Question for APPSC Degree Lecturer Commerce 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

1

For the following statements of Assertions (A) and Reasoning (R) indicate the correct code from the alternatives given:Assertion (A): Liberalization means corporatization of departmental undertakings and public undertakings.Reasoning (R): Freedom to public sector undertakings to access capital market.
Codes:

A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
B.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
C.(A) is true but (R) is false.
D.(A) is false but (R) is true.

2

Match the items of List-I with List-II and indicate the correct code:
List-I List-II
(a)Fiscal Policy (i) Mitigation of National hazards
(b)Technology Policy (ii) Balance of Payments
(c)Macro-Economic Policy (iii) Fiscal Federalism
(d)Monetary Policy (iv) Inflation
Codes:

A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B.(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
C.(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
D.(ii) (i) (iv )(iii)

3

Which of the following factor is not directly responsible for slowing down the growth of infrastructure?

A.High level of perceived political risk.
B.High level of sunk cost.
C.High probability of time and cost over-run.
D.Introduction of competition in all sectors.

4

Out of the following which is not a major component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?

A.Personal Consumption Expenditure
B.Gross Private Domestic Investment
C.Net Personal Income
D.Net Exports

5

Which of the following is not a forum of Consumer Dispute Redressal System?

A.Local forum
B.Distirct forum
C.State forum (State Commission)
D.National Commission

6

The first macro-environmental force that a business firm generally monitors is

A.Economic environment
B.Demographic environment
C.Technological environment
D.International, Political environment

7

Ram and Shyam are partners in a firm with capital of Rs. 4,80,000 and Rs. 3,10,000 respectively. They admitted Ganesh as a partner with share of profit. Ganesh brings Rs. 3,00,000 as his capital. Ganesh’s share of goodwill will be

A.Rs. 1,10,000
B.Rs. 27,000
C.Rs. 17,500
D.Rs. 70,000

8

Which of the following is deferred revenue expenditure?

A.Legal expenses incurred on the purchase of land.
B.Expenses on a mega advertisement campaign while launching a new product.
C.Expenses incurred on installation of a new machine.
D.Wages paid for construction of an additional room in a building.

9

The amount of depreciation charged to Profit and Loss Account varies every year under:

A.Fixed installment method
B.Annuity Method
C.Diminishing method
D.Insurance policy method

10

Ordinal utility analysis of the consumer’s behavior is considered superior to the cardinal utility analysis mainly due to :

A.Assumption of the rationality of the consumer’s behavior.
B.Possibility of the derivation of the consumer's demand.
C.Bifurcation of price effects into income and substitution effects.
D.Consideration of the available limited resources for satisfying
consumer’s demand.

11

For the following statements of Assertions (A) and Reasoning (R) indicate the correct codeAssertion (A): Price Reduction normally leads to an increase in the demand for a commodity.
Reasoning (R): Price reduction leads to the entry of new buyers of the commodity in the market.
Codes:

A.(A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
B.(A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
C.Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) offers full explanation of (A).
D.Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) does not offer full explanation of
(A).

12

The minimum Long Run Average Cost (LAC) can be determined ona:
(i)LAC curve for a normal production function.
(ii)LAC curve for a linear production function.
(iii)Planning curve.
(iv)Envelope curve.
Codes:

A.(i) (ii) (iii)
B.(ii) (iii) (iv)
C.(i) (iii) (iv)
D.(i) (ii) (iv)

13

Monopoly is not considered desirable from the point of view of the society mainly because the monopolist endeavors to:

A.Earn net revenue on the sale of all goods including those involving no cost of production.
B.Earn net revenue on sale of goods in short run as well as long run.
C.Charge different prices for the same product from the different categories of buyers.
D.Produce below economic capacity level when he exhibits satisfaction with normal profit only.

14

Product-line pricing strategy includes which combination of the following?
(i)Public utility pricing
(ii)Complementary goods pricing
(iii)Spare parts pricing
(iv)Load factor pricing
Codes:

A.(i) (ii) (iii)
B.(ii) (iii) (iv)
C.(i) (ii) (iv)
D.(i) (iii) (iv)

15

When the date are classified only on the basis of descriptive
characteristics which cannot be quantified is known as :

A.Geographical classification
B. Chronological classification
C.Qualitative classification
D. Quantitative classification

16

Which one of the following is a false description?

A.In a moderately asymmetrical distribution, the empirical relationship between Mean, Mode and Median suggested by Karl Pearson isMean – Mode = 3 (Mean – Median)
B.Coefficient of variation is an absolute measure of dispersion
C.Measure of skewness indicates the direction in the distribution of numerical values in the data set.
D.Kurtosis refers to the degree of flatness of peakedness in the region around the mode of a frequency curve.

17

Read the following and select the right code:
Statement-I:When the null hypothesis is true but as per the
hypothesis-testing, it is rejected, it is known as beta type error in
Hypothesis testing.
Statement-II:Chi-square test is exclusively a non-parametric test.
Codes:

A.Both the statements are true.
B.Both the statements are false.
C.Statement-I is true while Statement-II is false.
D.Statement-I is false while Statement-II is true.

18

Computers that recognize data as discrete signals are called?

A.Analog computers
B.Digital computers
C.Hybrid computers
D.Super computers

19

Herbert Simon’s concept of administrative man assumes that
(a)He has satisfying approach in decision making rather than maximizing approach.
(b)He can make decisions without determining all possible alternatives.
(b)He is completely rational in decision making.

A.(a) only
B.(b) only
C.Both (a) and (b)
D.(a), (b) and (c)

20

Which of the following statements (s) is / are correct about scalar chain principle as given by Fayol?
(a)Each communication, going up or down, must flow through each position in the line authority.
(b)Chain of communication cannot be broken under and circumstances.

A.Only (a) is correct.
B.Only (b) is correct.
C.Neither (a) nor (b) is correct.
D.Both (a) and (b) are correct.

21

A mission statement should be :
(a)Self-explanatory
(B)Elaborate
(c)Distinctive
(d)Feasible
Codes:

A.(a) only
B.(a) and (b)
C.(a), (b) and (c)
D.(a), (c) and (d)

22

Match List-I and List-II and indicate the correct code:
List-I List-II
(a)Equity theory (i) Motivation depends on ratios of inputs and
outcomes of self and others.
(b)Vroom’s theory (ii) People are motivated to achieve a goal to
the extent that they expect that certain action
will help them to reach the goal.
(c)Porter and Lawyer Mode l(iiiThere exists a complex relationship
amongmotivation, performance and satisfaction.
(d)Herzberg’s theory (iv) A challenging job that has opportunities for
achievement, recognition, responsibility and
growth will motivate employees.
Codes:

A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B.(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
C. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
D.(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

23

Assertion (A):‘Grapevine’ tends to be more active during periods of change excitement, anxiety and sagging economic conditions.Reasoning (R):Employees use this communication to fill in important information gaps and clarify management decisions.
Codes:

A.(A) is right and (B) is wrong.
B.(A) is wrong and (B) is right.
C.Both (A) and (B) are right and (R) explains (A).
D.Both (A) and (B) are right but (R) does not explain (A).

24

Which type of differentiation is used to gain competitive advantage through the way a firm designs its distribution coverage, expertise and performance?

A.Channel differentiation
B.Servicesdifferentiation
C. People differentiation
D.Product differentiation

25

Which one of the following is the most likely result of a marketing strategy that attempt to serve all potential customers?

A.All customers will be delighted
B.Customer-perceived value will be increased.
C.The company will need to follow up with demarketing campaign.
D.Not all customers will be satisfied.

26

Which of the following is not a primary activity in Michael Porter’s value chain?

A.Inbound logistics
B.Operations
C.Outbound logistics
D.Procurement

27

Which of the following represents consistency of results when the test instrument is used repeatedly?

A.Validity
B.Reliability
C.Relativity
D.Sensitivity

28

Read the following and select the right code:Assertion (A): Too many stimuli make a person accommodated to those sensations, Sensory adaption is a problem that concerns many advertisers, which is why they try to change their advertising campaigns regularly.
Reasoning (R): To cut through advertising clutter and to ensure that consumers perceive advertisement, marketers try to increase sensory input.
Codes:

A.(A) is right and (R) is wrong.
B.(A) is wrong and (R) is right
C.Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) does not explain (A).
D.Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) explains (A).

29

Which of the following is not a feature of payback period method?

A.It is simply a method of cost recovery and not of profitability
B.It does not consider the time value of money.
C.It does not consider the risk associated with the projects.
D.It is very difficult to calculate.

30

Which of the following is not a source of credit information of prospective customers?

A.Letter of credit
B.Bank Reference
C.Trade Enquiry
D.Credit Bureau

31

The portion of earnings which is distributed among shareholders in the form of dividend is called:

A.Proprietary Ratio
B.Earnings yield Ratio
C.Payout Ratio
D.Retention Ratio

32

Select the correct code regarding motives for holding inventories by firms:
(a)Transaction motive
(b)Environmental motive
(c)Precautionary motive
(d)Speculative motive
(e)Competitive motive
Codes:

A.(a),(b),(c),(d)
B.(a),(b),(d),(e)
C.(a),(d),(e
D. (a),(c),(d)

33

The Learner Index measures

A.Market power
B.Price
C.Price-Marginal cost
D.None of the above

34

Which of the following is not true in case of HRM?

A.Employees are seen as an investment to be nurtured as well as a cost to be controlled.
B. Conflicts aredealt with by team members within their teams.
C.Preference is for collective bargaining of pay and working
D.Emphasis is on competitive pay and conditions to stay ahead of competitors

35

Which one of the following is an advantage of magazines s as a source of recruitment?

A.Less Expensive
B.Long lead time for advertisement placement
C.Reach a diverse audience
D.Many unmotivated applicants

36

Examine the following statements and choose the correct
code:Assertion (A): Human Resourcing must always be seen within the strategy making context.Reasoning (R): Human Resource planning process removed from the realities of the business will be a waste of time.
Codes:

A.Both (A) and (R) are correct.
B. Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
C.(A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
D. (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

37

Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and select the correct code:
List-I List-II
(a) Golden parachutes (i)The right to purchase a stated number of
shares ofa company stock at today’s price at some time in the future.
(b) Gain sharing (ii) An incentive plan that engages employees in
acommon effort to achieve productivity objectives and
share the gains.
(c)Stock-option (iii) Payments companies make in connection with
a change in ownership or control of a company.
(d)Annual bonus (iv) Plans designed to motivate short term
performance of managers and are tried to company
profitability.
Codes:

A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
B.(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C.(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
D.(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

38

Which one of the following is not a function of plant council?

A.Recommend and improve safety, health and welfare measures.
B.Determination of productivity schemes taking into consideration the local conditions.
C.Planning, implementation and review of monthly target schedules.
D.Review of working of shop level bodies.

39

Read the following and select the right code:Assertion (A): “Banks globally are facing more challenges now and Macro sustainability is a necessity but not sufficient for sustainable economic growth.”
Reason (R):“Putting regulations in place is only one part and their implementation is equally important for achieving growth and sustainability.”
Codes:

A.(A) and (R) both are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
B.(A) and (R) both are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C.(A) is true and (R) is false.
D. (A) is false and (R) is true.

40

Banking on telephone services includes:
(a)Automatic balance voice out.
(b)Inquiry all term deposit account.
(c)Direct cash withdrawal.
(d)Utility bill payment.
(e)Voice out last five transactions.
Codes:

A.(i), (ii),(iii) and (iv)
B.(i), (ii),(iv) and (v)
C. (ii), (iii),(iv) and (v)
D. All (i), (ii),(iii),(iv) and (v)

41

Which one of the following banks currently ranks number one in India in terms of market capitalization?

A. State Bank of India
B.I.C.I.C.I Bank
C.U.T.I Bank
D.I.D.B.I Bank

42

Match the items of Column-I with the items in Column-II and suggest the correct code:
Column-I Column-II
(a)Interbank call market (i) Money market
(b)Commercial Bills (ii) Promissory note
(c)Commercial paper market (iii) Short-term maturity
(d)Treasury bills (iv) Government papers
Codes:

A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
B.(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
C. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
D.(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

43

Match the items of List-I with the items in List-II with regard to the BASEL III norms and suggest the correct code:
List-I List-II
(a)Pillar 1 (i) Supervisory Review process
(b)Pillar 2 (ii) Market discipline
(cPillar 3 (iii) Minimum regulatory capital requirements (d)based on Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs)
Codes:

A.(a) (b) (c)
(i) (ii) (iii)
B.(i) (iii) (ii)
C.(iii) (ii) (i)
D.(iii) (i) (ii)

44

Assertion (A): Comparative cost theory is static in character.Reason (R): Comparative cost theory is based on fixed supplies of factors of production.
Codes:

A.(A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
B.(R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.
C.(A) and (R) both are correct, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
D.(A) and (R) both are correct, (R) is the correct explanation of

45

Match the items of List-I with List-II with regard to Balance of Payments equilibrium:
List-I List-II
(a)Exchange control. (i) Exporters surrender foreignexchange to the central bank.
(b)Trade Policy Measure (ii) Bank rate raised by the central bank
(c)Expenditure reducing policy (iii) Reduction in foreign exchange
(d)Expenditure switching policy (iv) Enhancing exports by granting
Codes:

A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
B.(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C.(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
D.(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

46

Which among the following is closely associated with intellectual property right?

A.GATS
B.TRIMS
C.TRIPS
D. MFN

47

What is not correct about International Development Association(IDA)?
(a)Following earthquake in 2015, IDA has helped Nepal rebuild and recover.
(b)IDA ranks as the highest performing multilateral development bank in 2016.
(c)IDA is a subsidiary bank of IBRD.
(d)India has procured highest amount of international loan from IDA.
Codes:

A.(a) and (b)
B.(c)
C.(d)
D.(a) and (c)

48

As per the foreign Trade policy 2015-2020, a three star export house should have:

A.Export performance (FOB/FOR) of US $100 million during current and previous two years.
B. Export performance (FOB/FOR) of US $500 million during current and previous two years.
C.Export performance (FOB/FOR) of US $1000 million during current and previous two years.
D.Export performance (FOB/FOR) of US $2000 million during current and previous two years.

49

Read the following and select the right code:Statement-I: A custom to be valid should be proved to be immemorial but may not be ancient.Statement-II: The principle of judicial decision which is only authoritative is known as ‘ratio decidendi’.

A.Both the statements are true.
B.Both the statements are false.
C.Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
D.Statement-II is true but Statement-I is false.

50

To become a director in a company the person must obtain:

A.Business Licence
B.Director’s Licence
C.TIN
D.DIN

51

Which is the most potent driver of business transformation during Covid-19 pandemic ?

A.Ethical consciousness
B.Scale economies and pricing power
C.Technology adoption and innovation
D.Supply chain logistics and government interventions

52

Counter Vailing Duties (CVD) are often imposed on imports to off set the impact of :

A.Predatory pricing
B.Export subsidies
C.Dumping
D.Low cost financing

53

To prevent opportunistic takeover of domestic firms amid Covid-19 pandemic. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) from countries that share borders with India is allowed through :

A.Automatic route
B.Government route
C.FIPB route
D.DPIIT route

54

Factor conditions in Michael Porter’s competitive advantage National Include :

A.Market size
B.Demand conditions
C.Internationally competitive suppliers
D.Skilled labour and scientific knowledge

55

In case the purchasing company agrees to act as the agent of the vendor for collection of the book debts, in the books of the purchasing company, the amount of debtors should be credited to :

A.Vendor’s debtors account
B.Vendor’s suspense account
C.Debtors account
D.Creditors account

56

When the value of “Investment in subsidiary” in the holding company’s balance sheet in more then the book value of the net assets acquired, the difference represents :

A.Capital reserve on consolidation
B.Goodwill on consolidation
C.Minority interest
D.Post acquisition profit

57

The basic method of valuing human assets is :

A.Adjustment
B.Amortization
C.Capitalization
D.Quasi equity

58

X and Y are partners, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 :3. They admit Z into the partnershipand for 1/5th share. X and Y decide to share the future profits in the ratio of 2 :1. What is the sacrificing ratio of X and Y ?

A.4 : 3
B.13 : 8
C.8 :13
D.4 :17

59

The value of the firm in wealth maximization objective is measured by :

A.Present value of all expected future cash flows
B.All expected future cash flows
C.Percent value of all expected future profits
D.All expected future profits

60

For a decline in price, total revenue declines in the demand of the product is :

A.Inelastic
B.Elastic
C.Unitary elastic
D.Zero elastics

61

In Cobb-Douglas production function, Q=AKαLβ increasing returns to scale occurs when :

A.α + β > 1
B.K + L > 1
C.α + β < 1
D.K + L < 1

62

The extreme case of non-price competition in an Oligopoly is :

A.Formation of cartels
B.Interdependent decision-making
C.Attaining economies of scale
D.Formation of duopoly

63

Pecking order theory in finance is based on the assertion of :

A.Asymmetric information between managers and investors
B.Symmetric information between managers and investors
C.Outside information
D.Asymmetric information among investors only

64

If a project cost is Rs. 40,000. Its stream of earning before depreciation and tax during first year through five years is expected to be Rs. 10,000, Rs. 12,000, Rs. 14,000, Rs. 16,000 and Rs. 20,000. Assume a 50% tax rate and depreciation on straight line basis; project’s ARR is :

A.14.40%
B.72%
C.16%
D.55.56%

65

According to the theory of dividend the firm should follow its investments policy of accepting all positive NPV projects and paying out dividends if and only if, funds are available :

A.Bird in hand theory
B.Investor rationality theory
C.100 percent retention theory
D.Residual theory

66

In Securitisation when no assets are acquired and the collateral is fixed for the life of the asset,the type of a structure is called as :

A.Revolving structure
B.Amortized structure
C.Collateralized structure
D.Self-liquidating structure

67

For a very large sample size the ratio between

â€‹ and σ is 8 : 40. Determine the sample size ð“· :

A.25
B.5
C.4
D.16

68

For a given set of paired data, the correlation and regression coefficients have been calculated as being equal to r,bxy and byx respectively. Now, each of values of x series is divided by 5. What effect does it have on each of these co-efficients ?

A.The three co - efficients remain unchanged
B.There is no change in r but by x changes to byx/5and bxy changes to 5bxy
C.Each of the co-efficients will be reduced to one fourth of its value
D.There is no change r but byx changes to 5byx and bxy chages to bxy/5

69

Which of the following statement is correct ?

A.Co-efficients of variance
B.If value in a series are negative, the standard deviation is also negative
C.If value in a series multiplied by σ, the variance would be multiplied by 36
D.Standard deviation is equal to square of variance

70

For a poisson distribution variable X, P(X=0) = 2P(X=1), its standard deviation would be :

A.â€‹â€‹
B.0.5
C.â€‹
D.2

71

Companies Act is governed by

A.RBI
B.SEBI
C.Partnership Act
D.Ministry of Corporate Affairs

72

Own shares purchased by a company with a view to reduce its capital is called

A.sale
B.Purchase
C.buy-back
D.Private placement

73

A company in which there is only one member is called

A.one member company
B.one person company
C.single company
D.Individual company

74

Shares which have preferential rights are called

A.Equity share
B.Preference share
C.Debenture
D.Bond

75

Which of the following is the registered capital of the company ?

A.Nominal capital
B.Authorised capital
C.Share capital
D.Both (a) and (b)

76

Capital which is called only at the time of winding-up of the company is called

A.Capital reserve
B.Reserve capital
C.Secure capital
D.Authorised capital

77

Which kind of preference share entitIes its holders to receive arrear of dividends of previous years ?

A.Cumulative preference share
B.Non-cumulative preference share
C.Convertible preference share
D.Non-convertible dividend share

78

Which document is an invitation offer to public to subscribe for company’s share ?

A.Red herring prospectus
B.Prospectus
C.In lieu of prospectus
D.None of the above

79

The balance of share forfeiture account can be used to

A.Provide for discount given at the time of reissue
B.Write-off preliminary expenses
C.Write-off bad debts
D.None of the above

80

A company issued 25,000 shares and received applications for 35,000 shares. Company wants to allot shares to everyone who has applied. What will be the ratio for allotment ?

A.6 : 7
B.7: 5
C.5 : 7
D.7 : 6

81

A company issued 10,000 shares of Rs10 each. Amount is payable as Rs 2 on application, Rs 5 on allotment and Rs 3 on first and final call. A shareholder who had 1,000 shares failed to pay allotment and first call amount on due date. After a month, he paid the due amount. What will be the amount received by company against issue of shares ?

A.Rs 92,000
B.Rs 90,000
C.Rs 1,00,000
D.Rs 8,000

82

Nominal share capital is

A.That part of the authorised capital which is issued by the company
B.The amount of capital which is actually applied for by the prospective shareholders
C.The maximum amount of share capital which a company is authorised to issue
D.The amount actually paid by the shareholders

83

Money received in advance from shareholders before it is actually called-up by the directors is

A.Mebited to calls-in-advance account
B.Credited to calls-in-advance account
C.Debited to calls account
D.None of the above

84

Shares can be forfeited

A.For non-payment of call money
B.For failure to attend meetings.
C.For failure to repay the loan to the bank
D.For which shares are pledged as a security.

85

The profit on reissue of forfeited shares is transferred to

A.General reserve
B.Capital redemption reserve
C.Capital reserve
D.Revenue reserve

86

Balance of share forfeiture account is shown in the balance sheet under the item

A.Current liabilities and provisions
B.Reserves and surpluses
C.Share capital
D.Unsecured loans

87

Amox Ltd. is registered with a capital of 10,00,000 equity shares of Rs 10 each. 6,00,000 equity shares were offered for subscription to public. Applications were received for 6,00,000 shares. All calls were made and amount was duly received except final call of Rs 2 on 80,000 shares.What Will will be the amount of share capital shown in the balance sheet ?

A.Rs 60,00,000
B.Rs 58,40,000
C.Rs 5,84,000
D.Rs 6,00,000

88

Which amongst the following shares conter voting rights on its holders ?

A.Equity shares
B.Redeemable preference shares
C.Participatory preference shares
D.None of the above

89

Amount payable on shares can be received in installments by the company. What is the first installment called ?

A.Application money
B.Allotment money
C.First call money
D.Second call money

90

Total capital specified in capital clause is Rs 50,00,000 which is divided in 35,000 equity shares of Rs 100 each and 15,000, 10% preference shares of Rs100 each. The company issued 10,000 equity shares and 5,000 preference shares. The public subscribed for 9,000 equity shares and 4,500 preference shares out of the issued shares. What will be the subscribed capital amount ?

A.Rs 50,00.000
B.Rs 50,000
C.Rs 9,00,000
D.Rs 13,50,000

91

An efficient control system helps to

A.Accomplish organisational objectives
B.Boost employee morale
C.Judge accuracy of standards
D.All of the above

92

Controlling function of an organisation is

A.Forward-looking
B.Backward-looking
C.Forward as well as backward-looking
D.None of the above

93

Management audit is a technique to keep a check on the performance of

A.Company
B.Management of the company
C.Shareholders
D.Customers

94

Budgetary control requires the preparation of

A.Training schedule
B.Budgets
C.Network diagram
D.Responsibility centres

95

Which of the following is not applicable to responsibility accounting ?

A.Investment centre
B.Accounting centre
C.Profit centre
D.Cost centre

96

“Managerial control implies the measurement of accomplishment against the standard and the correction of deviations to assure attainment of objectives according to plans.” This definition has been given by

A.Koontz and O’ Donnell
B.Peter Drucker
C.Henri Fayol
D.Chester Barnard

97

Which of the following describes the nature of controlling ?

A.Goal-oriented process
B.Pervasive function
C.Continuous process
D.All of these

98

Controlling provides direction to all activities and each department and employee is governed by predetermined standards, which helps in establishing ......... among them.

A.Organising
B.Directing
C.Planning
D.Co-ordination

99

Which of the following factor(s) is/are beyond the control of an organisation ?

A.Change in government policies
B.Change in technology
C.Competition level
D.All of the above

100

Controlling is a pervasive function because it is performed

A.In all organisations whether profit making or non profit making
B.At all levels of management to ensure that the work at every stage is performed as planned
C.Goal oriented process
D.Both (a) and (b)

101

Which of the following is not an importance of controlling ?

A.Judging accuracy of standards
B.Effective use of resources
C.Ensures order and discipline
D.Exploitation of resources

102

Sales volume, sales expenses, advertising expenses are the part of . . . . . . . . . . . . standards.

A.Production
B.Marketing
C.HR
D.None of these

103

In controlling process, the next stage after setting performance standards is

A.Measurement of actual performance
B.Comparing actual performance with standards
C.Analysing deviations
D.Taking corrective action

104

Under controlling of HR area, corrective action must be taken for

A.High labour turnover rate
B.Low labour turnover rate
C.Zero labour turnover rate
D.Low labour absenteeism

105

Is the final step of controlling process, the managers takes corrective measures to bring back everything on track. Sometimes even after best efforts, if deviations cannot be corrected then what should be done ?

A.Revise the standards
B.Fire the managers
C.Shut the company
D.None of these

106

'Taking corrective action’ is ........ step in process of controlling.

A.First
B.Second
C.Third
D.Last

107

Planning is guided by past experience and corrective actions taken in the controlling process.Thus, it is regarded as

A.Backward-looking function
B.Forward-looking function
C.Pervasive function
D.None of the above

108

In controlling process, while setting performance standards, standards can be set

A.In quantitative terms only
B.In qualitative terms only
C.Both (a) and (b)
D.In subjective terms

109

Which standard(s) is/are used in production ?

A.Quality Standards
B.Quantity Standards
C.Cost Standards
D.All of these

110

Which of the following is the technique of measurement of performance ?

A.Personal observation
B.Sample checking
C.Performance reports
D.All of the above

111

Which of the following is related to microeconomics ?

A.Inflation in the economy
B.Problem of unemployment
C.National Income
D.Income from the railways

112

The study of microeconomics and macro economics is.

A.Independent of each other
B.Interrelated to each other
C.Both (a) and (b)
D.None of these

113

Who is the father of economics ?

A.Karl Marx
B.J.M. Keynes
C.Adam Smith
D.Alfred Marshall

114

In economics, scarcity refers to a situation when.

A.Demand for goods exceeds its supply
B.Supply of goods exceeds its demand
C.Supply of goods is equal to its demand
D.Both (a) and (b)

115

...... economics states 'what is’ and not 'what should be.

A.Positive
B.Normative
C.Modern
D.None of these

116

...... are the important tools of macroeconomic studies.

A.Demand and supply
B.Aggregate demand and aggregate supply
C.Exports and imports
D.All of the above

117

Which of the following questions is/are the part of normative economics ?

A.What are the causes of un employment
B.Why prices are rising
C.Was demonetisation justified
D.All of the above

118

Which of the following is not a macro variable ?

A.Wholesale price index
B.Output of firm
C.Aggregate demand
D.Aggregate supply

119

In free market economy, the allocation of resources is determined by ......

A.Votes by consumers
B.A central planning authority
C.Consumer preference
D.The level of profits of firms

120

Central economic problems are the problems of a.

A.Market economy
B.Socialist economy
C.Mixed economy
D.All of these

121

........... is a system in which people earn livelihood to fulfil their wants.

A.Abroad
B.Market
C.Economy
D.Village

122

An economy is broadly classified as.

A.Market economy
B.Centrally planned economy
C.Mixed economy
D.All of these

123

The problem of what to produce is related with.

A.Types of goods to be produced
B.Types of production technique to be used
C.Quantity of goods to be produced
D.Both (a) and (c)

124

............ is the problem which is concerned with the distribution of national income among those who have helped to produce it.

A.How to produce?
B.What to produce?
C.Why to produce?
D.For whom to produce?

125

The causes of economic problem include.

A.Human wants are unlimited
B.Economic resources are limited
C.Resources have alternative uses
D.All of the above

126

Indian economy is a mixed economy because.

A.Agriculture and industry have both simultaneously developed in India
B.Agriculture and industry have both developed in the public sector
C.Private ownership and public ownership over means of production co-exist
D.None of the above

127

Which of the following statements is true ?

A.Economic problems arises only due to scarcity of resources
B.If new technologies are constantly evolved. Central problems can be solved to the fullest
C.Economic problem of How to Produce is the problem of choice between labour intensive technique or capital intensive techniques
D.Opportunity cost is the cost of second-best alternative

128

Economics cost is equal to.

A.Accounting cost
B.Opportunity cost
C.Sum of accounting cost and opportunity cost
D.Difference of accounting cost and opportunity cost

129

Choose the correct statement from the given below.

A.In a centrally planned economy, economics decisions are governed by profit motive as per decision of Central Bank of the country
B.Normative statements are those which pass value judgement at economic problems as they are
C.There is limited degree of aggregation present in microeconomics whereas macroeconomics has greater degree of aggregation
D.Central problems of an economy and problem of choice are two different issues that only mixed economies faces

130

The following headline appeared in “Hindustan Times” dated 25th July, 2018, “Getting insurance for rain damage cars an uphill task”. This statement is.

A.Positive Economics
B.Normative Economics
C.General Economics
D.None of these

131

Which of the following laws regulates the working conditions of workers in factories?

A.Factories Act, 1948
B.Payment of Wages Act, 1936
C.Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
D.Minimum Wages Act, 1948

132

The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, is applicable to which of the following?

A.Only public sector industries
B.Only private sector industries
C.Both public and private sector industries
D.None of the above

133

Which of the following Acts regulates payment of wages to workers?

A.Factories Act, 1948
B.Payment of Wages Act, 1936
C.Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
D.Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923

134

The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act was enacted in which year?

A.1947
B.1952
C.1961
D.1976

135

The Trade Unions Act, 1926, provides for the registration of:

A.Cooperative societies
B.Employers’ associations
C.Labour unions
D.Industrial disputes

136

Labour laws in India can be broadly categorized into how many types?

A.Two
B.Three
C.Four
D.Five

137

Which of the following is NOT a type of labour law?

A.Protective labour laws
B.Industrial relations laws
C.Taxation laws
D.Social security laws

138

Which of the following falls under Industrial Relations Laws?

A.Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
B.Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948
C.Minimum Wages Act, 1948
D.Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923

139

The Social Security category of labour laws includes which of the following?

A.Employees’ Provident Funds Act, 1952
B.Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
C.Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
D.All of the above

140

Protective labour laws are meant to protect which of the following?

A.Women workers
B.Child labour
C.Workers’ health and safety
D.All of the above

141

Which Act prohibits the employment of children in hazardous occupations?

A.Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
B.Factories Act, 1948
C.Mines Act, 1952
D.Trade Unions Act, 1926

142

Under which Act are working hours and rest intervals for workers defined?

A.Factories Act, 1948
B.Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
C.Payment of Wages Act, 1936
D.Trade Unions Act, 1926

143

Which labour law governs employment conditions in commercial establishments?

A.Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
B.Shops and Establishments Act
C.Employees’ Provident Funds Act, 1952
D.Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923

144

Which of the following industries is covered under the Mines Act, 1952?

A.Agricultural Industry
B.Construction Industry
C.Mining Industry
D.Textile Industry

145

The Plantation Labour Act, 1951, regulates working conditions in which sector?

A.Manufacturing
B.Agriculture
C.Tea, coffee, and rubber plantations
D.IT industry

146

Which Act regulates employment conditions in IT companies?

A.Industrial Disputes Act
B.Shops and Establishments Act
C.Minimum Wages Act
D.Employees’ State Insurance Act

147

Which Act is applicable for construction workers' welfare?

A.The Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1996
B.Industrial Disputes Act
C.Minimum Wages Act
D.Employees’ Provident Funds Act

148

The Unorganized Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008, covers which sector?

A.IT sector
B.Agriculture and informal sectors
C.Public sector enterprises
D.None of the above

149

Which Act governs safety measures for dock workers?

A.Dock Workers (Safety, Health and Welfare) Act, 1986
B.Factories Act, 1948
C.Minimum Wages Act
D.Employees’ State Insurance Act

150

Labour laws apply to which of the following sectors?

A.Organized sector
B.Unorganized sector
C.Both organized and unorganized sectors
D.None of the above

APPSC Degree Lecturer Commerce (Paper-II) Exam - English

Commerce

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