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Latest APPSC Draughtsman Grade II (Technical Assistant) Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Studies & Mental Ability
Question Bank APPSC Draughtsman Grade-II Paper-1 Exam - English
General Studies & Mental Ability
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 17 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 18 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 20 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 21 :
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
A.5
B.6
C.7
D.8
Q 22 :
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
A.2001
B.2010
C.2012
D.2011
Q 23 :
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
A.1 only
B.1 and 2
C.1 and 3
D.1,2, and 3
Q 24 :
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
A.2007-12
B.2008-13
C.2010-15
D.2012-17
Q 25 :
A closed economy is an economy in which
A.the money supply is fully controlled
B.deficit financing takes place
C.only exports take place
D.neither exports nor imports take place
Q 26 :
Consider the following statements
1. a plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
2. a plan for a fixed number of years, say 34, and 5
3. it is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
4. A perspective plan for 10,15 or 20 years
Which of the above are correct
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.1,2,3 and 4
Q 27 :
In the context of Indian Economy consider the following pairs
Term Most Appropriate Description
1. Melt Down Fall in stock prices
2. Recession Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
A.1 only
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 3
D.1,2 and 3
Q 28 :
Deficit finacing means that the government borrows money from the
A.IMF
B.RBI
C.Local bodies
D.Big Businessmen
Q 29 :
In the context of India’s Five Year Plan a shift in the pattern of industrialization with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
A.4th plan
B.6th plan
C.8th plan
D.10th plan
Q 30 :
Which of the following is/are an indicator of the financial health of a country
1. GDP 2. PPP
3. FDI in a year
A.only 1
B.only 2
C.only 3
D.1,2 and 3
Q 31 :
Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission
A.Members and vice chairman of it do not have fixed working duration
B.it is not defined in Indian Constitution
C.Members do not require any minimum education
D.all of these
Q 32 :
__________ is the exofficio chairman of Planning Commission and National Development Council
A.Prime Minister
B.President
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 33 :
Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India
A.services Industry- Agriculture
B.Services- Agriculture-Industry
C.Industry-Services-Agriculture
D.Industry-Agriculture-Services
Q 34 :
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Planning Commission of India
A.Assessment of the material ,capital and human resources of the country
B.formulation of plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of country’s resources
C.public cooperation in national development
D.preparation of annual budget of the country and collection of taxes to raise capital for the implementation of the plan
Q 35 :
Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Planning Commisison
A.Rajendra Prasad
B.Jawahar Lal Nehru
C.Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
D.J.B.Kriplani
Q 36 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 37 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 38 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 39 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 40 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 41 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 42 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 43 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 44 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 45 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 46 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 47 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 48 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 49 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 50 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
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APPSC Draughtsman Grade II Exam Paper 2 Question Bank Book - English
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 52 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 53 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 54 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 55 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 56 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 57 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 58 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 59 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 60 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 61 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A.P
B.Q
C.B
D.K
E.None of these
Q 62 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A.None
B.One
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than Four
Q 63 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 64 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 65 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 66 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 67 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 68 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 69 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 70 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 71 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 72 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 73 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 74 :
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A.71
B.61
C.79
D.69
Q 75 :
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A.HID
B.SON
C.Both LAP and BUT
D.CAR
E.Both CAR and LAP
Q 76 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A.LAP
B.BUT
C.CAR
D.SON
E.HID
Q 77 :
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 78 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 79 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 80 :
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 81 :
According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?
A.Two
B.One
C.None
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 82 :
If the first letter of all the words is changed to the previous letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will have more than one vowel?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 83 :
If all the vowels (in all the words) are changed to the next letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will form meaningful English words?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 84 :
If the positions of the first and last letters of all of the words are interchanged and then the words thus formed are arranged alphabetically form left to right, which of the following will be second from the left?
A.SAT
B.DEN
C.ROD
D.PIN
E.FUN
Q 85 :
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged in alphabetical order (within the word) how many words will remain unchanged?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 86 :
If in each of the given words each alphabet is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed have the consonants changed to vowels?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.Five
Q 87 :
How many such pairs of the letters are there in the word highlighted in bold, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 88 :
If the first alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in English alphabetical series, how many meaningful English words will be formed?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.Five
Q 89 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 90 :
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 91 :
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A.Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B.Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C.Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D.Dr. Satish Dhawan
Q 92 :
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A.BARC
B.ISRO
C.DRDO
D.HAL
Q 93 :
आंध्र प्रदेश में जिलों की कुल संख्या?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 13
D. 17
Q 94 :
आंध्र प्रदेश में क्षेत्रफल की दृष्टि से सबसे बड़ा जिला कौन सा है?
A. कुरनूल
B. अनंतपुर
C. कडपा
D. नेल्लोर
Q 95 :
आंध्र प्रदेश से राजीव गांधी खेल रत्न पुरस्कार प्राप्त करने वाले पहले खिलाड़ी कौन हैं?
A. पुलेला गोपीचंद
B. कर्णम मल्लेश्वरी
C. साइना नेहवाल
D. सानिया मिर्जा
Q 96 :
1956 में हैदराबाद को राजधानी बनाये जाने से पहले कौन सा शहर आंध्र प्रदेश की राजधानी था?
A. वारंगल
B. विजयवाड़ा
C. विशाखापत्तनम
D. कुरनूल
Q 97 :
तिरुमलावेंकटेश्वर मंदिर किस जिले में स्थित है?
A. चित्तूर
B. कृष्ण
C. कुरनूल
D. विजयनगरम
Q 98 :
महाभारत का तेलुगु भाषा में अनुवाद करने वाले पहले व्यक्ति कौन थे?
A. पोथना
B. तिक्कना
C. नन्नय्या
D. वेमना
Q 99 :
विजयनगर साम्राज्य पर शासन करने वाला पहला राजवंश कौन सा था?
A. तुलुवा राजवंश
B. सालुव राजवंश
C. संगम राजवंश
D. अराविडु राजवंश
Q 100 :
तेलुगु साहित्य के कवित्रय (तीन महान कवि) कहे जाने वाले समूह में कौन नहीं है?
A. नन्नया
B. टिकन्ना
C. येर्राप्रगडा
D. पोथाना
Q 101 :
क्षेत्रफल की दृष्टि से आंध्र प्रदेश का सबसे बड़ा शहर कौन सा है?
A. हैदराबाद
B. विजयवाड़ा
C. विशाखापत्तनम
D. गुंटूर
Q 102 :
आंध्र विश्वविद्यालय की स्थापना कब हुई?
A. 1920
B. 1926
C. 1930
D. 1937
Q 103 :
Who was the founder of Indian National Congress?
A.Dadabhai Naoroji
B.A.O. Hume
C.W.C. Bonnerjee
D.Tilak
Q 104 :
Indian National Congress was established in?
A.1885
B.1905
C.1919
D.1920
Q 105 :
Partition of Bengal took place in?
A.1905
B.1903
C.1911
D.1919
Q 106 :
Swadeshi Movement started due to?
A.Partition of Bengal
B.Jallianwala Bagh
C.Simon Commission
D.Quit India
Q 107 :
Who led Rampa Rebellion?
A.Potti Sriramulu
B.Tanguturi Prakasam
C.Alluri Sitarama Raju
D.N.G. Ranga
Q 108 :
Rampa Rebellion occurred during?
A.1918
B.1930
C.1922–24
D.1942
Q 109 :
Who is known as Andhra Kesari?
A.N.G. Ranga
B.Veeresalingam
C.Tanguturi Prakasam
D.Sriramulu
Q 110 :
Non-Cooperation Movement started in?
A.1919
B.1922
C.1920
D.1930
Q 111 :
Civil Disobedience Movement began in?
A.1928
B.1935
C.1932
D.1930
Q 112 :
Quit India Movement started in?
A.1940
B.1942
C.1941
D.1945
Q 113 :
Who sacrificed life for Andhra State?
A.Prakasam
B.Potti Sriramulu
C.N.G. Ranga
D.Nehru
Q 114 :
Andhra State was formed in?
A.1953
B.1950
C.1956
D.1960
Q 115 :
Andhra Pradesh was formed in?
A.1956
B.1955
C.1953
D.1962
Q 116 :
First Chief Minister of Andhra State?
A.NTR
B.Prakasam
C.Sanjiva Reddy
D.Ranga
Q 117 :
First linguistic state in India?
A.Gujarat
B.Kerala
C.Punjab
D.Andhra
Q 118 :
Who gave Drain Theory?
A.Dadabhai Naoroji
B.Gandhi
C.Tilak
D.Bose
Q 119 :
Who started Home Rule Movement?
A.Tilak & Annie Besant
B.Gandhi
C.Nehru
D.Bose
Q 120 :
Annie Besant worked mainly in?
A.Madras
B.Punjab
C.Bengal
D.Gujarat
Q 121 :
Zamindari system introduced by?
A.Marathas
B.Mughals
C.British
D.Portuguese
Q 122 :
Ryotwari system introduced by?
A.Cornwallis
B.Dalhousie
C.Munro
D.Curzon
Q 123 :
Permanent Settlement introduced in?
A.1780
B.1805
C.1793
D.1813
Q 124 :
Sati abolished in?
A.1829
B.1835
C.1840
D.1856
Q 125 :
Who abolished Sati?
A.Bentinck
B.Curzon
C.Dalhousie
D.Hastings
Q 126 :
Widow Remarriage Act passed in?
A.1850
B.1861
C.1856
D.1870
Q 127 :
Brahmo Samaj founded by?
A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B.Vivekananda
C.Tilak
D.Gandhi
Q 128 :
Arya Samaj founded by?
A.Roy
B.Tagore
C.Vivekananda
D.Dayanand Saraswati
Q 129 :
Ramakrishna Mission founded by?
A.Roy
B.Vivekananda
C.Gandhi
D.Bose
Q 130 :
Aligarh Movement started by?
A.Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
B.Jinnah
C.Gandhi
D.Nehru
Q 131 :
Muslim League founded in?
A.1905
B.1916
C.1911
D.1906
Q 132 :
Lucknow Pact signed in?
A.1916
B.1915
C.1917
D.1919
Q 133 :
Disaster management is best defined as?
A.Only response after disaster
B.Relief distribution only
C.Systematic process of planning, organizing and managing disasters
D.Hazard prediction only
Q 134 :
The main objective of disaster management is?
A.Increase disaster occurrence
B.Stop natural processes
C.Minimize disaster impact
D.Increase hazards
Q 135 :
The Indian Navy recently received its second indigenous Diving Support Vessel (DSV). What is its name?
A.Nistar
B.Nipun
C.INS Vikrant
D.INS Arihant
Q 136 :
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which date?
A.27 July 2026
B.29 July 2026
C.31 July 2026
D.30 July 2026
Q 137 :
Who won the silver medal in the men’s javelin throw at the Commonwealth Games 2026 held in Glasgow?
A.Yash Vir Singh
B.Neeraj Chopra
C.Kishore Jena
D.Rohit Yadav
Q 138 :
India became which numbered WTO member to accept the Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (as per recent updates)?
A.120th
B.121st
C.123rd
D.125th
Q 139 :
Which organisation released the Global Tiger Recovery Report 2026?
A.UNEP
B.WWF
C.Global Tiger Forum
D.IUCN
Q 140 :
India is described in Article 1 of the Constitution as a?
A.Union of States
B.Federation of Provinces
C.Confederation of States
D.League of States
Q 141 :
The distribution of legislative powers between the Union and States is primarily contained in the?
A.Seventh Schedule
B.Sixth Schedule
C.Fifth Schedule
D.Eighth Schedule
Q 142 :
The Seventh Schedule contains how many legislative lists?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Four
D.Five
Q 143 :
The Indian economy is generally classified as a?
A.Pure capitalist economy
B.Subsistence economy only
C.Pure socialist economy
D.Mixed economy
Q 144 :
A mixed economy is characterized by the coexistence of?
A.Agriculture and industry only
B.Rural and urban population only
C.Public and private sectors
D.Domestic and foreign trade only
Q 145 :
One major characteristic traditionally associated with a developing economy is?
A.Low per capita income
B.Zero population growth
C.Complete industrialization
D.Absence of agriculture
Q 146 :
What is the name of the next phase of India’s semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?
A.Chip India 3.0
B.India Chip Mission
C.Semicon 2.0
D.Semiconductor Bharat
Q 147 :
Which country conferred its highest honour for foreign leaders, the ‘Oliy Darajali Do‘stlik Order’, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
A.Kazakhstan
B.Kyrgyzstan
C.Uzbekistan
D.Tajikistan
Q 148 :
Where was the 2026 SCO Leaders’ Summit held?
A.Tashkent
B.Bishkek
C.Dushanbe
D.Astana
Q 149 :
India and Uzbekistan recently upgraded their bilateral relationship to which level?
A.Strategic Partnership
B.Economic Partnership
C.Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
D.Defence Partnership
Q 150 :
Which two organisations signed an MoU to promote smart domestic PNG meters?