๐Ÿ“š Exam by Category
โ–พ
Question Bank

APPSC Industrial Promotion Officer Paper-1 Exam - English

Duration: 150 ยท Questions: 150 ยท Max Marks: 150 ยท Language: 1

View APPSC Industrial Promotion Officer 2026 Exam Page

General Studies & Mental Ability

1
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
  1. A.X
  2. B.W
  3. C.I
  4. D.H
2
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.SUM
  2. B.BIG
  3. C.Both BIG and THE
  4. D.FOR
  5. E.Both FOR and BIG
3
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
  1. A.AND
  2. B.FOR
  3. C.THE
  4. D.BIG
  5. E.SUM
4
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
5
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Five
  3. C.Six
  4. D.Nine
  5. E.Three
6
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
7
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
8
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.Both CAT and OWN
  2. B.Both BRU and INK
  3. C.Only CAT
  4. D.Only INK
  5. E.Only LEG
9
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
  1. A.OWN
  2. B.LEG
  3. C.BRU
  4. D.CAT
  5. E.INK
10
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
11
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.

(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
12
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
13
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
14
What is the value of x  ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
15
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years  ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
16
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
17
What is the value of a two-digit number ? 
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
18
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
19
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
20
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.                 
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
  1. A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
21
Quantity I: On selling 17 balls at Rs720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is :
Quantity II: A man buys a cycle for Rs 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. The selling price is :
  1. A.Quantity I > Quantity II
  2. B.Quantity I Quantity II
  3. C.Quantity II Quantity I
  4. D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
22
Quantity I : A and B together can do a piece of work in 4 days. If A alone can do the same work in 6 days, then B alone can do the same work in ?
Quantity II : A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it ?
  1. A.Quantity I > Quantity II
  2. B.Quantity I รขโ‚ฌโ€น Quantity II
  3. C.Quantity II Quantity I
  4. D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
23
Quantity I : ‘x’ : Train ‘A’ running at a speed of 25 m/sec crosses Train ‘Z’ coming from opposite direction running at a speed of 15 m/sec in 12 seonds. Length of Train ‘A’ is twice of train ‘B’. Length of train ‘A’ is ‘x’
Quantity II : 160 meters.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II             (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II             (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
  1. A.Quantity I > Quantity II
  2. B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
  3. C.Quantity II > Quantity I
  4. D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
24
Quantity I : ‘x’ : A pipe alone can fill a cistern in 60 minutes. But due to leakage pipe filled only 80% of the cistern in 1 hour. ‘x’ is the capacity of cistern in liters if due to leakage 60 liter can be leaked out in 1 hour.
Quantity II : 250 liters
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II            (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II            (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation 
  1. A.Quantity I > Quantity II
  2. B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
  3. C.Quantity II > Quantity I
  4. D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
25
Average weight of four persons is 67 kg.These persons are A, B, C and D. When E is included in the group, average weight decreases by 2 kg. What is the weight of A? A’s weight is 4 kg more than B’s weight.
(I) When B is displaced by another person F, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 64 kg.
(II) When D is displaced by another person G, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 65 kg.
  1. A.Statement(I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
26
Is x an integer ?
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
27
Out of the four teams A, B, C and D which team is not likely to win as per the opinion poll ?
(I) As per the opinion poll, chances of team C’s winning are more than that of team A.
รขโ‚ฌโ€น(II) As per the opinion poll team C’s chances of winning are less than that of team B but not less than that of team D, whose chances of winning are more than that of team A.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
28
A, B and C are positive integers. Is their product an even number ?
(I) A is an even number.
(II) The product of A and B is an even number and that of A and C is also an even number.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
29
What was Mr. Srinivasula’s combined income for the year 1994-1999 ? In 1994, he made Rs.10,00,000.
(I) His average yearly income for the years 1994-1999 was Rs.12,00,000.
รขโ‚ฌโ€น(II) In 1999, his income was Rs.20,00,000.
  1. A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement(I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
30
A, B, C and D made their project presentation, one on each day, on four consecutive days but not necessarily in that order. On which day did ‘C’ make his presentation ?
(1) The first presentation was made on 23rd, Tuesday and was followed by ‘D’s presentation.
รขโ‚ฌโ€น(2) ‘A’ did not make his presentation on 25th and one of them made his presentation, between A’s and B’s.
  1. A.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
  2. B.statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
  3. C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
31
What colour is K wearing ?
  1. A.Green
  2. B.Pink
  3. C.Brown
  4. D.Data inadequate
  5. E.None of these
32
What colour is P wearing ?
  1. A.Black
  2. B.Blue
  3. C.White
  4. D.Green
  5. E.None of these
33
What colours are the sisters of J and M wearing ?
  1. A.Pink & Green
  2. B.Pink & Yellow
  3. C.White & Green
  4. D.White & Pink
  5. E.None of these
34
What colour is L wearing ?
  1. A.Black
  2. B.Green
  3. C.White
  4. D.Data inadequate
  5. E.None of these
35
Which is group denoting only girls ?
  1. A.KLN
  2. B.KNO
  3. C.KLO
  4. D.Data inadequate
  5. E.None of these
36
In which factory does B work ?
  1. A.X
  2. B.Y
  3. C.X or Y
  4. D.Data inadequate
  5. E.None of these
37
Who earns the maximum ?
  1. A.H
  2. B.W
  3. C.D
  4. D.Data inadequate
  5. E.None of these
38
Who earns less than M ?
  1. A.D only
  2. B.T only
  3. C.B only
  4. D.D and T only
  5. E.None of these
39
W earns more than which of the following groups ?
  1. A.BMDT
  2. B.BMD
  3. C.BDT
  4. D.Data inadequate
  5. E.None of these
40
Which of the following groups work in factory X ?
  1. A.TBH
  2. B.WDH
  3. C.WDM
  4. D.TBM
  5. E.None of these
41
Which of the following combination is true for Q ?
  1. A.Chandigarh - Car
  2. B.Jaipur - Train
  3. C.Dehradun – Train
  4. D.Jaipur - Car
  5. E.Raipur – Train
42
Which of the following combination of person and mode is correct ?
  1. A.T – Train
  2. B.P - Car
  3. C.R - Aeroplane
  4. D.Q – Car
  5. E.S – Aeroplane
43
The person travelling to Dehradun went by which of the following modes ?
  1. A.Train
  2. B.Aeroplane
  3. C.Car
  4. D.Data inadequate
  5. E.Train or Car
44
Who among the following travelled to Dehradun ?
  1. A.T
  2. B.S
  3. C.R
  4. D.P
  5. E.Data inadequate
45
Which of the following combination of place and mode is not correct ?
  1. A.Chandigarh – Train
  2. B.Raipur – Car
  3. C.Jaipur - Car
  4. D.Bengaluru - Aeroplane
  5. E.Dehradun – Car
46
Which three books are between Accountancy and Hindi ?
  1. A.English , Economics and Psychology
  2. B.Economics, Psychology and Education
  3. C.Economics, Psychology and Hindi
  4. D.Data inadequate
  5. E.None of these
47
Economics is in between which of the following books ?
  1. A.Accountancy and Education
  2. B.Psychology and Hindi
  3. C.English and Psychology
  4. D.Psychology and Sociology
  5. E.None of these
48
If only the positions of Sociology and English, Accountancy and Hindi and Education and Psychology Are interchanged, which book will be between Psychology and Sociology ?
  1. A.Accountancy
  2. B.English
  3. C.Hindi
  4. D.Economics
  5. E.None of these
49
What is M’s favourite subject ?
  1. A.Geography
  2. B.Mathematics
  3. C.Chemistry
  4. D.Data inadequate
  5. E.None of these
50
Which of the following combinations is correct ?
  1. A.I - M – Mathematics
  2. B.III – F – Chemistry
  3. C.III – F – Physics
  4. D.III – F – History
  5. E.None of these
51
The 5th Kautilya Economic Conclave 2026 was held in which city?
  1. A.New Delhi
  2. B.Mumbai
  3. C.Hyderabad
  4. D.Bengaluru
52
What was the theme of the 5th Kautilya Economic Conclave 2026?
  1. A.Future of Global Trade
  2. B.Resilience in an Age of Flux
  3. C.Digital India 2047
  4. D.Inclusive Growth
53
The Kautilya Economic Conclave is organised in partnership with which Union Ministry?
  1. A.Ministry of Commerce
  2. B.Ministry of External Affairs
  3. C.Ministry of Finance
  4. D.Ministry of Statistics
54
ISRO's GSLV-F17/EOS-05 mission was launched in:
  1. A.January 2026
  2. B.March 2026
  3. C.December 2026
  4. D.September 2026
55
PSLV-C62/EOS-N1 was launched in:
  1. A.January 2026
  2. B.February 2026
  3. C.June 2026
  4. D.September 2026
56
India's first human spaceflight programme is called:
  1. A.Gaganyaan
  2. B.Aditya
  3. C.Chandrayaan
  4. D.Shukrayaan
57
The Human Rated LVM3 is associated primarily with:
  1. A.Navigation satellites
  2. B.Gaganyaan
  3. C.Weather forecasting
  4. D.Lunar rover communication
58
Aditya-L1 is India's mission to study the:
  1. A.Moon
  2. B.Mars
  3. C.Venus
  4. D.Sun
59
NISAR is a joint satellite mission of ISRO and:
  1. A.NASA
  2. B.ESA
  3. C.JAXA
  4. D.Roscosmos
60
NISAR is primarily designed for:
  1. A.Lunar exploration
  2. B.Human spaceflight
  3. C.Earth observation
  4. D.Deep-space communication
61
Chandrayaan-3 achieved a soft landing near the:
  1. A.Lunar north pole
  2. B.Lunar equator only
  3. C.Lunar south polar region
  4. D.Far side of Mars
62
The Chandrayaan-3 lander was named:
  1. A.Pragyan
  2. B.Rohini
  3. C.Vikram
  4. D.Dhruv
63
The Chandrayaan-3 rover was named:
  1. A.Pragyan
  2. B.Vikram
  3. C.Aryabhata
  4. D.Aditya
64
India's first solar observatory mission is:
  1. A.Astrosat
  2. B.RISAT
  3. C.INSAT-3DS
  4. D.Aditya-L1
65
The L1 point used by Aditya-L1 lies between:
  1. A.Earth and Moon
  2. B.Earth and Sun
  3. C.Sun and Mars
  4. D.Earth and Venus
66
SpaDeX is associated with technology for:
  1. A.Nuclear fusion
  2. B.Deep-sea mining
  3. C.Weather modification
  4. D.Space docking
67
The headquarters of ISRO is in:
  1. A.Bengaluru
  2. B.Hyderabad
  3. C.Chennai
  4. D.New Delhi
68
Sriharikota, India's principal satellite launch centre, is located in:
  1. A.Kerala
  2. B.Tamil Nadu
  3. C.Andhra Pradesh
  4. D.Odisha
69
The Satish Dhawan Space Centre is situated at:
  1. A.Sriharikota
  2. B.Tirupati
  3. C.Visakhapatnam
  4. D.Vijayawada
70
The G20 is primarily a forum concerned with:
  1. A.Military defence
  2. B.Global economic cooperation
  3. C.Cultural heritage only
  4. D.Space exploration only
71
The headquarters of the International Monetary Fund is in:
  1. A.Geneva
  2. B.Washington, D.
72
The headquarters of the World Trade Organization is located in:
  1. A.Geneva
  2. B.Vienna
  3. C.Brussels
  4. D.London
73
The United Nations headquarters is located in:
  1. A.Paris
  2. B.New York
  3. C.Geneva
  4. D.Washington, D.
74
The World Health Organization headquarters is in:
  1. A.The Hague
  2. B.Rome
  3. C.Paris
  4. D.Geneva
75
COP conferences are mainly associated with:
  1. A.Climate change
  2. B.International taxation
  3. C.Global defence
  4. D.International sports
76
The Paris Agreement is associated with:
  1. A.Nuclear disarmament
  2. B.International trade
  3. C.Climate change
  4. D.Space law
77
India's target year for achieving net-zero emissions is:
  1. A.2070
  2. B.2040
  3. C.2050
  4. D.2030
78
The International Solar Alliance was jointly initiated by India and:
  1. A.France
  2. B.Germany
  3. C.Japan
  4. D.Brazil
79
The International Solar Alliance headquarters is in:
  1. A.Chennai
  2. B.Mumbai
  3. C.Gurugram
  4. D.Jaipur
80
UPI was developed by:
  1. A.NPCI
  2. B.RBI alone
  3. C.SEBI
  4. D.NABARD
81
NPCI stands for:
  1. A.National Public Credit Institution
  2. B.National Payments Corporation of India
  3. C.National Policy Council of India
  4. D.New Payments Council of India
82
India's central bank digital currency is commonly known as:
  1. A.Digital Rupee
  2. B.Digital Dollar
  3. C.e-Gold
  4. D.Bharat Coin
83
The Digital Rupee is issued by:
  1. A.SEBI
  2. B.SBI
  3. C.RBI
  4. D.Ministry of Commerce
84
ONDC stands for:
  1. A.Open National Data Centre
  2. B.Online National Development Council
  3. C.Open Network for Digital Commerce
  4. D.Online Network for Domestic Credit
85
DigiLocker primarily provides:
  1. A.Digital document storage and verification
  2. B.Stock trading
  3. C.Satellite navigation
  4. D.Agricultural loans
86
Aadhaar is issued by:
  1. A.RBI
  2. B.UIDAI
  3. C.SEBI
  4. D.NITI Aayog
87
UIDAI stands for:
  1. A.Union Identification Agency of India
  2. B.Unified Identity Department of India
  3. C.Universal Information Authority of India
  4. D.Unique Identification Authority of India
88
Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY mainly provides:
  1. A.Crop insurance
  2. B.Health coverage
  3. C.Housing loans
  4. D.Pension benefits
89
PM-KISAN provides financial assistance primarily to:
  1. A.Industrial workers
  2. B.Government employees
  3. C.Farmers
  4. D.Students
90
PM Vishwakarma primarily supports:
  1. A.IT companies
  2. B.Large corporations
  3. C.Foreign investors
  4. D.Traditional artisans and craftspeople
91
Startup India was launched primarily to promote:
  1. A.Coal production
  2. B.Imports
  3. C.Government employment
  4. D.Entrepreneurship
92
Make in India primarily aims to increase:
  1. A.Gold imports
  2. B.Manufacturing
  3. C.Agricultural imports
  4. D.Foreign tourism only
93
Production Linked Incentive schemes are intended mainly to boost:
  1. A.Forest cover alone
  2. B.Rainfall
  3. C.Bank deposits
  4. D.Domestic manufacturing
94
The National Green Hydrogen Mission relates to production and use of:
  1. A.Diesel
  2. B.Coal gas
  3. C.LPG
  4. D.Hydrogen from low-carbon sources
95
Green hydrogen is generally produced using renewable electricity and:
  1. A.Electrolysis
  2. B.Distillation of petroleum
  3. C.Coal combustion
  4. D.Nuclear fission only
96
PM Gati Shakti is principally related to:
  1. A.Integrated infrastructure planning
  2. B.Free food distribution
  3. C.School education
  4. D.Banking regulation
97
Bharatmala Pariyojana mainly concerns:
  1. A.Airports only
  2. B.Ports only
  3. C.Highway development
  4. D.Irrigation only
98
Sagarmala programme is mainly associated with:
  1. A.Space exploration
  2. B.Mountain roads
  3. C.Port-led development
  4. D.Rural housing
99
The Dedicated Freight Corridors are intended to improve:
  1. A.Urban housing
  2. B.Inland fisheries
  3. C.Air passenger travel
  4. D.Rail freight transportation
100
The National Logistics Policy seeks primarily to improve:
  1. A.Monsoon forecasting
  2. B.Logistics efficiency
  3. C.Defence recruitment
  4. D.Wildlife census
101
Amaravati is associated with the capital region of:
  1. A.Andhra Pradesh
  2. B.Telangana
  3. C.Odisha
  4. D.Karnataka
102
Visakhapatnam is situated on the coast of the:
  1. A.Arabian Sea
  2. B.Gulf of Kutch
  3. C.Indian Ocean west coast
  4. D.Bay of Bengal
103
Andhra Pradesh was bifurcated in 2014 to create:
  1. A.Jharkhand
  2. B.Telangana
  3. C.Chhattisgarh
  4. D.Uttarakhand
104
Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act was enacted in:
  1. A.2014
  2. B.2004
  3. C.2000
  4. D.2019
105
Polavaram Project is located on the river:
  1. A.Krishna
  2. B.Godavari
  3. C.Penna
  4. D.Tungabhadra
106
Polavaram is primarily a:
  1. A.Seaport
  2. B.Thermal power station only
  3. C.Multipurpose irrigation project
  4. D.Airport
107
The major port located in Andhra Pradesh is:
  1. A.Kandla
  2. B.Kochi
  3. C.Visakhapatnam
  4. D.Marmagao
108
Krishnapatnam Port is in:
  1. A.Andhra Pradesh
  2. B.Gujarat
  3. C.Kerala
  4. D.Maharashtra
109
Gangavaram Port is located near:
  1. A.Visakhapatnam
  2. B.Tirupati
  3. C.Kurnool
  4. D.Anantapur
110
Sri City industrial zone is located close to the border of Andhra Pradesh and:
  1. A.Karnataka
  2. B.Telangana
  3. C.Odisha
  4. D.Tamil Nadu
111
Sri City is particularly known as a:
  1. A.Wildlife sanctuary
  2. B.Special Economic Zone and industrial hub
  3. C.Hill station
  4. D.River valley project
112
Tirupati is internationally famous for:
  1. A.Venkateswara Temple
  2. B.Jagannath Temple
  3. C.Golden Temple
  4. D.Meenakshi Temple
113
Tirumala hills form part of the:
  1. A.Western Ghats
  2. B.Eastern Ghats
  3. C.Aravallis
  4. D.Himalayas
114
Kuchipudi, a classical dance form, originated in:
  1. A.Punjab
  2. B.Kerala
  3. C.Assam
  4. D.Andhra Pradesh
115
Kuchipudi village is located in which district region of Andhra Pradesh?
  1. A.Anantapur region
  2. B.Rayalaseema
  3. C.Srikakulam region
  4. D.Krishna region
116
Andhra Pradesh is one of India's leading producers of:
  1. A.Apples
  2. B.Marine products
  3. C.Saffron
  4. D.Tea
117
Aquaculture is particularly important in which Andhra Pradesh region?
  1. A.Coastal Andhra
  2. B.Himalayan region
  3. C.Thar region
  4. D.Malwa plateau
118
The Krishna-Godavari Basin is significant for reserves of:
  1. A.Uranium only
  2. B.Petroleum and natural gas
  3. C.Gold only
  4. D.Diamond only
119
Kakinada is important for:
  1. A.Himalayan tourism
  2. B.Port and industrial activity
  3. C.Tea cultivation
  4. D.Desert farming
120
The major steel plant in Visakhapatnam is popularly known as:
  1. A.Salem Steel
  2. B.Bhilai Steel
  3. C.Bokaro Steel
  4. D.Vizag Steel
121
Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited is associated with:
  1. A.Bhilai Steel Plant
  2. B.Visakhapatnam Steel Plant
  3. C.Rourkela Steel Plant
  4. D.Bokaro Steel Plant
122
Hindustan Shipyard Limited is located at:
  1. A.Kolkata
  2. B.Mumbai
  3. C.Visakhapatnam
  4. D.Kochi
123
The Eastern Naval Command headquarters is at:
  1. A.Port Blair
  2. B.Chennai
  3. C.Kolkata
  4. D.Visakhapatnam
124
Andhra Pradesh's long coastline makes the state particularly suitable for:
  1. A.Port-based industries
  2. B.Alpine farming
  3. C.Glacier tourism
  4. D.Tundra agriculture
125
Lepakshi is famous for its:
  1. A.Vijayanagara-era temple architecture
  2. B.Mughal fort
  3. C.Buddhist cave only
  4. D.Portuguese church
126
The famous Veerabhadra Temple is located at:
  1. A.Lepakshi
  2. B.Amaravati
  3. C.Vijayawada
  4. D.Nellore
127
Amaravati is historically associated with:
  1. A.Judaism
  2. B.Sikhism
  3. C.Zoroastrianism
  4. D.Buddhism
128
Nagarjunakonda is noted mainly for:
  1. A.Portuguese forts
  2. B.Mughal palaces
  3. C.Buddhist remains
  4. D.Chola naval bases
129
The Krishna River flows into the:
  1. A.Arabian Sea
  2. B.Bay of Bengal
  3. C.Gulf of Kutch
  4. D.Rann of Kutch
130
The Godavari River empties into the:
  1. A.Arabian Sea
  2. B.Bay of Bengal
  3. C.Red Sea
  4. D.Gulf of Mannar only
131
Vijayawada lies on the banks of the:
  1. A.Penna
  2. B.Godavari
  3. C.Krishna
  4. D.Cauvery
132
Prakasam Barrage is built across the:
  1. A.Penna
  2. B.Godavari
  3. C.Krishna
  4. D.Vamsadhara
133
Dowleswaram Barrage is associated with the:
  1. A.Godavari
  2. B.Krishna
  3. C.Penna
  4. D.Nagavali
134
Sir Arthur Cotton is closely associated with irrigation works on the:
  1. A.Narmada
  2. B.Godavari
  3. C.Sutlej
  4. D.Beas
135
Araku Valley is located in the:
  1. A.Satpuras
  2. B.Western Ghats
  3. C.Vindhyas
  4. D.Eastern Ghats
136
Borra Caves are located near:
  1. A.Nellore
  2. B.Vijayawada
  3. C.Araku Valley
  4. D.Machilipatnam
137
Pulicat Lake is shared by Andhra Pradesh and:
  1. A.Karnataka
  2. B.Odisha
  3. C.Tamil Nadu
  4. D.Kerala
138
Pulicat is primarily a:
  1. A.Freshwater Himalayan lake
  2. B.Brackish-water lagoon
  3. C.Artificial reservoir
  4. D.Crater lake
139
Kolleru Lake lies between the deltas of:
  1. A.Krishna and Godavari
  2. B.Krishna and Cauvery
  3. C.Godavari and Mahanadi
  4. D.Penna and Cauvery
140
Kolleru is primarily a:
  1. A.Salt lake
  2. B.Freshwater lake
  3. C.Crater lake
  4. D.Glacial lake
141
Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary is noted for its:
  1. A.Conifer forests
  2. B.Alpine meadows
  3. C.Desert vegetation
  4. D.Mangroves
142
The Papikonda National Park lies along the:
  1. A.Cauvery River
  2. B.Krishna River
  3. C.Penna River
  4. D.Godavari River
143
Seshachalam Hills are well known for:
  1. A.Deodar
  2. B.Red sanders
  3. C.Sundari mangrove
  4. D.Saffron
144
Red sanders is naturally associated particularly with:
  1. A.Assam
  2. B.Punjab
  3. C.Andhra Pradesh
  4. D.Haryana
145
The Indian Institute of Petroleum and Energy is located at:
  1. A.Guntur
  2. B.Kurnool
  3. C.Tirupati
  4. D.Visakhapatnam
146
Andhra Pradesh's major IT and industrial coastal city is:
  1. A.Madanapalle
  2. B.Kadapa
  3. C.Kurnool
  4. D.Visakhapatnam
147
The Asian Games are organised under the authority of the:
  1. A.FIDE
  2. B.FIFA
  3. C.ICC
  4. D.Olympic Council of Asia
148
The IMF publishes which well-known global economic report?
  1. A.World Economic Outlook
  2. B.Human Development Report
  3. C.World Investment Report only
  4. D.Global Hunger Index
149
UNDP publishes the:
  1. A.Global Financial Stability Report
  2. B.World Economic Outlook
  3. C.World Trade Report
  4. D.Human Development Report
150
The Sustainable Development Goals have a target year of:
  1. A.2025
  2. B.2030
  3. C.2040
  4. D.2050
Question for APPSC Industrial Promotion Officer 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam