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Question for APPSC Executive Officer Grade III - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 150 · Questions: 150 · Max Marks: 150

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Latest APPSC Executive Officer Grade III Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Studies & Mental Ability

Question Bank APPSC Executive Officer Grade III Exam Paper 1 - English

General Studies & Mental Ability

Q 1 :

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these

Q 2 :

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None

Q 3 :

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Q 4 :

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 5 :

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 6 :

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 7 :

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Q 8 :

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 9 :

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 10 :

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Q 11 :

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Q 12 :

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG

Q 13 :

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM

Q 14 :

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four

Q 15 :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three

Q 16 :

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 17 :

If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four

Q 18 :

If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG

Q 19 :

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?

A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK

Q 20 :

If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 21 :

3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?

A.71
B.61
C.79
D.69

Q 22 :

If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?

A.HID
B.SON
C.Both LAP and BUT
D.CAR
E.Both CAR and LAP

Q 23 :

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?

A.LAP
B.BUT
C.CAR
D.SON
E.HID

Q 24 :

If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 25 :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?

A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three

Q 26 :

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55

Q 27 :

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7

Q 28 :

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600

Q 29 :

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Q 30 :

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A.3⁶
B.3⁸
C.3¹⁰
D.9⁶

Q 31 :

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Q 32 :

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5

Q 33 :

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say

Q 34 :

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30

Q 35 :

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121

Q 36 :

How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.

(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.

A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Q 37 :

The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.

A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Q 38 :

What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.

A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Q 39 :

What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.

A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Q 40 :

What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.

A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Q 41 :

Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.

A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Q 42 :

What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.

A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Q 43 :

What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.

A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Q 44 :

What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.

A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Q 45 :

How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.

A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Q 46 :

Quantity I: On selling 17 balls at Rs720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is :
Quantity II: A man buys a cycle for Rs 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. The selling price is :

A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I Quantity II
C.Quantity II Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

Q 47 :

Quantity I : A and B together can do a piece of work in 4 days. If A alone can do the same work in 6 days, then B alone can do the same work in ?
Quantity II : A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it ?

A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I â€‹ Quantity II
C.Quantity II Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

Q 48 :

Quantity I : ‘x’ : Train ‘A’ running at a speed of 25 m/sec crosses Train ‘Z’ coming from opposite direction running at a speed of 15 m/sec in 12 seonds. Length of Train ‘A’ is twice of train ‘B’. Length of train ‘A’ is ‘x’
Quantity II : 160 meters.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation

A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C.Quantity II > Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

Q 49 :

Quantity I : ‘x’ : A pipe alone can fill a cistern in 60 minutes. But due to leakage pipe filled only 80% of the cistern in 1 hour. ‘x’ is the capacity of cistern in liters if due to leakage 60 liter can be leaked out in 1 hour.
Quantity II : 250 liters
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation

A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C.Quantity II > Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

Q 50 :

Average weight of four persons is 67 kg.These persons are A, B, C and D. When E is included in the group, average weight decreases by 2 kg. What is the weight of A? A’s weight is 4 kg more than B’s weight.
(I) When B is displaced by another person F, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 64 kg.
(II) When D is displaced by another person G, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 65 kg.

A.Statement(I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

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General Studies & Mental Ability

Q 51 :

The 5th Kautilya Economic Conclave 2026 was held in which city?

A.New Delhi
B.Mumbai
C.Hyderabad
D.Bengaluru

Q 52 :

What was the theme of the 5th Kautilya Economic Conclave 2026?

A.Future of Global Trade
B.Resilience in an Age of Flux
C.Digital India 2047
D.Inclusive Growth

Q 53 :

The Kautilya Economic Conclave is organised in partnership with which Union Ministry?

A.Ministry of Commerce
B.Ministry of External Affairs
C.Ministry of Finance
D.Ministry of Statistics

Q 54 :

ISRO's GSLV-F17/EOS-05 mission was launched in:

A.January 2026
B.March 2026
C.December 2026
D.September 2026

Q 55 :

PSLV-C62/EOS-N1 was launched in:

A.January 2026
B.February 2026
C.June 2026
D.September 2026

Q 56 :

India's first human spaceflight programme is called:

A.Gaganyaan
B.Aditya
C.Chandrayaan
D.Shukrayaan

Q 57 :

The Human Rated LVM3 is associated primarily with:

A.Navigation satellites
B.Gaganyaan
C.Weather forecasting
D.Lunar rover communication

Q 58 :

Aditya-L1 is India's mission to study the:

A.Moon
B.Mars
C.Venus
D.Sun

Q 59 :

NISAR is a joint satellite mission of ISRO and:

A.NASA
B.ESA
C.JAXA
D.Roscosmos

Q 60 :

NISAR is primarily designed for:

A.Lunar exploration
B.Human spaceflight
C.Earth observation
D.Deep-space communication

Q 61 :

Chandrayaan-3 achieved a soft landing near the:

A.Lunar north pole
B.Lunar equator only
C.Lunar south polar region
D.Far side of Mars

Q 62 :

The Chandrayaan-3 lander was named:

A.Pragyan
B.Rohini
C.Vikram
D.Dhruv

Q 63 :

The Chandrayaan-3 rover was named:

A.Pragyan
B.Vikram
C.Aryabhata
D.Aditya

Q 64 :

India's first solar observatory mission is:

A.Astrosat
B.RISAT
C.INSAT-3DS
D.Aditya-L1

Q 65 :

The L1 point used by Aditya-L1 lies between:

A.Earth and Moon
B.Earth and Sun
C.Sun and Mars
D.Earth and Venus

Q 66 :

SpaDeX is associated with technology for:

A.Nuclear fusion
B.Deep-sea mining
C.Weather modification
D.Space docking

Q 67 :

The headquarters of ISRO is in:

A.Bengaluru
B.Hyderabad
C.Chennai
D.New Delhi

Q 68 :

Sriharikota, India's principal satellite launch centre, is located in:

A.Kerala
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Andhra Pradesh
D.Odisha

Q 69 :

The Satish Dhawan Space Centre is situated at:

A.Sriharikota
B.Tirupati
C.Visakhapatnam
D.Vijayawada

Q 70 :

The G20 is primarily a forum concerned with:

A.Military defence
B.Global economic cooperation
C.Cultural heritage only
D.Space exploration only

Q 71 :

The headquarters of the International Monetary Fund is in:

A.Geneva
B.Washington, D.

Q 72 :

The headquarters of the World Trade Organization is located in:

A.Geneva
B.Vienna
C.Brussels
D.London

Q 73 :

The United Nations headquarters is located in:

A.Paris
B.New York
C.Geneva
D.Washington, D.

Q 74 :

The World Health Organization headquarters is in:

A.The Hague
B.Rome
C.Paris
D.Geneva

Q 75 :

COP conferences are mainly associated with:

A.Climate change
B.International taxation
C.Global defence
D.International sports

Q 76 :

The Paris Agreement is associated with:

A.Nuclear disarmament
B.International trade
C.Climate change
D.Space law

Q 77 :

India's target year for achieving net-zero emissions is:

A.2070
B.2040
C.2050
D.2030

Q 78 :

The International Solar Alliance was jointly initiated by India and:

A.France
B.Germany
C.Japan
D.Brazil

Q 79 :

The International Solar Alliance headquarters is in:

A.Chennai
B.Mumbai
C.Gurugram
D.Jaipur

Q 80 :

UPI was developed by:

A.NPCI
B.RBI alone
C.SEBI
D.NABARD

Q 81 :

NPCI stands for:

A.National Public Credit Institution
B.National Payments Corporation of India
C.National Policy Council of India
D.New Payments Council of India

Q 82 :

India's central bank digital currency is commonly known as:

A.Digital Rupee
B.Digital Dollar
C.e-Gold
D.Bharat Coin

Q 83 :

The Digital Rupee is issued by:

A.SEBI
B.SBI
C.RBI
D.Ministry of Commerce

Q 84 :

ONDC stands for:

A.Open National Data Centre
B.Online National Development Council
C.Open Network for Digital Commerce
D.Online Network for Domestic Credit

Q 85 :

DigiLocker primarily provides:

A.Digital document storage and verification
B.Stock trading
C.Satellite navigation
D.Agricultural loans

Q 86 :

Aadhaar is issued by:

A.RBI
B.UIDAI
C.SEBI
D.NITI Aayog

Q 87 :

UIDAI stands for:

A.Union Identification Agency of India
B.Unified Identity Department of India
C.Universal Information Authority of India
D.Unique Identification Authority of India

Q 88 :

Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY mainly provides:

A.Crop insurance
B.Health coverage
C.Housing loans
D.Pension benefits

Q 89 :

PM-KISAN provides financial assistance primarily to:

A.Industrial workers
B.Government employees
C.Farmers
D.Students

Q 90 :

PM Vishwakarma primarily supports:

A.IT companies
B.Large corporations
C.Foreign investors
D.Traditional artisans and craftspeople

Q 91 :

Startup India was launched primarily to promote:

A.Coal production
B.Imports
C.Government employment
D.Entrepreneurship

Q 92 :

Make in India primarily aims to increase:

A.Gold imports
B.Manufacturing
C.Agricultural imports
D.Foreign tourism only

Q 93 :

Production Linked Incentive schemes are intended mainly to boost:

A.Forest cover alone
B.Rainfall
C.Bank deposits
D.Domestic manufacturing

Q 94 :

The National Green Hydrogen Mission relates to production and use of:

A.Diesel
B.Coal gas
C.LPG
D.Hydrogen from low-carbon sources

Q 95 :

Green hydrogen is generally produced using renewable electricity and:

A.Electrolysis
B.Distillation of petroleum
C.Coal combustion
D.Nuclear fission only

Q 96 :

PM Gati Shakti is principally related to:

A.Integrated infrastructure planning
B.Free food distribution
C.School education
D.Banking regulation

Q 97 :

Bharatmala Pariyojana mainly concerns:

A.Airports only
B.Ports only
C.Highway development
D.Irrigation only

Q 98 :

Sagarmala programme is mainly associated with:

A.Space exploration
B.Mountain roads
C.Port-led development
D.Rural housing

Q 99 :

The Dedicated Freight Corridors are intended to improve:

A.Urban housing
B.Inland fisheries
C.Air passenger travel
D.Rail freight transportation

Q 100 :

The National Logistics Policy seeks primarily to improve:

A.Monsoon forecasting
B.Logistics efficiency
C.Defence recruitment
D.Wildlife census

Q 101 :

Amaravati is associated with the capital region of:

A.Andhra Pradesh
B.Telangana
C.Odisha
D.Karnataka

Q 102 :

Visakhapatnam is situated on the coast of the:

A.Arabian Sea
B.Gulf of Kutch
C.Indian Ocean west coast
D.Bay of Bengal

Q 103 :

Andhra Pradesh was bifurcated in 2014 to create:

A.Jharkhand
B.Telangana
C.Chhattisgarh
D.Uttarakhand

Q 104 :

Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act was enacted in:

A.2014
B.2004
C.2000
D.2019

Q 105 :

Polavaram Project is located on the river:

A.Krishna
B.Godavari
C.Penna
D.Tungabhadra

Q 106 :

Polavaram is primarily a:

A.Seaport
B.Thermal power station only
C.Multipurpose irrigation project
D.Airport

Q 107 :

The major port located in Andhra Pradesh is:

A.Kandla
B.Kochi
C.Visakhapatnam
D.Marmagao

Q 108 :

Krishnapatnam Port is in:

A.Andhra Pradesh
B.Gujarat
C.Kerala
D.Maharashtra

Q 109 :

Gangavaram Port is located near:

A.Visakhapatnam
B.Tirupati
C.Kurnool
D.Anantapur

Q 110 :

Sri City industrial zone is located close to the border of Andhra Pradesh and:

A.Karnataka
B.Telangana
C.Odisha
D.Tamil Nadu

Q 111 :

Sri City is particularly known as a:

A.Wildlife sanctuary
B.Special Economic Zone and industrial hub
C.Hill station
D.River valley project

Q 112 :

Tirupati is internationally famous for:

A.Venkateswara Temple
B.Jagannath Temple
C.Golden Temple
D.Meenakshi Temple

Q 113 :

Tirumala hills form part of the:

A.Western Ghats
B.Eastern Ghats
C.Aravallis
D.Himalayas

Q 114 :

Kuchipudi, a classical dance form, originated in:

A.Punjab
B.Kerala
C.Assam
D.Andhra Pradesh

Q 115 :

Kuchipudi village is located in which district region of Andhra Pradesh?

A.Anantapur region
B.Rayalaseema
C.Srikakulam region
D.Krishna region

Q 116 :

Andhra Pradesh is one of India's leading producers of:

A.Apples
B.Marine products
C.Saffron
D.Tea

Q 117 :

Aquaculture is particularly important in which Andhra Pradesh region?

A.Coastal Andhra
B.Himalayan region
C.Thar region
D.Malwa plateau

Q 118 :

The Krishna-Godavari Basin is significant for reserves of:

A.Uranium only
B.Petroleum and natural gas
C.Gold only
D.Diamond only

Q 119 :

Kakinada is important for:

A.Himalayan tourism
B.Port and industrial activity
C.Tea cultivation
D.Desert farming

Q 120 :

The major steel plant in Visakhapatnam is popularly known as:

A.Salem Steel
B.Bhilai Steel
C.Bokaro Steel
D.Vizag Steel

Q 121 :

Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited is associated with:

A.Bhilai Steel Plant
B.Visakhapatnam Steel Plant
C.Rourkela Steel Plant
D.Bokaro Steel Plant

Q 122 :

Hindustan Shipyard Limited is located at:

A.Kolkata
B.Mumbai
C.Visakhapatnam
D.Kochi

Q 123 :

The Eastern Naval Command headquarters is at:

A.Port Blair
B.Chennai
C.Kolkata
D.Visakhapatnam

Q 124 :

Andhra Pradesh's long coastline makes the state particularly suitable for:

A.Port-based industries
B.Alpine farming
C.Glacier tourism
D.Tundra agriculture

Q 125 :

Lepakshi is famous for its:

A.Vijayanagara-era temple architecture
B.Mughal fort
C.Buddhist cave only
D.Portuguese church

Q 126 :

The famous Veerabhadra Temple is located at:

A.Lepakshi
B.Amaravati
C.Vijayawada
D.Nellore

Q 127 :

Amaravati is historically associated with:

A.Judaism
B.Sikhism
C.Zoroastrianism
D.Buddhism

Q 128 :

Nagarjunakonda is noted mainly for:

A.Portuguese forts
B.Mughal palaces
C.Buddhist remains
D.Chola naval bases

Q 129 :

The Krishna River flows into the:

A.Arabian Sea
B.Bay of Bengal
C.Gulf of Kutch
D.Rann of Kutch

Q 130 :

The Godavari River empties into the:

A.Arabian Sea
B.Bay of Bengal
C.Red Sea
D.Gulf of Mannar only

Q 131 :

Vijayawada lies on the banks of the:

A.Penna
B.Godavari
C.Krishna
D.Cauvery

Q 132 :

Prakasam Barrage is built across the:

A.Penna
B.Godavari
C.Krishna
D.Vamsadhara

Q 133 :

Dowleswaram Barrage is associated with the:

A.Godavari
B.Krishna
C.Penna
D.Nagavali

Q 134 :

Sir Arthur Cotton is closely associated with irrigation works on the:

A.Narmada
B.Godavari
C.Sutlej
D.Beas

Q 135 :

Araku Valley is located in the:

A.Satpuras
B.Western Ghats
C.Vindhyas
D.Eastern Ghats

Q 136 :

Borra Caves are located near:

A.Nellore
B.Vijayawada
C.Araku Valley
D.Machilipatnam

Q 137 :

Pulicat Lake is shared by Andhra Pradesh and:

A.Karnataka
B.Odisha
C.Tamil Nadu
D.Kerala

Q 138 :

Pulicat is primarily a:

A.Freshwater Himalayan lake
B.Brackish-water lagoon
C.Artificial reservoir
D.Crater lake

Q 139 :

Kolleru Lake lies between the deltas of:

A.Krishna and Godavari
B.Krishna and Cauvery
C.Godavari and Mahanadi
D.Penna and Cauvery

Q 140 :

Kolleru is primarily a:

A.Salt lake
B.Freshwater lake
C.Crater lake
D.Glacial lake

Q 141 :

Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary is noted for its:

A.Conifer forests
B.Alpine meadows
C.Desert vegetation
D.Mangroves

Q 142 :

The Papikonda National Park lies along the:

A.Cauvery River
B.Krishna River
C.Penna River
D.Godavari River

Q 143 :

Seshachalam Hills are well known for:

A.Deodar
B.Red sanders
C.Sundari mangrove
D.Saffron

Q 144 :

Red sanders is naturally associated particularly with:

A.Assam
B.Punjab
C.Andhra Pradesh
D.Haryana

Q 145 :

The Indian Institute of Petroleum and Energy is located at:

A.Guntur
B.Kurnool
C.Tirupati
D.Visakhapatnam

Q 146 :

Andhra Pradesh's major IT and industrial coastal city is:

A.Madanapalle
B.Kadapa
C.Kurnool
D.Visakhapatnam

Q 147 :

The Asian Games are organised under the authority of the:

A.FIDE
B.FIFA
C.ICC
D.Olympic Council of Asia

Q 148 :

The IMF publishes which well-known global economic report?

A.World Economic Outlook
B.Human Development Report
C.World Investment Report only
D.Global Hunger Index

Q 149 :

UNDP publishes the:

A.Global Financial Stability Report
B.World Economic Outlook
C.World Trade Report
D.Human Development Report

Q 150 :

The Sustainable Development Goals have a target year of:

A.2025
B.2030
C.2040
D.2050

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