Expansion ratio only
Question 93Single Answer
An engine with bore equal to stroke is called a:
A
Square engine
B
Long-stroke engine
C
Short-stroke engine
D
Rotary engine
Question 94Single Answer
An engine having bore greater than stroke is termed:
A
Under-square
B
Double acting
C
Square
D
Over-square
Question 95Single Answer
An engine having stroke greater than bore is termed:
A
Under-square
B
Over-square
C
Rotary
D
Radial
Question 96Single Answer
In a four-stroke engine, one power stroke occurs in:
A
Two crankshaft revolutions
B
One crankshaft revolution
C
Three crankshaft revolutions
D
Four crankshaft revolutions
Question 97Single Answer
In a two-stroke engine, one power stroke occurs in:
A
Every four revolutions
B
Every two revolutions
C
Every crankshaft revolution
D
Every six revolutions
Question 98Single Answer
Volumetric efficiency indicates the effectiveness of:
A
Cylinder charging
B
Lubrication only
C
Braking only
D
Steering
Question 99Single Answer
Mechanical efficiency of an engine is the ratio of:
A
Indicated power to brake power
B
Heat input to brake power
C
Friction power to indicated power
D
Brake power to indicated power
Question 100Single Answer
The function of a gear drive is to transmit:
A
Heat
B
Rotary motion and power
C
Fuel
D
Coolant
Question 101Single Answer
The pitch circle of a gear is an imaginary circle that:
A
Rolls without slipping with the mating pitch circle
B
Passes through tooth tips only
C
Defines root depth only
D
Defines shaft diameter
Question 102Single Answer
Module of a gear is equal to:
A
Number of teeth/pitch diameter
B
Tooth thickness Γ diameter
C
Pitch diameter/number of teeth
D
Circular pitch Γ teeth
Question 103Single Answer
The SI unit normally used for module is:
A
mm
B
mmΒ²
C
radian
D
N
Question 104Single Answer
Circular pitch is the distance measured along the pitch circle between:
A
Root and tip of one tooth
B
Corresponding points of adjacent teeth
C
Two shafts
D
Gear center and tooth tip
Question 105Single Answer
Addendum is the radial distance between the:
A
Root circle and base circle
B
Shaft center and pitch circle
C
Pitch circle and addendum circle
D
Pitch circle and root circle
Question 106Single Answer
Dedendum is measured between the:
A
Shaft and key
B
Pitch circle and addendum circle
C
Pitch circle and root circle
D
Gear and bearing
Question 107Single Answer
Pressure angle is the angle between the common normal and the:
A
Gear face
B
Shaft axis
C
Tooth root
D
Tangent to pitch circles
Question 108Single Answer
The most common involute gear pressure angle in modern applications is:
A
5Β°
B
10Β°
C
60Β°
D
20Β°
Question 109Single Answer
Backlash in gears is the difference between:
A
Gear diameter and shaft diameter
B
Addendum and dedendum
C
Pitch diameter and root diameter
D
Tooth space and tooth thickness measured along the pitch circle
Question 110Single Answer
Spur gears are used when shafts are:
A
Coaxial only
B
Intersecting at 90Β° only
C
Non-parallel and non-intersecting only
D
Parallel
Question 111Single Answer
Helical gears generally operate more smoothly than spur gears because:
A
They have no teeth
B
Teeth engage gradually
C
They eliminate friction
D
They need no lubrication
Question 112Single Answer
A disadvantage of a single helical gear is the production of:
A
Noisy operation only
B
Zero torque
C
Axial thrust
D
Zero friction
Question 113Single Answer
Double-helical gears are also called:
A
Worm gears
B
Bevel gears
C
Rack gears
D
Herringbone gears
Question 114Single Answer
Bevel gears are commonly used between:
A
Parallel shafts
B
Coaxial shafts only
C
Intersecting shafts
D
Flexible shafts
Question 115Single Answer
Worm and worm-wheel drives are commonly used for:
A
Zero speed reduction
B
Large speed reduction
C
Only parallel shafts
D
Increasing wheel alignment
Question 116Single Answer
A rack and pinion converts:
A
Electrical energy into fuel
B
Heat into mechanical work
C
Linear motion into heat only
D
Rotary motion into linear motion
Question 117Single Answer
In a simple gear train, an idler gear changes the:
A
Overall speed ratio
B
Pressure angle
C
Module of gears
D
Direction of rotation without altering magnitude of speed ratio
Question 118Single Answer
In external gearing, two meshing gears rotate in:
A
The same direction
B
No direction
C
Random directions
D
Opposite directions
Question 119Single Answer
An external gear meshing with an internal gear rotates in:
A
Opposite directions
B
The same direction
C
No fixed direction
D
Axial direction
Question 120Single Answer
The velocity ratio of a simple pair of gears is inversely proportional to their:
A
Tooth thickness only
B
Face width
C
Number of teeth
D
Pressure angles
Question 121Single Answer
For two meshing gears, speed ratio Nβ/Nβ equals:
A
Tβ/Tβ
B
Tβ/Tβ
C
Tβ + Tβ
D
Tβ β Tβ
Question 122Single Answer
A compound gear train is used when:
A
Shafts cannot rotate
B
No speed reduction is required
C
A large velocity ratio is required in limited space
D
Only one gear is available
Question 123Single Answer
In a compound gear train, at least one shaft carries:
A
No gear
B
Two gears rigidly connected
C
A clutch only
D
A piston
Question 124Single Answer
An epicyclic gear train contains gears whose axes:
A
Are all fixed
B
Are always parallel and stationary
C
Cannot rotate
D
May move relative to a fixed axis
Question 125Single Answer
The central gear of a planetary gear set is called the:
A
Idler shaft
B
Rack
C
Worm
D
Sun gear
Question 126Single Answer
Gears revolving around the sun gear are called:
A
Crown gears
B
Worm gears
C
Planet gears
D
Rack gears
Question 127Single Answer
The member supporting planet gears is called the:
A
Governor
B
Flywheel
C
Pulley
D
Carrier
Question 128Single Answer
The outer internally toothed member of a planetary set is called the:
A
Rack
B
Spur shaft
C
Worm
D
Ring gear
Question 129Single Answer
Planetary gear sets are widely used in:
A
Radiators only
B
Automatic transmissions
C
Carburetors only
D
Tyres
Question 130Single Answer
Torque is the product of force and:
A
Temperature
B
Perpendicular distance from axis
C
Density
D
Pressure only
Question 131Single Answer
SI unit of torque is:
A
NΒ·m
B
N
C
N/m
D
J/s
Question 132Single Answer
Power transmitted by a rotating shaft is directly proportional to:
A
Temperature only
B
Torque and angular speed
C
Mass only
D
Gear module only
Question 133Single Answer
If a gear drive reduces speed, ignoring losses, output torque generally:
A
Decreases
B
Remains zero
C
Becomes zero
D
Increases
Question 134Single Answer
Gear efficiency is the ratio of:
A
Input power/output power
B
Torque/speed only
C
Output power/input power
D
Speed/diameter
Question 135Single Answer
The tooth profile most commonly used in automobile gears is:
A
Involute
B
Straight triangular
C
Square
D
Cycloid only in all cases
Question 136Single Answer
An important advantage of involute gears is that the velocity ratio remains constant even with small changes in:
A
Gear color
B
Center distance
C
Lubricant color
D
Shaft material only
Question 137Single Answer
Interference in involute gears occurs when:
A
Non-involute portions of teeth contact improperly
B
Gears are lubricated
C
Backlash is present
D
Shafts rotate slowly
Question 138Single Answer
Undercutting of gear teeth tends to:
A
Increase tooth strength always
B
Weaken the tooth
C
Eliminate wear
D
Increase module automatically
Question 139Single Answer
Gear ratio in a reduction gearbox is generally:
A
Output speed/input speed greater than 1
B
Always 1
C
Input speed/output speed greater than 1
D
Always zero
Question 140Single Answer
A shaft is primarily designed to transmit:
A
Fuel
B
Heat only
C
Air pressure
D
Torque and rotary motion
Question 141Single Answer
A shaft subjected to torque develops mainly:
A
Normal tensile stress only
B
Shear stress
C
Thermal stress only
D
Bearing pressure only
Question 142Single Answer
For a solid circular shaft, maximum shear stress occurs at the:
A
Center
B
Outer surface
C
Half radius only
D
Neutral axis
Question 143Single Answer
Shear stress at the center of a solid circular shaft under pure torsion is:
A
Maximum
B
Equal to bending stress
C
Infinite
D
Zero
Question 144Single Answer
Polar moment of inertia is used in calculations involving:
A
Torsion
B
Heat transfer
C
Fuel injection
D
Braking distance
Question 145Single Answer
The torsion equation for a circular shaft includes:
A
F/A only
B
P/V only
C
M/I only
D
T/J
Question 146Single Answer
Angle of twist of a shaft is directly proportional to:
A
Diameterβ΄ only
B
Polar moment only
C
Shear modulus only
D
Torque and length
Question 147Single Answer
Angle of twist is inversely proportional to:
A
Shear modulus and polar moment of inertia
B
Shaft length
C
Torque
D
Applied load
Question 148Single Answer
A hollow shaft can be preferred over a solid shaft of equal weight because it can provide:
A
No torque transmission
B
Zero strength
C
Zero rigidity
D
Better torsional strength-to-weight ratio
Question 149Single Answer
In a circular shaft under torsion, shear stress varies: