Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity _________________?
A
Pascal
B
Poise
C
Stoke
D
Faraday
E
None of the above
Question 2Single Answer
Consider the following processes:
1. Extension of a spring
2. Plastic deformation of a material
3. Magnetization of a material exhibiting hysteresis
Which of the above process are irreversible?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 3Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct for a throttling process?
1. It is an adiabatic steady flow process
2. The enthalpy before and after throttling is same
3. In the processes, due to fall in pressure, the fluid velocity at outlet is always more than inlet velocity
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 4Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 5Single Answer
A heat engine receives heat at the rate of 2500 kJ/min and gives an output of 12.4 kW. Its thermal efficiency is, nearly
A
18%
B
23%
C
26%
D
30%
Question 6Single Answer
One reversible heat engine operates between 1000 K and T2 K and another reversible heat engine operates between T2K and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat input and output, then the temperature T2 must be equal to
A
582.7 K
B
632.5 K
C
682.8 K
D
732.5 K
Question 7Single Answer
Consider the following statements for isothermal process:
1. Change in internal energy is zero
2. Heat transfer is zero
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 8Single Answer
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. The process is:
A
Reversible and isothermal
B
Irreversible
C
Reversible only
D
Isothermal only
Question 9Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is correct during adiabatic charging of an ideal gas into an empty cylinder from a supply main?
A
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
B
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
C
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
D
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
Question 10Single Answer
Consider the following systems :
1. An electric heater
2. A gas turbine
3. A reciprocating compressor
The steady flow energy equation can be applied to which of the above systems?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3 only
Question 11Single Answer
Consider the following motions :
1. Piston reciprocating inside an engine cylinder
2. Motion of a shaft between foot-step bearings
Which of the above can rightly be considered as successfully constrained motion?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 12Single Answer
A rotor weighing 2 kN is supported on bearings A and B which are 1 m apart. The centre of mass of the rotor is at a distance 0.4 m from bearing A. It is observed that there is an unbalanced couple of magnitude 300 N-m which leaves the shaft balanced statically.The dynamic reactions at the supports will be
A
800 N and 800 N
B
300 N and 800 N
C
800 N and – 300 N
D
300 N and – 300 N
Question 13Single Answer
A cam is a mechanical member used to impart a desired motion to a follower by direct contact. Which one of the under-listed follower motion types will produce the least jerk to the system?
A
Simple harmonic
B
Constant acceleration and deceleration
C
Constant velocity
D
Cycloidal
Question 14Single Answer
In a circular are cam with a roller follower, acceleration of the follower depends on
1. cam speed and location of centre of circular arc
2. roller diameter and radius of circular arc
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 15Single Answer
A manufacturing company is selling a product for 15 per unit with variable cost of 10 per unit. The fixed cost of the asset is 50,000. How many units should be produced to breakeven?
A
2000
B
5000
C
8000
D
10000
Question 16Single Answer
Hot wire anemometer is used to measure_______________?
A
discharge
B
velocity of gas
C
pressure intensity of gas
D
pressure intensity of liquid
Question 17Single Answer
A gear of 28 cm pitch circle diameter has 40 teeth. The circular pitch will nearly be
A
11 mm/tooth
B
22 mm/tooth
C
33 mm/tooth
D
44 mm/tooth
Question 18Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding gear tooth designing for gear drive :
1. Tooth profiles not designed as per ‘law of gearing’ will cause vibration and impact problems even at low speed.
2. As the gears go through their mesh, the pitch point must remain stationary on the line of centres.
3. In a correctly designed tooth profile, the line of action of successive instantaneous points of contact will pass through the stationary pitch point.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 19Single Answer
The flywheel of a steam engine has a radius of gyration of 1 m and mass 2000 kg. The starting torque of the engine is 2000 N-m. The kinetic energy of the flywheel after 10 seconds from start is
A
75 kN-m
B
100 kN-m
C
125 kN-m
D
150 kN-m
Question 20Single Answer
Consider two shafts connected with two gears as per the following options :
1. One on each shaft.
2. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft, and every shaft having one gear only.
3. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft having two gears, whereas the other shafts have one gear each
Which of the above represent(s) a simple gear train?
A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 21Single Answer
A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter splits up in air into 64 smaller drops of equal size. The surface tension coefficient of water in air is 0.073 N/m. The work required in splitting up the drop is
A
0.96 × 10–6 J
B
0.69 × 10–6 J
C
0.32 × 10–6 J
D
0.23 × 10–6 J
Question 22Single Answer
Consider the following statements pertaining to stability of floating bodies:
1. A floating body will be stable when the centre of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.
2. The position of metacentres corresponding to different axes of rotation are generally different for the same floating object.
3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height varies with loading.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 23Single Answer
Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow, constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and neglecting curvature and surface tension effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below the tap opening is nearly
A
11.7 mm
B
14.6 mm
C
17.5 mm
D
20.4 mm
Question 24Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. At low Reynolds numbers of any flow, viscous forces dominate over inertial forces.
2. Transition from laminar to turbulent flow occurs over a range of Reynolds numbers depending on the surface presented to the flow.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 25Single Answer
In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head loss is proportional to
A
D–1
B
D–2
C
D–3
D
D–4
Question 26Single Answer
The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow is 800?
A
2 m/s
B
1.5 m/s
C
1 m/s
D
0.5 m/s
Question 27Single Answer
During a constant pressure expansion of a gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of work, W is
A
8%
B
10%
C
12%
D
15%
Question 28Single Answer
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/kg K to 75 kJ/kg K. The process is
A
reversible and isothermal
B
irreversible
C
reversible only
D
isothermal only
Question 29Single Answer
A reversible heat engine rejects 80% of the heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If the engine is reversed and operates as a refrigerator, then its coefficient of performance shall be
A
6
B
5
C
4
D
3
Question 30Single Answer
For the same efficiency of the Brayton cycle and the Carnot cycle working between temperature limits of Tmax and Tmin, the power contribution of the Brayton cycle will be
A
zero
B
maximum
C
minimum
D
50% of the Carnot cycle
Question 31Single Answer
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
A
Greater than 1
B
Equal to 1
C
Between 1 and 3
4 4
D
Less than 1
Question 32Single Answer
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 33Single Answer
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C
Pseudo-plastic fluids
D
Dilatent fluids
Question 34Single Answer
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A
8
B
6
C
4
D
2
Question 35Single Answer
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A
0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B
4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C
0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D
4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Question 36Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 37Single Answer
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A
Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B
Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C
Possible for steady, compressible flow
D
Not Possible
Question 38Single Answer
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A
0.25
B
0.26
C
2
D
4
Question 39Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 40Single Answer
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A
man power
B
profit
C
inventory
D
manufacturing
Question 41Single Answer
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
A
3 m/s2
B
6 m/s2
C
9 m/s2
D
15 m/s2
Question 42Single Answer
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
A
9
B
-6
C
117
D
10.8
Question 43Single Answer
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
A
More for lighter fluid
B
More for denser fluid
C
Less for denser fluid
D
Less for lighter fluid
Question 44Single Answer
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
A
Linearly with fluid density
B
Inversely with pressure drop
C
Directly as square of pipe radius
D
Inversely with fluid velocity
Question 45Single Answer
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
A
1.5mm
B
2.5mm
C
4.0mm
D
5.0mm
Question 46Single Answer
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
A
0.05m
B
0.07m
C
0.08m
D
0.09m
Question 47Single Answer
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
A
8 kW
B
4 kW
C
2 kW
D
1 kW
Question 48Single Answer
In a hydraulic coupling
A
The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B
The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C
The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D
The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque
Question 49Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
A
1,2 and 3 only
B
1,2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1,2, 3 and 4
Question 50Single Answer
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
A
150 N
B
1470 N
C
340 N
D
900 N
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Technical Subject (Mechanical)
Question 51Single Answer
Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n2.
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?
A
Energy
B
Mass
C
Momentum
D
Angle
Question 53Single Answer
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in
A
Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
B
Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
C
Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
D
Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid
Question 54Single Answer
Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 105. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be
A
2Q
B
A little more than 2Q
C
A little less than 2Q
D
4Q
Question 55Single Answer
Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
A
7.5 W/m2K
B
15 W/m2K
C
25 W/m2K
D
35 W/m2K
Question 56Single Answer
For laminar flow through a round pipe, the shear stress
A
Remains constant over the cross-section
B
Varies linearly with the radial distance
C
Must be zero at all point
D
Varies parabolically with radial distance
Question 57Single Answer
Percentage clongation during tensile test is indicative of
A
Creep
B
Malleability
C
Ductility
D
Elasticity in the metal
Question 58Single Answer
Which of the above statements is not correct in the context of laminar flow through a pipeline?
A
Shear stress is zero at the center and varies linearly with pipe radius
B
Head loss is proportional to square of the average flow velocity
C
The friction factor varies inversely with flow Reynolds number
D
No dispersion of die injected into the flow stream
Question 59Single Answer
Laminar flow between closely spaced parallel plates is governed by the consideration of which one of the following pair of forces?
A
Pressure and inertial forces
B
Gravity and inertial forces
C
Viscous and inertial forces
D
Pressure and inertial forces
Question 60Single Answer
Formation and collapse of vapour bubbles are believed to be the root cause for cavitation in hydraulic turbines. Most favorable condition for the formation of bubbles is set in the turbine at
A
Penstock/nozzl
B
Guide vanes/Inlet of the runner
C
Vanes receiving impact of jet
D
Outlet of the runner/Entrance of the draft tube
Question 61Single Answer
If a submerged body displaced from its equilibrium position, returns to its original position, it is called __________.
A
thermal equilibrium
B
neutral equilibrium
C
unstable equilibrium
D
stable equilibrium
Question 62Single Answer
In a flow measurement, a venturi meter is preferred over an orifice plate because _____.
A
energy of head loss is less
B
It is cheaper
C
pressure drop is more
D
space is limited
Question 63Single Answer
Pitot tube measures ______.
A
dynamic pressure of a moving stream
B
guage pressure
C
temperature of moving water
D
pressure difference between two fluids
Question 64Single Answer
Which of the following is not a property of an ideal fluid ?
A
flow is irrotational
B
it has no viscosity
C
it has viscosity
D
it is incompressible
Question 65Single Answer
Nozzle used in steam turbines convert ________.
A
enthalpy of steam into work
B
enthalpy of steam into kinetic energy
C
enthalpy of steam into pressure energy
D
pressure energy into work
Question 66Single Answer
Which of the following assumptions is the most relevant in air-standard cycle analysis ?
A
All the processes within the cycle are irreversible
B
Working fluid is a fixed mass
C
Specific heat of air changes during the cycle
D
Cycle is assumed to be an open cycle
Question 67Single Answer
The modern Francis turbine is a ___________flow turbine .
A
tangential
B
axial
C
radial
D
mixed
Question 68Single Answer
Variation of stress with strain rate for a Newtonian fluid is ______ .
A
hyperbolic
B
linear
C
elliptical
D
parabolic
Question 69Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a part of refrigeration systems ?
A
Turbine
B
Evaporator
C
Compressor
D
Condenser
Question 70Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT an intensive property ?
A
Temperature
B
Total volume
C
Pressure
D
Density
Question 71Single Answer
Which of the following does NOT represent a unit of viscosity ?
A
Stoke
B
Poise
C
m²/sec
D
N-m/sec
Question 72Single Answer
__________ in the fuel is oxidised during knocking .
A
Hydrocarbon
B
Phosphorous
C
Water
D
Coal
Question 73Single Answer
_________ is defined as the ability of a material to resist deformation under action of an external load .
A
Stiffness
B
Resilience
C
Brittleness
D
Toughness
Question 74Single Answer
Draught is produced in locomotive boilers by which of the following components ?
A
Locomotive
B
Steam jet
C
Centrifugal fan
D
Chimney
Question 75Single Answer
For a steady flow, the value of all fluid properties at any fixed point _________ .
A
do not change with location
B
change with time
C
change with location
D
do not change with time
Question 76Single Answer
For a floating body, if the metacentre is below the centre of gravity, then the body is said to be __________ equilibrium .
A
thermal
B
stable
C
unstable
D
neutral
Question 77Single Answer
________ is useful for measuring flow of a conducting fluid .
A
Orifice meter
B
Rotameter
C
Vane meter
D
Electro-magnetic flow meter
Question 78Single Answer
A two- stroke engine consists of ________ port (s)
A
Three
B
Four
C
One
D
Two
Question 79Single Answer
Air Cooling is mostly preferred for _________ .
A
heavy truck
B
buses
C
moto cycles
D
multi-utility vehicles
Question 80Single Answer
_______ valves are provided in reciprocating compressors .
A
Simply supported
B
Solenoid
C
Plate
D
Poppet
Question 81Single Answer
Benson boiler have ______ water drum (s)
A
One
B
Zero
C
Three
D
Two
Question 82Single Answer
_________ is used for pumping water into a boilers .
A
Economiser
B
Duplex pump
C
Feed pump
D
Rotor
Question 83Single Answer
The function of a carburetor in internal combustion engines is :
A
to control fuel alone
B
to cool exhaust gases
C
to maintain air-fuel ratio
D
to control air alone
Question 84Single Answer
The device which transfers energy from the ______ to _____ the is known as hydraulic turbine .
A
atmosphere; fluid
B
rotor; fluid
C
fluid; rotor
D
fluid; atmosphere
Question 85Single Answer
The flash chamber in the single stage VCR cycle serves to ________ .
A
decrease the compression ratio
B
increase the refrigerating effect
C
increase the compression ratio
D
decrease the refrigerating effect
Question 86Single Answer
Define thermodynamics .
A
It is a science which deals with the relation between heat, work and properties of systems
B
It is a science which deals with work done
C
It deals with dynamics under thermal conditions
D
It is science which deals with the relation between work and properties
Question 87Single Answer
Which of the following statements is correct about a Benson boiler ?
A
Air is sent through the same direction
B
There is no recirculation of water
C
Steam is sent out in multiple directions
D
Flue gases pass only in one direction
Question 88Single Answer
Within a refrigeration system, the expansion valve is incorporated between the ________ .
A
Super-heater and sub-cooler
B
compressor and condenser
C
evaporator and compressor
D
condenser and evaporator
Question 89Single Answer
The reversed ______ cycle employed for passenger aircraft systems .
A
Carnot
B
Atkinson
C
Ericsson
D
Brayton
Question 90Single Answer
Fusible plug in a steam boiler is placed ______ .
A
below the water level indicator
B
at he crown of the furnace
C
at the fire grate of the boiler
D
near the manhole
Question 91Single Answer
What is the least count of a Vernier caliper having 20 Vernier scale divisions coinciding with 19 main scale divisions, where 1 main scale division is 1 mm?
A
0.01 mm
B
0.05 mm
C
0.1 mm
D
0.02 mm
Question 92Single Answer
Which part of a Vernier caliper is used for measuring the depth of a hole?
A
Main scale
B
Vernier scale
C
Jaws
D
Depth bar
Question 93Single Answer
What is the principle of measurement in a micrometer?
A
Difference in scale divisions
B
Screw and nut mechanism
C
Comparison with a standard
D
Optical magnification
Question 94Single Answer
What is the least count of a standard metric micrometer?
A
0.1 mm
B
0.02 mm
C
0.01 mm
D
0.05 mm
Question 95Single Answer
The spindle of a micrometer is attached to which part?
A
Anvil
B
Frame
C
Thimble
D
Sleeve
Question 96Single Answer
What is the purpose of the ratchet stop in a micrometer?
A
To lock the measurement
B
To provide a constant measuring pressure
C
To rotate the spindle quickly
D
To ensure uniform measuring pressure
Question 97Single Answer
A wire gauge is used to measure the:
A
Length of a wire
B
Resistance of a wire
C
Diameter of a wire
D
Current carrying capacity of a wire
Question 98Single Answer
Wire gauges typically measure wire diameter in:
A
Millimeters
B
Inches
C
Standard gauge numbers
D
Micrometers
Question 99Single Answer
What are slip gauges also known as?
A
Feeler gauges
B
Gauge blocks
C
Radius gauges
D
Thread gauges
Question 100Single Answer
Slip gauges are made of:
A
Soft steel
B
Aluminum
C
Hardened and ground high-grade steel alloy
D
Brass
Question 101Single Answer
What is the process of joining slip gauges together for a specific dimension called?
A
Welding
B
Soldering
C
Wringing
D
Clamping
Question 102Single Answer
The accuracy of slip gauges is typically expressed in terms of:
A
Surface finish
B
Hardness
C
Grade
D
Weight
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following measuring instruments has the highest accuracy?
A
Vernier caliper
B
Micrometer
C
Slip gauges
D
Wire gauge
Question 104Single Answer
What is the main scale division value of a Vernier height gauge if its least count is 0.02 mm and it has 50 Vernier divisions coinciding with 49 main scale divisions?
A
0.5 mm
B
1 mm
C
0.01 mm
D
0.02 mm
Question 105Single Answer
A feeler gauge is used to measure:
A
External diameters
B
Internal diameters
C
Gaps or clearances between mating parts
D
Thread pitch
Question 106Single Answer
Feeler gauge blades have specific:
A
Lengths
B
Widths
C
Thicknesses
D
Materials
Question 107Single Answer
What is a radius gauge used for?
A
Measuring angles
B
Measuring straightness
C
Measuring the radius of curves or fillets
D
Measuring thread radius
Question 108Single Answer
Radius gauges consist of a set of blades with:
A
Varying lengths
B
Varying widths
C
Different concave and convex radii
D
Different thicknesses
Question 109Single Answer
What is a thread pitch gauge used for?
A
Measuring the diameter of a thread
B
Measuring the length of a thread
C
Measuring the pitch of a screw thread
D
Measuring the angle of a thread
Question 110Single Answer
Thread pitch gauges consist of a set of blades with different:
A
Thread depths
B
Thread profiles and pitches
C
Thread angles
D
Thread lengths
Question 111Single Answer
What is the state of a substance at the critical point on a phase diagram?
A
Solid
B
Liquid
C
Gas
D
Indistinguishable liquid-vapor phase
Question 112Single Answer
What does the triple point on a phase diagram represent?
A
Only solid exists
B
Solid, liquid, and vapor coexist
C
Only liquid exists
D
Only vapor exists
Question 113Single Answer
Which property is constant during a phase change at constant pressure?
A
Temperature
B
Volume
C
Entropy
D
Internal energy
Question 114Single Answer
What is the quality of a saturated liquid-vapor mixture defined as?
A
Ratio of liquid mass to total mass
B
Ratio of vapor mass to total mass
C
Ratio of liquid volume to total volume
D
Ratio of vapor volume to total volume
Question 115Single Answer
What is the specific volume of a substance in the saturated liquid state?
A
vf
B
vg
C
vfg
D
vavg
Question 116Single Answer
Which chart is used to represent the properties of a superheated vapor?
A
T-s diagram
B
P-v diagram
C
Mollier diagram
D
Psychrometric chart
Question 117Single Answer
What happens to the pressure of a substance at the triple point of water?
A
It is zero
B
It is kPa
C
Resolver
D
It is infinite
Question 118Single Answer
What is the slope of the sublimation curve on a P-T diagram?
A
Zero
B
Negative
C
Positive
D
Infinite
Question 119Single Answer
Which property is used to determine the state of a substance in a compressed liquid region?
A
Entropy
B
Specific volume
C
Quality
D
Enthalpy
Question 120Single Answer
Which diagram shows constant pressure lines as horizontal?
A
P-v diagram
B
T-s diagram
C
h-s diagram
D
P-T diagram
Question 121Single Answer
What is the specific enthalpy of a saturated liquid-vapor mixture given by?
A
hf + x(hfg)
B
hg + x(hfg)
C
hf + hfg
D
hg - hfg
Question 122Single Answer
What does the saturation dome represent on a T-s diagram?
A
Superheated region
B
Compressed liquid region
C
Two-phase region
D
Critical point
Question 123Single Answer
What is the critical temperature of water?
A
Hall effect sensor
B
Piezoelectric accelerometer
C
Optical encoder
D
Resolver
Question 124Single Answer
What is the critical pressure of water?
A
kPa
B
Resolver
C
MPa
D
Resolver
Question 125Single Answer
Which property is tabulated in steam tables for superheated vapor?
A
Quality
B
Specific volume
C
Latent heat
D
Phase fraction
Question 126Single Answer
What is the specific entropy of a saturated liquid denoted as?
A
sf
B
sg
C
sfg
D
savg
Question 127Single Answer
What is the value of hfg in the superheated vapor region?
A
Zero
B
Positive
C
Negative
D
Undefined
Question 128Single Answer
Which process occurs along the saturation line on a P-v diagram?
A
Isothermal
B
Isobaric
C
Isochoric
D
Adiabatic
Question 129Single Answer
What is the specific volume of a saturated vapor denoted as?
A
vf
B
vfg
C
vg
D
vavg
Question 130Single Answer
What is the slope of the vaporization curve on a P-T diagram?
A
Zero
B
Positive
C
Negative
D
Infinite
Question 131Single Answer
The moment of a force about a point is equal to:
A
Force × Time
B
Force × Distance from point
C
Force × Area
D
Force ÷ Distance
Question 132Single Answer
Which of the following statements is true?
A
A particle has mass but no dimensions.
B
A rigid body can deform under load.
C
A force cannot be represented by a vector.
D
Varignon’s theorem applies only to particles.
Question 133Single Answer
Varignon’s theorem states that the moment of a force about any point is equal to:
A
The algebraic sum of the moments of the components
B
Twice the product of the force and distance
C
Half the sum of the components
D
Product of mass and acceleration
Question 134Single Answer
A rigid body is in equilibrium when:
A
Net force
B
Net moment
C
Net force and net moment
D
Either net force or net moment
Question 135Single Answer
Which of the following is not a type of force system?
A
Concurrent
B
Parallel
C
Non-concurrent
D
Perpendicular
Question 136Single Answer
The unit of moment is:
A
N
B
N/m
C
N•m
D
m/N
Question 137Single Answer
In a force diagram, the direction of a force is represented by:
A
Length of the arrow
B
Angle of the arrow
C
Thickness of the arrow
D
Color of the arrow
Question 138Single Answer
A free body diagram shows:
A
Internal forces
B
Only horizontal forces
C
All external forces acting on a body
D
Only vertical forces
Question 139Single Answer
The resultant of two equal forces acting at right angles is:
A
Equal to one of the forces
B
times one force
C
Twice one force
D
Zero
Question 140Single Answer
The force which keeps a body in equilibrium is:
A
Resultant
B
Balanced force
C
Equilibrant
D
Reaction
Question 141Single Answer
The line of action of a force is:
A
Always horizontal
B
The direction along which the force acts
C
The area covered by the force
D
A vertical axis
Question 142Single Answer
The moment of a couple is:
A
Zero
B
Equal to the sum of the forces
C
Equal to one of the forces
D
Equal to the force × arm distance
Question 143Single Answer
The direction of a moment is given by:
A
Lami’s theorem
B
Right-hand rule
C
Newton’s third law
D
Triangle law
Question 144Single Answer
A couple produces:
A
Translational motion only
B
Rotational motion only
C
Both translational and rotational motion
D
No motion
Question 145Single Answer
Which of the following cannot be in equilibrium?
A
Rigid body
B
Particle
C
Free body
D
Couple
Question 146Single Answer
For a system in equilibrium, the net torque about any axis is:
A
Maximum
B
Minimum
C
Zero
D
Infinite
Question 147Single Answer
Two equal and opposite forces acting along the same line form a:
A
Couple
B
Balanced force
C
Resultant
D
Null vector
Question 148Single Answer
Friction is a:
A
Non-contact force
B
Contact force
C
Magnetic force
D
Electrostatic force
Question 149Single Answer
The limiting friction is the:
A
Minimum frictional force before motion
B
Maximum static friction just before motion
C
Kinetic friction value
D
Average friction during motion
Question 150Single Answer
The coefficient of friction is defined as the ratio of: