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Latest APPSC Extension Officer Grade 1 Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Studies & Mental Ability
Question Bank APPSC Extension Officer (Grade 1) Exam Paper I - English
General Studies & Mental Ability
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 17 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 18 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 20 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 21 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 22 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 23 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 24 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A.having a constant phase difference
B.of equal wavelength
C.of equal speed
D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 25 :
Three resistors 1 Γ’βΒ¦, 2 Γ’βΒ¦, 3Γ’βΒ¦ resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Γ’βΒ¦ resistor is -
A.0.75 A
B.1 A
C.2 A
D.1.5 A
Q 26 :
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
A.anywhere
B.emitter-collector
C.collector-base
D.base-emitter
Q 27 :
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
A.2 and 4
B.1 only
C.3 and 4
D.4 only
Q 28 :
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
A.S1,S2 and S4
B.S2 and S4
C.S4 only
D.S3 only
Q 29 :
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
A.low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B.high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C.high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D.low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Q 30 :
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
A.same in all the medium
B.lesser in rarer medium
C.lesser in denser medium
D.independent of the medium
Q 31 :
For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to
A.(2Γ°ΒΕβΉ + 1)λ
B.2nΓ°ΒΕβΉ
C.nλ
D.n
Q 32 :
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
A.multimeter
B.voltmeter
C.voltameter
D.potentiometer
Q 33 :
A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
A.Both K and L increase
B.Both K and L remain unchanged
C.K remains constant, L increases
D.K increases but L remains constant
Q 34 :
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
A.Gas constant (R)
B.Pressure (p)
C.Volume (V)
D.Temperature (T)
Q 35 :
An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be
A.300 m
B.3 km
C.15 m
D.15 km
Q 36 :
The amount of energy released when one microgram of matter is annihilated is
A.25 kWh
B.9 x 1010 kWh
C.3 x 1010 kWh
D.0.5 x 105 kWh
Q 37 :
The number of significant figures in the numbers 4.8000 x 104 48000.50 are respectively
A.5 and 6
B.5 and 7
C.2 and 7
D.2 and 6
Q 38 :
β-decay means emission of electron from
A.innermost electron orbit
B.a stable nucleus
C.outermost electron orbit
D.radioactive nucleus
Q 39 :
An electric heater rated 220 V and 550 W is connected to AC mains. The current drawn by it is
A.0.8 A
B.2.5 A
C.0.4 A
D.1.25 A
Q 40 :
A string is wound round the rim of a mounted flywheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord. Neglecting friction and mass of the string, the angular acceleration of the wheel is
A.50 s-2
B.25 s-2
C.12.5 s-2
D.6.25 s-2
Q 41 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 42 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 43 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 44 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A.28 mm
B.56 mm
C.70 mm
D.140 mm
Q 45 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A.1 M solution of glucose
B.0.05 M solution of glucose
C.6% solution of glucose
D.25% solution of glucose
Q 46 :
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B.to minimise the snow fall
C.to minimise pollution
D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Q 47 :
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A.AB2
B.A2B
C.AB
D.AB3
Q 48 :
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B.decreases electron density at meta position
C.increases electron density at meta position
D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
Q 49 :
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A.PCI5
B.PCI3
C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Q 50 :
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
B.same as in C2H4
C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
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APPSC Extension Officer (Grade 1) Exam Paper I Question Bank Book - English
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 52 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 53 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 54 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 55 :
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Q 56 :
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Q 57 :
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
A.B,C and D
B.A and D
C.B and D
D.A, B and C
Q 58 :
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds. Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Q 59 :
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
A.Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B.Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C.Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D.Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Q 60 :
Stoma opens, when
A.guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B.guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C.guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D.guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Q 61 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 62 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 63 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 64 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 65 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 66 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 67 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 68 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 69 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 70 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 71 :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 72 :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 73 :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 74 :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 75 :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 76 :
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 77 :
What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 78 :
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 79 :
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 80 :
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 81 :
What is the capital of Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Hyderabad
B.Amravati
C.Guntur District
D.Mangalagiri
Q 82 :
What is the official language of Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Rajasthani
B.Malyalam
C.Gujarati
D.Telugu
Q 83 :
How many districts are there in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.First
B.Eleventh
C.Thirteen
D.Fifteen
Q 84 :
What is the population of Andhra Pradesh ?
A.8.46 Crores
B.52.88 Millions
C.141.7 Crores
D.49.67 Million
Q 85 :
Which is the largest city in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Amaravati
B.Visakhapatnam
C.Nellore
D.Kurnool
Q 86 :
What is the literacy rate in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.67.35% (2022 census)
B.75.87 % (2020 census)
C.67.40 % (2019 census)
D.67.02% (2011 census)
Q 87 :
What is the total area of Andhra Pradesh ?
A.2,76,754 sq. km2
B.160,205 km²
C.112,077 km²
D.342,239 sq km2
Q 88 :
Which is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Jindhagada
B.Anamudi
C.Deomali
D.Mahendragiri
Q 89 :
Which is the longest river in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Godavari
B.Penna
C.Ganga
D.Krishna
Q 90 :
What is the main source of income in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Investments
B.Interest
C.Agriculture and Industry
D.Business income
Q 91 :
Which river forms the boundary between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana ?
A.Krishna
B.Godavari
C.Tungabhadra
D.Penna
Q 92 :
What is the highest peak in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Anaimudi
B.Mahendragiri
C.Arma Konda
D.Kailasagiri
Q 93 :
The Coromandel Coast is located in which part of Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Northern
B.Southern
C.Eastern
D.Western
Q 94 :
Which of the following districts is not part of the Rayalaseema region ?
A.Anantapur
B.Kurnool
C.Kadapa
D.Visakhapatnam
Q 95 :
Which one of the following rivers does not flow through Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Krishna
B.Godavari
C.Tungabhadra
D.Cauvery
Q 96 :
Which of the following wildlife sanctuaries is located in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Bandipur National Park
B.Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
C.Bandhavgarh National Park
D.Jim Corbett National Park
Q 97 :
Which one of the following is not a port in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Visakhapatnam Port
B.Krishnapatnam Port
C.Kakinada Port
D.Kolkata Port
Q 98 :
Which district in Andhra Pradesh is famous for its beaches ?
A.Vijayanagaram
B.Nellore
C.Srikakulam
D.Chittoor
Q 99 :
What is the name of the largest freshwater lake in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Pulicat Lake
B.Kolleru Lake
C.Hussain Sagar Lake
D.Chilika Lake
Q 100 :
Which district in Andhra Pradesh is known for its granite reserves ?
A.Anantapur
B.Guntur
C.Prakasam
D.Srikakulam
Q 101 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 102 :
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 103 :
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A.Mahatma Gandhi
B.M.N. Roy
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 104 :
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A.1942
B.1945
C.1946
D.1947
Q 105 :
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A.15th August 1947
B.26th January 1950
C.26th November 1949
D.30th January 1948
Q 106 :
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of:
A.USA
B.UK
C.Canada
D.Australia
Q 107 :
The Indian Constitution was enforced on:
A.15th August 1947
B.26th January 1950
C.26th November 1949
D.30th January 1948
Q 108 :
The concept of the 'Rule of Law' in the Indian Constitution is derived from:
A.USA
B.UK
C.Germany
D.Canada
Q 109 :
The term 'Secular' was added to the Preamble by the:
A.42nd Amendment
B.44th Amendment
C.52nd Amendment
D.62nd Amendment
Q 110 :
The 'Directive Principles of State Policy' in the Indian Constitution were inspired by:
A.The Constitution of Canada
B.The Constitution of Ireland
C.The Constitution of Australia
D.The Constitution of USA
Q 111 :
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B.Swami Vivekananda
C.Rabindranath Tagore
D.Mahatma Gandhi
Q 112 :
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A.Kathak
B.Kuchipudi
C.Bharatanatyam
D.Odissi
Q 113 :
Which of the following is a famous festival of Kerala ?
A.Pongal
B.Onam
C.Baisakhi
D.Makar Sankranti
Q 114 :
Who wrote the Indian national anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' ?
A.Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
B.Sarojini Naidu
C.Rabindranath Tagore
D.Subramania Bharati
Q 115 :
The Ajanta Caves are located in which state ?
A.Maharashtra
B.Madhya Pradesh
C.Bihar
D.Karnataka
Q 116 :
What is the name of the traditional Indian art of hand-painting fabric with a pen ?
A.Bandhani
B.Madhubani
C.Kalamkari
D.Pattachitra
Q 117 :
Which instrument is considered as the oldest musical instrument of India ?
A.Sitar
B.Veena
C.Tabla
D.Flute
Q 118 :
Who among the following is known for his contribution to the Indian classical music as a sitar maestro ?
A.Zakir Hussain
B.L. Subramaniam
C.Ravi Shankar
D.Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
Q 119 :
Which of the following is a classical dance form of Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Kathak
B.Bharatanatyam
C.Kuchipudi
D.Manipuri
Q 120 :
The festival of lights, Diwali, is associated with which Hindu epic ?
A.Mahabharata
B.Ramayana
C.Bhagavad Gita
D.Rigveda
Q 121 :
What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?
A.Economic behavior
B.Human values and moral principles
C.Physical health
D.Political systems
Q 122 :
Which of the following is a branch of ethics that deals with the philosophical study of morality ?
A.Metaphysics
B.Aesthetics
C.Normative ethics
D.Epistemology
Q 123 :
Which ethical theory focuses on the consequences of actions to determine right from wrong ?
A.Deontology
B.Virtue ethics
C.Utilitarianism
D.Ethical egoism
Q 124 :
Who is the philosopher known for the development of deontological ethics ?
A.Aristotle
B.John Stuart Mill
C.Immanuel Kant
D.Jeremy Bentham
Q 125 :
Which ethical principle emphasizes treating others as you would like to be treated ?
A.The Golden Rule
B.The Silver Rule
C.The Platinum Rule
D.The Iron Rule
Q 126 :
In ethics, what does the term "autonomy" refer to ?
A.The obligation to help others
B.The right to self-governance and make one's own decisions
C.The principle of doing no harm
D.The practice of fairness and justice
Q 127 :
Which ethical theory is most concerned with duties and rules ?
A.Consequentialism
B.Utilitarianism
C.Virtue ethics
D.Deontology
Q 128 :
Which concept in ethics refers to the fairness in the distribution of benefits and burdens among individuals ?
A.Beneficence
B.Justice
C.Non-maleficence
D.Autonomy
Q 129 :
Who proposed the theory of the "greatest happiness principle" ?
A.John Locke
B.David Hume
C.John Stuart Mill
D.Thomas Hobbes
Q 130 :
What is the term for actions that are considered right if they promote the greatest good for the greatest number of people ?
A.Ethical relativism
B.Egoism
C.Utilitarianism
D.Existentialism
Q 131 :
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A.Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B.Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C.Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D.Dr. Satish Dhawan
Q 132 :
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A.BARC
B.ISRO
C.DRDO
D.HAL
Q 133 :
In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
A.1975
B.1965
C.1980
D.1990
Q 134 :
What is the name of India's first indigenously developed satellite launched by ISRO?
A.INSAT-1A
B.Aryabhata
C.Rohini
D.Bhaskara
Q 135 :
What is the name of India's first nuclear reactor?
A.Dhruva
B.Kamini
C.Apsara
D.Kalpakkam
Q 136 :
Which Indian space mission successfully sent a probe to Mars in its first attempt?
A.Chandrayaan-1
B.Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission)
C.Chandrayaan-2
D.Gaganyaan
Q 137 :
What was Indiaβs first nuclear test code-named?
A.Operation Shakti
B.Pokhran-I
C.Operation Smiling Buddha
D.Operation Parakram
Q 138 :
Who is considered the father of the Indian space program?
A.APJ Abdul Kalam
B.Homi Bhabha
C.Vikram Sarabhai
D.Satish Dhawan
Q 139 :
What is the name of India's first supercomputer?
A.Param 8000
B.Vikram 2000
C.Aditya
D.Aryabhata
Q 140 :
The first Indian satellite to be placed in geosynchronous orbit is:
A.GSAT-1
B.Rohini
C.INSAT-1A
D.Aryabhata
Q 141 :
On what date did India celebrate the 9th anniversary of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implementation?
A.July 1, 2026
B.June 30, 2026
C.July 2, 2026
D.June 29, 2026
Q 142 :
Which global event is India participating in with Sweden as a partner?
A.Venus Orbiter Mission 'Shukrayaan'
B.Chandrayaan-4
C.Gaganyaan crewed mission
D.Mars Orbiter Mission-2
Q 143 :
Who became India's 97th Chess Grandmaster in late June 2026?
A.Gukesh D
B.Praggnanandhaa R
C.Harshavardhan G.B.
D.Arjun Erigaisi
Q 144 :
What major merger was approved by the boards of PFC and REC Limited on June 30, 2026?
A.Merger with SBI
B.Merger into a single power financing entity
C.Merger with NTPC
D.Merger with IREDA
Q 145 :
Which initiative was launched at the Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan 2026 for rural women SHGs?
A.Lakhpati Didi App
B.Digital India Rural Scheme
C.PM Kisan Drone Yojana
D.SARAS Shakti Collection and Coffee Table Book
Q 146 :
What significant political change occurred in South Korea on July 1, 2026?
A.New Prime Minister Han Seong-sook took office
B.Presidential elections were held
C.Parliament was dissolved
D.King was crowned
Q 147 :
What was the rainfall deficit in India for June 2026, described as the driest in over a century?
A.20% below average
B.39.8% below average
C.15% above average
D.Normal rainfall
Q 148 :
Where was the GCC Conclave on Innovation 2026 held?
A.Bengaluru
B.New Delhi
C.Mumbai
D.Hyderabad
Q 149 :
Which health initiative's operational guidelines were unveiled by the Union Health Ministry around July 1, 2026?
A.Universal Health Coverage
B.Ayushman Bharat expansion only
C.TB-free India 2030
D.National Ambulance Services 2026
Q 150 :
What reform was implemented in GST 2.0 (effective from September 2025)?
