Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 11Single Answer
Passage :
Direction:Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A
To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B
To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C
To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D
To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy
Question 13Single Answer
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 14Single Answer
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger
Question 15Single Answer
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 16Single Answer
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these
Question 17Single Answer
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these
Question 18Single Answer
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these
Question 19Single Answer
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice
Question 20Single Answer
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these
Question 21Single Answer
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A
20
B
14
C
56
D
26
E
None of these
Question 22Single Answer
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A
GIJK
B
DFGH
C
CEFG
D
ABCD
E
None of these
Question 23Single Answer
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A
71
B
73
C
77
D
67
E
None of these
Question 24Single Answer
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A
UMRSME
B
EIWNTR
C
PIGRSN
D
LCUOD
E
None of these
Question 25Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A
4
B
2
C
6
D
8
E
5
Question 26Single Answer
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A
UW483
B
ZA26
C
TU420
D
ST380
E
None of these
Question 27Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A
U
B
T
C
A
D
G
E
None of these
Question 28Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A
E
B
G
C
F
D
B
E
None of these
Question 29Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A
M
B
K
C
H
D
J
E
None of these
Question 30Single Answer
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
E
None of these
Question 31Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A
P
B
K
C
J
D
I
E
None of these
Question 32Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A
8
B
1
C
9
D
2
E
None of these
Question 33Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
7
E
None of these
Question 34Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A
A
B
G
C
H
D
B
E
None of these
Question 35Single Answer
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A
S 3 H *
B
T#H*
C
T*#H
D
S*H5
E
SH*1
Question 36Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?9 7 5 3 1 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5
A
1
B
8
C
3
D
5
E
None of these
Question 37Single Answer
What should come next in the place of question mark(?) in the following letter sequence?AZB, CYD, EXF,?,IVJ, KUL
A
FYH
B
GWG
C
HWH
D
GUF
E
None of these
Question 38Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
215
B
143
C
247
D
91
E
65
Question 39Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
78
B
48
C
72
D
54
E
42
Question 40Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
45
B
51
C
39
D
93
E
85
Question 41Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
39
B
27
C
48
D
42
E
24
Question 42Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
187
B
323
C
119
D
221
E
289
Question 43Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
35
B
80
C
45
D
60
E
75
Question 44Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
31
B
39
C
47
D
41
E
43
Question 45Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
27
B
64
C
125
D
216
E
384
Question 46Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
25
B
64
C
189
D
225
E
121
Question 47Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
23
B
29
C
37
D
39
E
31
Question 48Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
115
B
145
C
95
D
155
E
75
Question 49Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
126
B
217
C
345
D
513
E
730
Question 50Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
144
B
169
C
256
D
288
E
324
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General Studies & Mental Ability
Question 51Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
143
B
168
C
224
D
195
E
257
Question 52Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
29
B
85
C
147
D
125
E
53
Question 53Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the English alphabet series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group, if the English alphabetical series is broken into two equal halves, i.e. the first 13 alphabets are clubbed together and the last 13 alphabets are clubbed separately?
A
FH
B
SU
C
MA
D
CK
E
LB
Question 54Single Answer
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which they appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
MPQO
B
DGHF
C
RUTV
D
VYZX
E
JMNL
Question 55Single Answer
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which they appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
AMCL
B
WIVK
C
GVIU
D
XDZC
E
HRJQ
Question 56Single Answer
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which they appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
AZMN
B
BYEF
C
CXUV
D
FUNO
E
IRDV
Question 57Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
LOJ
B
FID
C
RUP
D
ILN
E
CFA
Question 58Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
RICE : ECIR
B
WINGS : SGNIW
C
SMART : RTSMA
D
COUSIN : SINCOU
E
BRAKE : AKRFB
Question 59Single Answer
the one that does not belong to that group?
A
VT
B
MK
C
DB
D
KH
E
XV
Question 60Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
PS
B
FI
C
AD
D
KN
E
GD
Question 61Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
PARENT : RPBTEO
B
MOSTLY : SMPYTM
C
SIMPLE : MSJEPM
D
MOTHER : TMPRHD
E
SUNDAY : NSVYDB
Question 62Single Answer
Four of the following five have same relation between their elements and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
PLENTY : LEPTYN
B
COWARD : OWCRAD
C
ALWINS : LWANIS
D
EXAMIN : XAEIMN
E
LOCATE : OCLTAE
Question 63Single Answer
Four of the following five have same relation between their elements as in the case of the pair UNDERWAY : 39412576 and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
WARDEN : 572419
B
DERANU : 412793
C
NEDAYU : 924763
D
ENDWAR : 194572
E
URADYE : 327461
Question 64Single Answer
Direction:Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group
A
Stem
B
Branch
C
Leaf
D
Web
E
Fruit
Question 65Single Answer
Direction:Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group
A
Clone
B
Replica
C
Duplicate
D
Copy
E
Fake
Question 66Single Answer
Direction : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Repair
B
Mend
C
Correct
D
Rectify
E
Trouble
Question 67Single Answer
Direction : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Employed
B
Trained
C
Hired
D
Appointed
E
Commissioned
Question 68Single Answer
Direction : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Quick
B
Brisk
C
Quiet
D
Fast
E
Rapid
Question 69Single Answer
Direction:Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Asia
B
Antarctica
C
Africa
D
Alaska
E
Australia
Question 70Single Answer
Direction:Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Trophy
B
Medal
C
Certificate
D
Gift
E
Prize
Question 71Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Lens
B
Shutter
C
Film
D
Camera
E
Zoom
Question 72Single Answer
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Cricket
B
Volleyball
C
Chess
D
Tabletennis
E
Badminton
Question 73Single Answer
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Dogs
B
Cats
C
Goats
D
Giraffes
E
Cows
Question 74Single Answer
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Paragraph
B
Sentence
C
Page
D
Words
E
Alphabet
Question 75Single Answer
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Talking
B
Blinking
C
Writing
D
Sitting
E
Reading
Question 76Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Brother
B
Grandfather
C
Mother
D
Grandmother
E
Father
Question 77Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Sweet
B
Cake
C
Pastry
D
Bread
E
Biscuit
Question 78Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?r
A
Cup
B
Jug
C
Tumbler
D
Plate
E
Pitcher
Question 79Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Copper
B
Mercury
C
Iron
D
Aluminium
E
Zinc
Question 80Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Gold
B
Nickel
C
Platinum
D
Tungsten
E
Diamond
Question 81Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Nephew
B
Cousin
C
Mother
D
Brother
E
Sister
Question 82Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Black
B
Yellow
C
Red
D
Green
E
Violet
Question 83Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Iron
B
Copper
C
Zinc
D
Aluminium
E
Brass
Question 84Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Boy
B
Girl
C
Lady
D
Man
E
Child
Question 85Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Table
B
Chair
C
Bench
D
Desk
E
Wood
Question 86Single Answer
Total number of districts in Andhra Pradesh ?
A
10
B
12
C
13
D
17
Question 87Single Answer
Which one is the largest district by area wise in Andhra Pradesh ?
A
Kurnool
B
Anantapur
C
Kadapa
D
Nellore
Question 88Single Answer
Who is the first sports person to received Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award from Andhra Pradesh ?
A
Pullela Gopichand
B
Karnam Malleswari
C
Saina Nehwal
D
Sania Mirza
Question 89Single Answer
Before Hyderabad was made capital in 1956, which city was the capital of Andhra Pradesh ?
A
Warangal
B
Vijayawada
C
Visakhapatnam
D
Kurnool
Question 90Single Answer
In which district, the TirumalaVenkateswara Temple is located ?
A
Chittoor
B
Krishna
C
Kurnool
D
Vizianagaram
Question 91Single Answer
Who was the first person to translate the Mahabharata into Telugu language ?
A
Pothana
B
Tikkana
C
Nannayya
D
Vemana
Question 92Single Answer
Which one was the first dynasty to rule Vijayanagara Empire ?
A
Tuluva dynasty
B
Saluva dynasty
C
Sangama dynasty
D
Aravidu dynasty
Question 93Single Answer
Who is not in the group known as Kavitraya (three great poets) of Telugu literature ?
A
Nannaya
B
Tikanna
C
Yerrapragada
D
Pothana
Question 94Single Answer
When NT Rama Rao become the first chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh ?
A
1978
B
1983
C
1985
D
1992
Question 95Single Answer
Which one is the only constituency from where NT Rama Rao defeated in assembly election ?
A
Kalwakurthy
B
Hindupur
C
Tekkali
D
Nalgonda
Question 96Single Answer
Which one is the largest city by areawise in Andhra Pradesh ?
A
Hyderabad
B
Vijayawada
C
Visakhapatnam
D
Guntur
Question 97Single Answer
When the Andhra University was established ?
A
1920
B
1926
C
1930
D
1937
Question 98Single Answer
When Seshachalam Hills declared as biosphere reserves of India ?
A
2006
B
2008
C
2010
D
2012
Question 99Single Answer
The Srisailam Dam is build on the river ?
A
Godavari
B
Krishna
C
Tungabhadra
D
Swarnamukhi
Question 100Single Answer
In which year the Telangana state is separated from Andhra Pradesh ?
A
2011
B
2012
C
2013
D
2014
Question 101Single Answer
Who is known as the father of Telugu cinema ?
A
RaghupathiVenkaiah Naidu
B
H. M. Reddy
C
BalaBharathiSamajam
D
C. Pullaiah
Question 102Single Answer
Which one is the first full length Telugu movie ?
A
Kalidas
B
Lavakusa
C
BhaktaPrahlada
D
Vandemataram
Question 103Single Answer
Who has produced the movie Bhakta Prahlada ?
A
Nageswara Rao
B
C. Pullaiah
C
G Ramabrahmam
D
H. M. Reddy
Question 104Single Answer
The Ramoji Film City was established in the year ?
A
1993
B
1996
C
1998
D
2001
Question 105Single Answer
In Tamil Nadu Petroleum Refinery is located at
A
Neyveli
B
Vellore
C
Manali
D
Avadi
Question 106Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 107Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 108Single Answer
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m
Question 109Single Answer
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront
Question 110Single Answer
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A
0.75 A
B
1 A
C
2 A
D
1.5 A
Question 111Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 112Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 113Single Answer
The one which decreases with dilution is
A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance
Question 114Single Answer
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm
Question 115Single Answer
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A
1 M solution of glucose
B
0.05 M solution of glucose
C
6% solution of glucose
D
25% solution of glucose
Question 116Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 117Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 118Single Answer
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%
Question 119Single Answer
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish
Question 120Single Answer
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A
Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B
Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C
shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D
Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Question 121Single Answer
Assertion (A) Biosphere constitutes an excellent life- support system which is sustainable and can fulfill all human needs . Reason (R): The size and productivity of the biosphere is limited availability of water, nutrients and environmental conditions .Identify the correct code:
A
Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct explanation of (a)
B
Both (a) and (r) are true, but (r) is not the correct explanation of (a).
C
(a) is true but (r) is false.
D
(a) is false but (r) is true .
Question 122Single Answer
Geostrophic wind occurs when pressure gradient force balances
A
Coriolis force
B
Fricitonal force
C
Centrpetal force
D
Coriolis and frictional force together
Question 123Single Answer
Scales of Meteorolgy are in the following adersatring from the least
A
Macro -, Micro-, Meso
B
Macro -, Meso -,Micro
C
Meso -, Macro -, Micro
D
Micro -, Meso-, Macro
Question 124Single Answer
When the full potential of physical , chemical and biological factors, a species can use if there is no competition , it is called
A
Fundamental niche
B
Ecological niche
C
Realized niche
D
Competitive exclusion
Question 125Single Answer
The uppermost zone of atmosphere of earth, where shortwave ultraviolet radiations are absorbed, is
A
Troposphere
B
Stratosphere
C
Mesosphere
D
Thermosphere
Question 126Single Answer
Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is the major air pollutant released from automobile exhausts ?
A
NO
B
N20
C
NO2
D
N2O3
Question 127Single Answer
Match List-1 with List-II which contains pollutant gases and their threshold (safe limit) values as per WHO standerds: List-I List-II (Pollutant gas) (Thersholds)
a. CO (i) 2 ppm
b. SO2 (ii) 50 ppm
c. NO (iii} 0.08ppm
d. PAN {iv} 25 ppm
Identity the correct code :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
B
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
C
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
D
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Question 128Single Answer
The band labeled as UV-C which is lethal to micro-organisms is
A
0.29-V 0.32μm
B
0.2-V 0.29μm
C
0.17-V 0.2μm
D
0.07-V 0.21μm
Question 129Single Answer
Which of the following species in the atmosphere is called atmospheric detergent?
A
Chlorine radical
B
Hydroxyl radical
C
Methyl radical
D
Ozone radical
Question 130Single Answer
Thep OH of a 0.001 M solution of HCI is
A
12
B
10
C
11
D
13
Question 131Single Answer
What major defence procurement deal was signed by India's Ministry of Defence in late 2025, effective in early 2026?
A
Rs 4,666 crore for carbines and torpedoes
B
Acquisition of Rafale jets
C
Purchase of S-400 systems
D
Indigenous aircraft carrier
Question 132Single Answer
Which military appointment took place in the Indian Air Force on January 1, 2026?
A
Air Marshal Nagesh Kapoor as Vice Chief of Air Staff
B
New Chief of Defence Staff
C
Army Chief change
D
Navy Chief appointment
Question 133Single Answer
Which event in Switzerland caused international mourning in early January 2026?
A
Fire at a ski resort bar
B
Political crisis
C
Earthquake
D
Floods
Question 134Single Answer
Which country became the first to implement weekly credit score updates from January 1, 2026?
A
India
B
United States
C
China
D
United Kingdom
Question 135Single Answer
What was the theme of the World Economic Forum Annual Meeting scheduled for January 19-23, 2026?
A
A Spirit of Dialogue
B
Rebuilding Trust
C
Future of Growth
D
Global Cooperation
Question 136Single Answer
Which humanitarian organizations were suspended from operating in Gaza starting January 1, 2026?
A
Doctors Without Borders, IRC, Oxfam, Caritas
B
UNRWA, WHO, UNICEF
C
Red Cross, Amnesty International
D
Save the Children, World Vision
Question 137Single Answer
What initiative was launched in India to empower rural women entrepreneurs in early 2026?
A
Gramin Shakti Yojana 2.0
B
Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
C
Stand-Up India
D
Mudra Yojana
Question 138Single Answer
Which global market event occurred on January 2, 2026, marking the first trading day of the year?
A
US stocks closed mixed with Treasury yields higher
B
Major crash in Asian markets
C
Bitcoin hit $100,000
D
Oil prices dropped below $50
Question 139Single Answer
What change occurred in India's 8th Pay Commission implementation from January 1, 2026?
A
Salary and pension revisions for central government employees
B
Elimination of DA
C
Reduction in basic pay
D
Merger with state pay scales
Question 140Single Answer
Which international event marked the beginning of 2026 with widespread fireworks displays worldwide?
A
New Year's Eve celebrations
B
Republic Day parades
C
Lunar New Year
D
Winter Olympics opening
Question 141Single Answer
Which country hosted the World Blitz Chess Championship in December 2025, with results announced in early January 2026?
A
India
B
Kazakhstan
C
Ukraine
D
Switzerland
Question 142Single Answer
Which financial change was implemented in India from January 1, 2026, regarding credit scores?
A
Weekly updates by credit bureaus
B
Annual updates only
C
Mandatory credit score sharing with employers
D
Elimination of credit scores
Question 143Single Answer
Who won the Women's section of the World Blitz Chess Championship announced in early January 2026?
A
Anna Muzychuk
B
Bibisara Assaubayeva
C
Hou Yifan
D
Ju Wenjun
Question 144Single Answer
Which new law or change took effect in the US on January 1, 2026, related to foreign nationals?
A
Suspension of certain visa issuances to protect national security
B
Mandatory green card renewals
C
Free entry for tourists from allied nations
D
Ban on all student visas
Question 145Single Answer
What significant economic milestone did India achieve by early 2026?
A
Became the world's third-largest economy
B
Surpassed Japan to become the fourth-largest economy
C
Achieved $5 trillion GDP
D
Overtook Germany in nominal GDP
Question 146Single Answer
Who launched initiatives under the Skilling for AI Readiness (SOAR) programme on January 1, 2026?
A
Prime Minister Narendra Modi
B
President Droupadi Murmu
C
Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan
D
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman
Question 147Single Answer
Which scheme completed nine years of implementation on January 1, 2026?
A
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY)
B
Pradhan Mantri Gram Swaraj Abhiyan
C
Ayushman Bharat
D
PM-KISAN
Question 148Single Answer
What tragic incident occurred in Crans-Montana, Switzerland, on New Year's Eve 2025/January 1, 2026?
A
A major earthquake
B
A fire and explosion at a bar killing at least 46 people
C
A political protest turning violent
D
A ski resort avalanche
Question 149Single Answer
Which state in India became the first to establish a national Artificial Intelligence research institution under a PPP model, starting operations on January 1, 2026?
A
Karnataka
B
Maharashtra
C
Gujarat
D
Kerala
Question 150Single Answer
What major policy change did India Post implement from January 1, 2026?
A
Discontinuation of certain outward international letter mail services
B
Introduction of free international parcel delivery
C
Mandatory digital tracking for all domestic mails
D
Increase in stamp prices for inland letters
Rural Development and Problems in Rural Areas
Question 151Single Answer
What is the difference between stock and supply
A
Stock is a flow concept whereas supply is no
B
Supply is a flow concept and stock is not a flow.com
C
Both supply and stock are flow concepts
D
None of the above
Question 152Single Answer
What is the shape of supply curve
A
Convex to x axis or upward sloping
B
Downward sloping
C
Concave
D
Can be any of the
Question 153Single Answer
What is the relation between individual and market supply curve
A
Market supply curve is the horizontal summation of individual supply curve
B
Market demand curve is the vertical summation of individual supply curve
C
Individual supply curve is the horizontal summation of market demand curve
D
Individual supply curve is the vertical summation of market demand curve
Question 154Single Answer
Contraction and extension of supply means
A
Increase in supply due to increased price and decrease in supply due
decreased price
B
Decrease in supply due to increased price increase in supply due to decreased
price
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 155Single Answer
More supply at same price and same supply at lower price means
A
Increased supply
B
Decreased supply
C
Constant supply
D
None of the above
Question 156Single Answer
Decrease in supply means
A
Less supply at same price and same supply at higher price
B
Higher supply at same price and same supply at decreased price
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 157Single Answer
Elasticity of supply is given by
A
% A quantity supplied / %A in demand
B
% A quantity demanded / % A in supply
C
% 4 in supply / % 4 in price
D
None of the above
Question 158Single Answer
Pick the incorrect one out in terms of (es= elasticity of supply)
A) Perfectly inelastic - es = 0
B) Perfectly elastic - es = 0
C) Inelastic - es <1
D) Elastic - es = 1
E) Unitary elastic - es = 1
A
Only A
B
Only B
C
Only C
D
None of the above
Question 159Single Answer
Market is in equilibrium when
A
Quantity demanded = quantity supplied
B
Quantity demanded > quantity supplied
C
Quantity demanded < quantity supplied
D
All of the above
Question 160Single Answer
Which one of the following is not correctly matched
A
Surplus when quantity supplied > quantity demanded
B
Deficit when quantity supplied < quantity demanded
C
Elastic supply curve has elasticity > 1
D
None of the above
Question 161Single Answer
Supply curve shift towards right side if
A
Prices are expected to increase in future
B
Prices are expected to decrease in future
C
Prices of relative products decrease
D
All of the above
Question 162Single Answer
Reduction in input prices leads to
A
Increase in supply
B
Decrease in supply
C
Constant supply
D
Can be any of the above
Question 163Single Answer
Shift in supply curve can also be written as
A
Increase or decrease in supply
B
Extension or contraction of supply
C
Increase or decrease in supply due to factors other
D
Both a and c
Question 164Single Answer
Cardinal utility analysis was given by
A
Alfred Marshall
B
Adam Smith
C
Lionel Robbins
D
None of the above
Question 165Single Answer
Cardinal utility analysis comprises of
A
Law of diminishing marginal utility or law of life
B
Law of equi marginal utility
C
Indifference curve approach
D
Both a and b
Question 166Single Answer
Law of life states
A
Marginal utility of a product decreases when the consumer has more and more of it
B
Each successive unit of a commodity brings in lesser and lesser utility
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 167Single Answer
Which among the following are the assumptions of law of life
A
Cardinal measurability of utility meaning utility can be quantified an
Introspective method
B
Utilities are independent and marginal utility of money is constant
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 168Single Answer
Total utility is
A
Sum of marginal utilities
B
Maximum when marginal utility is zero
C
Summation of satisfaction gained from consuming various units
D
All of the above
Question 169Single Answer
Marginal utility and price is
A
Directly related
B
Inversely related
C
Unrelated
D
Both a and b
Question 170Single Answer
Area under marginal utility curve represents
A
Total utility
B
Total disutility
C
Average utility
D
None of the above
Question 171Single Answer
Condition for equilibrium under diminishing marginal utility
A
Total utility maximum and marginal utility is zero
B
Total utility zero and marginal utility maximum
C
Both total and marginal utility is maximum
D
Both total and marginal utility zero
Question 172Single Answer
Law of equi marginal utility is also called as
A
Principle of proportion and law of maximum satisfaction
B
Law of opportunity cost and law of substitution and Gossen's second law
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 173Single Answer
Which among the following is not correctly matched
A) Limited resource -law of equi marginal utility
B) Unlimited or given resource -law of diminishing marginal utility
C) Utility - measured in terms of degrees
D) Utility -measured in terms of utils
A
Both A and C
B
Both B and D
C
Only C
D
Only D
Question 174Single Answer
Equilibrium under many commodities and same price for law of equi marginal utility is given by
A
Marginal utility of last unit consumed is nearly equal to first
B
Marginal utility of last unit consumed is exactly equal to first
C
Marginal utility of last unit consumed is greater than first
D
None of the above
Question 175Single Answer
Equilibrium under two or more than two commodities under law of substitution is given by
A
MUx/Px= MUY/PY
B
MUX/Py= MUY/Px
C
MUX/Px= MUY.Py
D
MUX.Px= MUY/Py
Question 176Single Answer
Concept of consumer surplus was given by
A
Alfred Marshall
B
Adam Smith
C
Samuelson
D
Walker
Question 177Single Answer
Consumer surplus is defined as
A
Difference between price a consumer pays and th
B
Difference between the actual price and what the
C
Difference between the price a consumer is willing pays
D
None of the above
Question 178Single Answer
Consumer surplus is
A
Inversely proportional to price
B
Directly proportional to price
C
Not related to price
D
None of the above
Question 179Single Answer
Consumer surplus can be stated as
A
Marginal utility - market price (for a unit of commodity)
B
Total utility - total amount spent
C
Value in use - value in exchange
D
All of the above
Question 180Single Answer
J R Hicks and Allen gave
A
Indifference curve technique
B
Law of diminishing marginal utility
C
Law of equi marginal utility
D
All of the above
Question 181Single Answer
Ordinal utility means
A
Utility can be measured
B
Utility cannot be measured
C
Utilities can be ranked
D
Both b and c
Question 182Single Answer
Which of the following is the assumption of indifference curve approach
A
Consistency - if in a condition A, person chooses X over Y, he will not choose y over X in other condition
B
Transitivity - A is preferred to B and B is preferred to C then A is preferred to
C
Non satiation - more of a good is always preferred to less
D
All of the above
Question 183Single Answer
Assumption of convexity in indifference curve means
A
Consumer prefers to have exclusively one good rather than two
B
Consumer prefers to have some amount of both goods rather than one goou only
C
Consumer is never satisfied
D
Consumer is always satisfied with whatever he has
Question 184Single Answer
Indifference map is
A
Family of indifference curve
B
Another name of indifference curve
C
Expression of scale of preferences
D
Both a and c
Question 185Single Answer
Indifference curve is
A
Convex shaped
B
Concave shape
C
Straight line sloping downward
D
Straight line sloping upwards
Question 186Single Answer
Higher indifference curve means
A
Higher satisfaction
B
No satisfaction
C
Same satisfaction
D
Lower satisfaction
Question 187Single Answer
Marginal rate of substitution between good X and Y is stated as
A
Amount of good Y a person is ready to let go to gain one unit of good X
B
Amount of good X a person is ready to let go to gain one unit of good Y
C
Amount of good X demanded to let go of a unit of good Y
D
None of the above
Question 188Single Answer
Diminishing marginal rate of substitution between good X and Y means
A
A person is ready to let go less and less of Y as he has more and more of good
B
Decreasing value of slope of indifference curve
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 189Single Answer
Slope of indifference curve is
A
Marginal rate of substitution (MRS)
B
Total utility (TU)
C
Marginal rate of complementarity (MRC)
D
Marginal rate of utility (MRU)
Question 190Single Answer
A line that shows all possible combinations of two goods that can be bought with the given amount of income is called as
A
Isocost line
B
Iso revenue line
C
Budget line
D
None of the above
Question 191Single Answer
Budget line is also called as
A
Price line
B
Outlay or expenditure line
C
Budget constraint
D
All of the above
Question 192Single Answer
Indifference curves
A
Never intersect
B
Can intersect
C
Touch either of the axis
D
None of the above
Question 193Single Answer
Equilibrium equation under indifference curve method is given by (for two goods X and Y, p = price)
A
MRSxy = Px/Py
B
AY/AX = Px/Py
C
MRSxy = Py/Px
D
Both a and b
Question 194Single Answer
Conditions of equilibrium under indifference curve are
A
First order condition - MRS = inverse price ratio
B
Second order condition - MRS should be decreasing at the point of equilibrium
C
Third order condition - Indifference curves intersect x axis at point of equilibrium
D
Both a and b
Question 195Single Answer
Which of the following is incorrect regarding Indifference curves
A
Normal goods - convex
B
Perfect substitutes - download sloping straight line
C
Perfect complements - L shaped
D
None of the above
Question 196Single Answer
With nominal income fixed, what happens to real income when prices fall, it!
A
Increases
B
Decreases
C
Remains constant
D
Becomes zero
Question 197Single Answer
Formula for real income is given by
A
Nominal income/quantity demanded
B
Nominal income/price index
C
Nominal income x price index
D
Price index/nominal income
Question 198Single Answer
Change in quantity demanded due to change in price, with nominal income constant is called as
A
Substitution effect
B
Price effect
C
Income effect
D
None of the above
Question 199Single Answer
Substitution effect is described as
A
Change in quantity demanded due to change in own price
B
Change in quantity demanded to change in relative price
C
Change in quantity demanded due to change in income
D
Both a and c
Question 200Single Answer
Price effect is equal to
A
Income effect - substitution effect
B
Income effect + substitution effect
C
Income effect / substitution effect
D
Income effect x substitution
Question 201Single Answer
An out-of-school system of education for rural people:
A
Extension
B
Management
C
Participation
D
Communication
Question 202Single Answer
Extension literally means:
A
Stretching out
B
Talking with
C
Deciding for
D
Thinking about
Question 203Single Answer
The term ‘Extension’ have originated in:
A
Latin
B
Persian
C
Greek
D
Sanskrit
Question 204Single Answer
The Latin roots for the word ‘extension’:
A
ex and tensio
B
ex and tension
C
ex and luceo
D
ex and termo
Question 205Single Answer
The term “University Extension” was first used in:
A
1866
B
1972
C
1901
D
1921
Question 206Single Answer
The person considered as father of extension:
A
James Stewatt
B
Seaman A Knapp
C
Edgar Dale
D
Paul Leagans
Question 207Single Answer
The term “Extension Education” was first coined in:
A
USA
B
UK
C
Netherlands
D
India
Question 208Single Answer
The first use of the word extension was done by:
A
Vorhees
B
Seaman A Knapp
C
Edgar Dale
D
Paul Leagans
Question 209Single Answer
The person considered as father of extension in india:
A
Adivi Reddy
B
O P Dahama
C
K N Singh
D
J B Chitambar
Question 210Single Answer
Extension can be considered to have developed from:
A
Sociology
B
Psychology
C
Education
D
Philosophy
Question 211Single Answer
‘Vulgarisation’ in French is equivalent to the word:
A
Social taboos
B
Education
C
Extension
D
Social change
Question 212Single Answer
Extension is a communication intervention according to:
A
N Roling
B
R Chambers
C
Van den Ban
D
G L Ray
Question 213Single Answer
Extension when aims at empowering or uplifting the poor:
A
Emancipatory extension
B
Formative extension
C
Informative extension
D
Persuasive extension
Question 214Single Answer
The Dutch word for extension “Voorlichting” means:
A
Lighting the path
B
Advisory work
C
Improving skills
D
Simplification
Question 215Single Answer
The father of demonstration in extension is:
A
Seamann A Knapp
B
Rober Chambers
C
Gabriale De Thorde
D
James Stewatt
Question 216Single Answer
The use of computers in technology transfer
A
Emancipatory extension
B
Participatory extension
C
Cyber extension
D
Broad based extension
Question 217Single Answer
Extension cam be considered as:
A
Teaching and learning process
B
Applied behavioural science
C
Decision oriented science
D
All of the above
Question 218Single Answer
The book entitled “Extension Science” is written by:
A
N Roling
B
R Chambers
C
Van den Ban
D
G L Ray
Question 219Single Answer
Extension as a science is classified under:
A
Hard science
B
Soft science
C
Pure science
D
Physical science
Question 220Single Answer
Extension is not:
A
Voluntary
B
Family centered
C
Conclusion oriented
D
Flexible
Question 221Single Answer
Extension can be considered as a:
A
Service
B
Profession
C
Discipline
D
All of the above
Question 222Single Answer
Extension basically is a two way process between:
A
Farmer and researcher
B
Researcher and planner
C
Teacher and planner
D
Researcher and teacher
Question 223Single Answer
Extension that emphasize on human resource development:
A
Emancipatory extension
B
Formative extension
C
Informative extension
D
Persuasive extension
Question 224Single Answer
Extension when used as a policy instrument for achieving societial objective:
A
Emancipatory extension
B
Formative extension
C
Informative extension
D
Persuasive extension
Question 225Single Answer
Extension that moves beyond the traditional crop production technologies to include all land based activities:
A
Universal extension
B
Cyber-extension
C
Emancipatory extension
D
Broad based extension
Question 226Single Answer
Farmers first model was proposed by:
A
A Reddy
B
R Chambers
C
Van den Ban
D
R M Rogers
Question 227Single Answer
Extension as an instrument for helping people to make well-considered choices:
A
Emancipatory extension
B
Formative extension
C
Informative extension
D
Persuasive extension
Question 228Single Answer
The instrument used by extension to bring change:
A
Communication
B
Teaching
C
Learning
D
Adoption
Question 229Single Answer
Extension can be effective only through:
A
Voluntary change
B
Democratic change
C
Autocratic change
D
Persuasive change
Question 230Single Answer
The main mode of extension in the farmer first model:
A
Farmer to farmer
B
Agent to farmer
C
Researcher to agent
D
Researcher to farmer
Question 231Single Answer
“Challenging the professionals” is a book written by:
A
N Roling
B
R Chambers
C
Van den Ban
D
G L Ray
Question 232Single Answer
The satellite model concept of extension was formulated by:
A
M S Swaminathan
B
G Perumal
C
Curt Lewin
D
Anil Gupta
Question 233Single Answer
The basic element at the core of extension education is:
A
Man himself
B
Man and environment
C
Institutions
D
Farmers
Question 234Single Answer
The fundamental objective of extension work is:
A
Development of farmer
B
Development of individual
C
Development of culture
D
Development of society
Question 235Single Answer
The Ultimate objective of extension is:
A
Increase productivity
B
Increase income
C
Rural development
D
Realize ones fullest potential
Question 236Single Answer
The book entitled “Agricultural Extension” was written by:
A
A Reddy
B
R Chambers
C
Van den Ban
D
R M Rogers
Question 237Single Answer
Extension education is:
A
Formal education
B
Informal education
C
Non-formal education
D
All of the above
Question 238Single Answer
The basic objective of extension education is to create opportunities for:
A
Greater awareness
B
Effective learning
C
Promoting knowledge
D
Feeling aloof
Question 239Single Answer
The basic logic applicable in extension education:
A
Horizontal logic
B
Deductive logic
C
Inductive logic
D
Lateral logic
Question 240Single Answer
The basic unit of extension work is:
A
Individual
B
Society
C
Family
D
Community
Question 241Single Answer
Agricultural extension deals with:
A
Farmers
B
Change agents
C
Farmers and change agents
D
None of these
Question 242Single Answer
An extension worker help farmers to attain desirable changes in his:
A
Temperament
B
Behaviour
C
Health
D
Wealth
Question 243Single Answer
Leadership development in extension is:
A
A means
B
An end
C
Both means and end
D
None of the above
Question 244Single Answer
Most useful leader in agricultural extension is:
A
Voluntary leader
B
Bureaucratic leader
C
Automatic leader
D
Democratic leader
Question 245Single Answer
An extension worker is a:
A
Professional leader
B
Lay leader
C
Local leader
D
Voluntary leader
Question 246Single Answer
An extension agent is considered to be a:
A
Personal cosmopolite
B
Impersonal cosmopolite
C
Personal localite
D
Impersonal localite
Question 247Single Answer
The internal state which stimulate the individual to carry out certain activities is:
A
Perception
B
Motivation
C
Intuition
D
Learning
Question 248Single Answer
The motivational type most important for extension is:
A
Extrinsic motivation
B
Intrinsic motivation
C
Situational motivation
D
Classical motivation
Question 249Single Answer
“If I have to get that gold medal, I should work hard at studies”. reflects:
A
Determination
B
Intrinsic motivation
C
Industriousness
D
Extrinsic motivation
Question 250Single Answer
Indian Journal of Extension Education is published from:
A
GBPUAT, Pant nagar
B
IARI, New Delhi
C
TNAU, Coimbatore
D
Directorate of Extension
Question 251Single Answer
Fat contain
A
3.9 Kcal. of energy per gm
B
9.3 Kcal. of energy per gm
C
9.3 Kcal. of energy per molecule
D
7.3 Kcal. of energy per gm
Question 252Single Answer
The proteins found only in animal body are
A
Glutelins
B
Albumins
C
Scleroproteins
D
All of the above
Question 253Single Answer
The sulphur containing amino acids are
A
Lysine
B
Alanine & valine
C
Arginine
D
Cysteine & methionine
Question 254Single Answer
Zwitter ion contain
A
+ve charge
B
-ve charge
C
Little or no net charge
D
More +ve charge and less -ve charge
Question 255Single Answer
The water soluble vitamins are
A
Vitamin A and D
B
Vitamin B - complex and Vitamin C
C
Vitamin E and K
D
All of the above
Question 256Single Answer
Gallic acid is chief components of
A
Condensed tannins
B
Hydrolysable tannins
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 257Single Answer
The flavonoids synthesized in plants are by
A
Mevaloni acid pathway
B
Malonic acid pathway
C
Shikmic acid pathway
D
Both (a) & (b)
Question 258Single Answer
The correct general formula of the carbohydrate is
A
Cn (H2O)n
B
C2n (H2,O)n
C
Cn (H2,O)2n
D
None of the above
Question 259Single Answer
Raffinose and gentianose are the example of
A
Disaccharides
B
Trisaccharides
C
Polysaccharides
D
Monosaccharides
Question 260Single Answer
If the optically active compound rotates the plane polarised light to right side, it is called as.........................and is denote by...............
A
Dextrorotary and is denoted by small italic letter d or + sigh
B
Levorotary and is denoted by small italic letter l or - sigh
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 261Single Answer
If the optically active compound rotates the plane polarised light to left side, it is called as................................and is denote by..................
A
Dextrorotary and is denoted by small italic letter d or + sigh
B
Levorotary and is denoted by small italic letter 1 or - sigh
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 262Single Answer
If the highest numbered asymmetric carbon atom of the sugar molecule contains -OH group on right-hand side in open chain structure, the sugar is known as
A
L-sugar
B
D-sugar
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 263Single Answer
If the highest numbered asymmetric carbon atom of the sugar molecule contains -OH group on left-hand side in open chain structure, the sugar is known as
A
L-sugar
B
D-sugar
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 264Single Answer
Starch, insulin and glycogen are the
A
Oligosaccharide
B
Storage polysaccharide
C
Structural polysaccharide
D
None of the above
Question 265Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a reducing sugar
A
Glucose
B
Ribose
C
Maltose
D
Sucrose
Question 266Single Answer
Term protein was first coined by
A
Berzelius in 1838
B
Bloor in 1943
C
W. Kuhne in 1929
D
None of the above
Question 267Single Answer
The size of protein is depends upon the
A
Nature of solubility
B
No. of amino acids taking part in the synthesis
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 268Single Answer
Which of the following is the smallest protein
A
Insulin
B
Globulin
C
Prolamins
D
None of the above
Question 269Single Answer
Plant proteins differ from animal proteins in shortage of
A
Nitrogen
B
Oxygen
C
Carbon
D
Sulphur
Question 270Single Answer
Ricin in castor & Leucosin in cereals are the water soluble ........ protein
A
Globulins
B
Albumins
C
Glutelins
D
Prolamins
Question 271Single Answer
Which of the following proteins are soluble in 80% alcohol (ethanol) and not soluble in water or salt solutions
A
Prolamins
B
Gliadin in wheat & Zein in maize
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 272Single Answer
Which of the following proteins are not soluble in water but soluble in salt solution
A
Tuberin & legumin
B
Globulins
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 273Single Answer
The protein leucosin is found in
A
Most of the cereals
B
Mustard
C
Spices
D
None of the above
Question 274Single Answer
Term lipid was coined by
A
Berzelius in 1838
B
Kuhne in 1929
C
German biochemist Bloor (1943)
D
None of the above
Question 275Single Answer
Lipoprotein is the important gradient of
A
Cell membrane
B
Mitochondria
C
Golgi bodies
D
None of the above
Question 276Single Answer
Fatty acids are
A
Saturated
B
Unsaturated
C
Either saturated or unsaturated
D
None of the above
Question 277Single Answer
Majority of the fatty acids are synthesized by...........except linoleic acid, linolenic acid & arachidonic acid
A
Plant cell
B
Human body cell
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 278Single Answer
Lauric acid found in laurel kennel oil having the.......... number of carbon atom in the their chemical formula
A
12
B
16
C
18
D
20
Question 279Single Answer
Number of carbon atoms in Palmitic acid are
A
12
B
16
C
18
D
20
Question 280Single Answer
Number of carbon atoms in stearic acid are
A
12
B
16
C
18
D
20
Question 281Single Answer
Number of carbon atom in arachidic acid are
A
12
B
16
C
18
D
20
Question 282Single Answer
Which of the following is the source of arachidic acid
A
Peanut oil
B
Cocoa & butter
C
Animal fat & palm oil
D
Laurel kenel oil
Question 283Single Answer
Which of the following is the source of stearic acid
A
Peanut oil
B
Cocoa & butter
C
Animal fat & palm oil
D
Laurel kenel oil
Question 284Single Answer
Which of the following is the source of palmitic acid
A
Peanut oil
B
Cocoa & butter
C
Animal fat & palm oil
D
Laurel kennel oil
Question 285Single Answer
Which of the following is the source of lauric acid
A
Peanut oil
B
Cocoa & butter
C
Animal fat & palm oil
D
Laurel kennel oil
Question 286Single Answer
Pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) is also known as
A
Warburg-Dickens pathway
B
Direct oxidation pathway
C
Hexose monophosphate shunt
D
All of the above
Question 287Single Answer
Glycolysis is a
A
Greek word
B
Latin word
C
German world
D
None of the above
Question 288Single Answer
Pyruvate is a
A
Triose sugar
B
Tetrose sugar
C
Pentose sugar
D
None of the above
Question 289Single Answer
In the mechanism of glycolysis, the formation of glucose-6-phosphate is also known as
A
Robinson's ester
B
Newberg's ester
C
Harden & Young's ester
D
None of the above
Question 290Single Answer
In the mechanism of glycolysis, the formation of fructose-6-phosphate is also known as
A
Robinson's ester
B
Newberg's ester
C
Harden & Young's ester
D
None of the above
Question 291Single Answer
In the mechanism of glycolysis, the formation of fructose 1, 6-bi-phosphate is also known as
A
Robinson's ester
B
Newberg's ester
C
Harden & Young's ester
D
None of the above
Question 292Single Answer
Which one is not a reducing sugar
A
Glucose
B
Fructose
C
Maltose
D
Sucrose
Question 293Single Answer
Which one is not an oligosaccharide
A
Insulin
B
Raffinose
C
Lactose
D
Sucrose
Question 294Single Answer
Which one is a polysaccharide
A
Raffinose
B
Lactose
C
Sucrose
D
Insulin
Question 295Single Answer
The aldose sugar (glucose) is optically active and
A
Dextrorotatory
B
Laevorotatory
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 296Single Answer
The ketose sugar (Fructose) is optically active and
A
Dextrorotatory
B
Laevorotatory
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 297Single Answer
Which one of the following is mucopolysaccharide
A
Chitin
B
Pectin
C
Lecithin
D
Cellulose
Question 298Single Answer
The enzyme cellulose synthase are found in which part of the cell
A
Nucleoplasm
B
Cytoplasm
C
Golgi body
D
Plasma membrane
Question 299Single Answer
In plants callose are found in
A
Sieve tubes of phloem
B
Parenchyma
C
Cambium ring
D
Xylem
Question 300Single Answer
Water (H2O) is oxide of hydrogen in which the two hydrogen atoms are jointed to oxygen atom by covalent bond forming an angle of