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Question Bank

Question for APSC Junior Engineer Electrical - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 11, 2026

Duration: 120 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100

View Assam Junior Engineer (Electrical) 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in APSC Junior Engineer Electrical exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in APSC Junior Engineer Electrical exams.

Latest APSC Junior Engineer Electrical Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Studies & General English

Question Bank APSC Junior Engineer (Electrical) Exam Paper 1 - English

General Studies & General English

Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
  1. A.financial system            
  2. B.tax system
  3. C.patents and copyrights  
  4. D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
  1. A.2nd plan
  2. B.3rd plan
  3. C.5th plan
  4. D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
  1. A.sales tax           
  2. B.custom tax
  3. C.excise tax         
  4. D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
  1. A.National Income Committee
  2. B.Planning Commission
  3. C.Reserve Bank Of India
  4. D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
  1. A.April 1951         
  2. B.April 1955
  3. C.April 1957         
  4. D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
  1. A.2008     
  2. B.2009
  3. C.2010     
  4. D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
  1. A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
  2. B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
  3. C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
  4. D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
  1. A.President
  2. B.Prime Minister
  3. C.Finance Minister
  4. D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
  1. A.a
  2. B.an
  3. C.some
  4. D.the
Q 17 :
Have the car stolen!
  1. A.Steal the car
  2. B.You should have the stolen car
  3. C.Get someone to steal the car
  4. D.They have stolen the car
Q 18 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
  1. A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
  2. B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
  3. C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
  4. D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 19 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
  1. A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
  2. B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
  3. C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
  4. D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 20 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
  1. A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
  2. B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
  3. C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
  4. D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them. 
Q 21 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
  1. A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
  2. B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
  3. C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
  4. D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 22 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
  1. A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
  2. B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
  3. C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
  4. D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 23 :
We shall invite Suresh.
  1. A.Suresh would be invited by us
  2. B.Suresh would have been invited by us
  3. C.Suresh will be invited by us
  4. D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 24 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
  1. A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
  2. B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
  3. C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
  4. D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 25 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow. 
  1. A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
  2. B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
  3. C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
  4. D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 26 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
Q 27 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
Q 28 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 29 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
Q 30 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 31 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 32 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
Q 33 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 34 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 35 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
Q 36 :
Consider the following with reference to the East India Association organised in London:
1. It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
2. The organisation aimed to present correct information about India to the British public and voice Indian grievances.
3. The East India Association incorporated the National Indian Association before the Komagata Maru incident.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only
Q 37 :
The aim of the Indian Association found by Surendranath Banerjee was to
  1. A.Represent the views of the educated middle class and take united community action.
  2. B.Give shape to and establish the Indian National Congress.
  3. C.Advocate constitutional reforms through legislative action.
  4. D.Organise seditious movements to dethrone the British empire.
Q 38 :
The Unionist Party was a powerful political party during the period 1923–1947. Consider  the following about this party:
1. The party represented the interests of land holders-Hindus, Muslims and also the Sikhs.
2. The party was particularly powerful in the Punjab region and it did not favour the creation of Pakistan as a separate state.
Which of the above is/are correct?
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both
  4. D.None
Q 39 :
The Ilbert Bill controversy is said to be a high watermark in the history of Indian National Movement.
This is because it invoked issues of
1. Racial discrimination between Indian and Europeans.
2. Security lapse on the Indian borders, especially the North-West Frontier Province.
3. Suppression of Indian media houses and their nationalisation by the government.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only
Q 40 :
​The Vernacular Press Act in British India was concerned with
  1. A.Promoting local language new for generating local employment
  2. B.Providing for licensing and rep of newspapers published by indigenous tribes
  3. C.Banning all vernacular la publications in India
  4. D.None of the above
Q 41 :
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian National Congress towards princely states in British India:
1. The Indian National Congress, for the first time at its Nagpur session in 1920, enunciated its policy towards the peoples' movement in the princely states.
2. Post withdrawal of non-cooperation movement, the Indian National Congress adopted the policy of total non- interference in the political status of the princely states.
Which of the above is/are correct?
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.None
Q 42 :
Who among the following are associated with the finding of the Indian National Congress?
1. Badruddin Taiyabji
2. A.O. Hume
3. Dinshaw Edulji Wacha
4. Surendranath Banerjee
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
  1. A.2 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 3 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 3 and 4 only
Q 43 :
The moderates were so called because
1. They had rejected the idea of participating in legislative councils and instead believed in peaceful protests.
2. They relied on organised struggle against the British, something that was opposite to the extremist camp.
Which of the above is/are correct?
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.None
Q 44 :
The 'Home charges' mentioned in the drain theory by Dadabhai Naoroji included
1. Profits from local trade monopolies by the British
2. Remittances out of British official's income sent to Europe.
3. Charges of British administrative set up in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.3 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.None
Q 45 :
The British used political control to subordinate the Indian economy and society to the needs of the British economy and society. Among them, 'Drain of wealth' was caused by
1. Plunder and taxation.
2. Employment of Englishmen in India (Home charges).
3. Investing British capital in India.
4. Free and unequal trade with India.
Choose the correct answer from the codes below.
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.All of the above
  3. C.1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.4 only
Q 46 :
The Cripps mission was an attempt by the British government to
  1. A.Extend communal representation in the Imperial legislature
  2. B.Convince the Congress to join the Central legislature
  3. C.Secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II
  4. D.Conclude the Round Table Conferences Successfully
Q 47 :
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. India would be a dominion associated with the United Kingdom
2. An elected body charged with the task of making the constitution would be setup immediately after the World War Il is stopped.
Which of the above is/are correct?
  1. A.I only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.None
Q 48 :
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up and it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth
2. After the end of the World War I, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution
3. Any province not willing to join the Indian Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union
Which of the above is/are correct?
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Q 49 :
Why Indian National Congress (INC) leaders were not satisfied with the Cripps Mission (1942) proposals?
  1. A.Cripps Mission did not address the issue of separate electorates.
  2. B.Cripps Mission did not deliberate any matter with the Indian leaders and proposed unilateral measures.
  3. C.Leaders wanted full independence rather than a dominion status.
  4. D.Cripps Mission agreed for post-war real transfer of power but maintained that the Viceroy and Secretary of State shall be appointed by the crown.
Q 50 :
Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch 'Individual Satyagraha' due to dissatisfaction With
  1. A.Government of India Act, 1935 which eroded autonomy of local bodies
  2. B.Religious intolerance in the countryside
  3. C.August offer made by the British during the course of the Second World War
  4. D.State of untouchables in the country

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