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Objective Questions

Latest APSSB Junior Health Assistant Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Awareness, General Intelligence & Reasoning, Arithmetical Ability, English Language & Comprehension, Technical Subject

Question Bank APSSB Junior Health Assistant Exam - English

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General Awareness

Question 1Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 2Single Answer

Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?

A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu

Question 3Single Answer

Which is the national game of Bhutan ?

A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery

Question 4Single Answer

When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?

A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950

Question 5Single Answer

Which is the longest river in India?

A
Yamuna
B
Ganges
C
Brahmaputra
D
Godavari

Question 6Single Answer

The Western Ghats are also known as:

A
Sahyadris
B
Vindhyas
C
Satpuras
D
Aravallis

Question 7Single Answer

Who among the following was associated with Enlightenment philosophy?

A
Voltaire
B
Shakespeare
C
Erasmus
D
All of the above

Question 8Single Answer

When did World War II end?

A
1918
B
1939
C
1946
D
1945

Question 9Single Answer

What is the name of the next phase of India’s semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?

A
Chip India 3.0
B
India Chip Mission
C
Semicon 2.0
D
Semiconductor Bharat

Question 10Single Answer

Which country conferred its highest honour for foreign leaders, the ‘Oliy Darajali Do‘stlik Order’, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi?

A
Kazakhstan
B
Kyrgyzstan
C
Uzbekistan
D
Tajikistan

General Intelligence & Reasoning

Question 11Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 12Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 13Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 14Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 15Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 16Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 17Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 18Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 19Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 20Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Arithmetical Ability

Question 21Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 22Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 23Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 24Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 25Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 26Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 27Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 28Single Answer

Passage :

information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206

Question 29Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these

Question 30Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?

A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%

English Language & Comprehension

Question 31Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 32Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 33Single Answer

The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Question 34Single Answer

I had to stop all my work to complete this project.

A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me

Question 35Single Answer

They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Question 36Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 37Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 38Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Affidavit

A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony

Question 39Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Hollow

A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid

Question 40Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Cosset

A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle

Technical Subject

Question 41Single Answer

The primary purpose of a trauma system is to:

A
Provide only surgical care
B
Treat only road traffic injuries
C
Reduce preventable death and disability from injuries
D
Provide rehabilitation only

Question 42Single Answer

Which of the following is an essential component of a trauma system?

A
All of the above
B
Pre-hospital care
C
Trauma critical care
D
Injury prevention

Question 43Single Answer

Injury prevention is primarily aimed at:

A
Increasing hospitalization
B
Increasing ambulance transport
C
Reducing the occurrence and severity of injuries
D
Increasing surgical procedures

Question 44Single Answer

Wearing a helmet while riding a motorcycle is an example of:

A
Tertiary prevention
B
Secondary prevention
C
Primary injury prevention
D
Rehabilitation

Question 45Single Answer

Seat belts mainly reduce the risk of:

A
Infectious diseases
B
Road traffic injury severity
C
Food poisoning
D
Heat stroke

Question 46Single Answer

Which measure is most effective in preventing road traffic injuries?

A
Driving without a seat belt
B
Over-speeding
C
Ignoring traffic lights
D
Safe driving practices

Question 47Single Answer

The first link in an effective trauma care system is generally:

A
Injury prevention
B
Rehabilitation
C
ICU admission
D
Surgery

Question 48Single Answer

The term “pre-hospital care” refers to care given:

A
After discharge
B
Only inside an ICU
C
Before reaching a hospital
D
During rehabilitation

Question 49Single Answer

The most important initial objective of pre-hospital trauma care is to:

A
Complete detailed investigations
B
Perform definitive surgery
C
Stabilize life-threatening conditions
D
Start rehabilitation

Question 50Single Answer

In trauma care, the ABC approach stands for:

A
Alertness, Blood, Consciousness
B
Airway, Breathing, Circulation
C
Airway, Blood pressure, CT scan
D
Assessment, Bandage, Care

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Technical Subject

Question 51Single Answer

In the initial assessment of a trauma patient, the first priority is:

A
Airway
B
Fracture reduction
C
X-ray
D
Wound dressing

Question 52Single Answer

Cervical spine protection is especially important in a patient with:

A
Minor skin rash
B
Suspected head or neck trauma
C
Ear infection
D
Diarrhea

Question 53Single Answer

Which device is commonly used to immobilize the cervical spine?

A
Eye pad
B
Abdominal binder
C
Wrist band
D
Cervical collar

Question 54Single Answer

An unconscious trauma victim should be assumed to have a cervical spine injury until:

A
Family arrives
B
Patient becomes hungry
C
Injury is ruled out appropriately
D
Blood pressure rises

Question 55Single Answer

Severe external bleeding should initially be controlled by:

A
Massage
B
Giving water
C
Direct pressure
D
Applying heat

Question 56Single Answer

A tourniquet may be considered when:

A
Life-threatening extremity bleeding cannot be controlled by direct pressure
B
Minor abrasion is present
C
There is a headache
D
The patient is coughing

Question 57Single Answer

Shock following severe trauma is commonly caused by:

A
Excess sleep
B
Blood loss
C
Mild fever
D
Constipation

Question 58Single Answer

A common sign of hypovolemic shock is:

A
Increased urine output
B
Slow strong pulse
C
Warm dry skin in all cases
D
Rapid pulse

Question 59Single Answer

A trauma patient with severe bleeding may develop:

A
Hypovolemic shock
B
Hyperthyroidism
C
Glaucoma
D
Otitis media

Question 60Single Answer

Which is an important pre-hospital intervention for suspected fracture?

A
Repeated movement
B
Vigorous exercise
C
Immobilization
D
Massage

Question 61Single Answer

Splinting an injured limb primarily helps to:

A
Increase movement
B
Cause swelling
C
Reduce pain and prevent further injury
D
Increase bleeding

Question 62Single Answer

Before and after splinting a limb, the health worker should assess:

A
Distal circulation
B
Hair colour
C
Appetite
D
Hearing

Question 63Single Answer

The best method of transporting a severely injured patient is:

A
Using any vehicle regardless of condition
B
Making the patient walk
C
Using an appropriate ambulance with trained personnel
D
Delaying transport unnecessarily

Question 64Single Answer

The “golden hour” in trauma emphasizes:

A
Waiting one hour before treatment
B
One hour of complete rest
C
Timely assessment and treatment after serious injury
D
Giving food within one hour

Question 65Single Answer

Delay in definitive trauma care generally:

A
Prevents infection completely
B
Always improves recovery
C
Prevents shock
D
May increase morbidity and mortality

Question 66Single Answer

A trauma registry is primarily used for:

A
Prescribing antibiotics
B
Recording and analyzing trauma-related data
C
Storing medicines
D
Scheduling meals

Question 67Single Answer

Trauma registries help improve:

A
Quality of trauma care
B
Hospital decoration
C
Parking facilities only
D
Food services

Question 68Single Answer

Triage in trauma care means:

A
Prioritizing patients according to urgency
B
Treating patients alphabetically
C
Treating everyone at the same time
D
Sending everyone home

Question 69Single Answer

The purpose of triage is to:

A
Use available resources effectively
B
Delay all treatment
C
Increase paperwork
D
Avoid assessment

Question 70Single Answer

A patient with an obstructed airway should receive:

A
Routine outpatient appointment
B
Delayed treatment
C
Immediate attention
D
No intervention

Question 71Single Answer

Emergency department trauma care begins with:

A
Long-term physiotherapy
B
Full rehabilitation
C
Discharge planning
D
Rapid primary assessment

Question 72Single Answer

The primary survey in trauma focuses on:

A
Social history only
B
Chronic diseases only
C
Immediate life-threatening conditions
D
Dietary preferences

Question 73Single Answer

The secondary survey is usually performed:

A
Before airway assessment
B
After immediate life threats are addressed
C
Before breathing assessment
D
Before any stabilization

Question 74Single Answer

In the ABCDE trauma approach, “D” commonly represents:

A
Dressing
B
Diet
C
Disability or neurological assessment
D
Discharge

Question 75Single Answer

In the ABCDE approach, “E” refers to:

A
Exposure and environmental control
B
Exercise
C
Eating
D
Examination of ears only

Question 76Single Answer

During exposure of a trauma patient, an important precaution is to prevent:

A
Myopia
B
Hypertension
C
Obesity
D
Hypothermia

Question 77Single Answer

The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess:

A
Hearing
B
Liver function
C
Kidney function
D
Level of consciousness

Question 78Single Answer

The Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates:

A
Pulse, BP and temperature only
B
Heart, lung and kidney function
C
Eye, verbal and motor responses
D
Vision, smell and taste

Question 79Single Answer

A lower Glasgow Coma Scale score generally indicates:

A
Greater neurological impairment
B
Better consciousness
C
Better vision
D
Better hearing

Question 80Single Answer

Unequal pupils following head injury may indicate:

A
Normal digestion
B
Neurological deterioration
C
Improved circulation
D
Simple dehydration only

Question 81Single Answer

Persistent vomiting after head trauma is:

A
Always harmless
B
A warning sign
C
A sign of good recovery
D
Unrelated to injury

Question 82Single Answer

Clear fluid leaking from the nose after severe head injury may suggest:

A
Simple sweating
B
Cerebrospinal fluid leak
C
Normal saliva
D
Ear wax

Question 83Single Answer

The safest approach to an embedded object in a traumatic wound is usually to:

A
Twist it repeatedly
B
Pull it out immediately
C
Stabilize it and avoid unnecessary removal in the field
D
Push it deeper

Question 84Single Answer

An open fracture is one in which:

A
There is no bone injury
B
The skin is broken near the fracture
C
The fracture is visible only on CT
D
No wound is present

Question 85Single Answer

An open fracture carries an increased risk of:

A
Diabetes
B
Cataract
C
Infection
D
Asthma

Question 86Single Answer

Initial management of an open fracture includes:

A
Covering the wound and immobilizing the limb
B
Repeatedly probing the wound
C
Forcing the bone back through the skin
D
Encouraging walking

Question 87Single Answer

A flail chest is usually caused by:

A
Ankle sprain
B
Wrist fracture
C
Multiple rib fractures
D
Skull abrasion

Question 88Single Answer

Difficulty breathing after chest trauma requires:

A
Urgent assessment
B
Delayed attention for several days
C
Only oral fluids
D
Routine vaccination

Question 89Single Answer

Tension pneumothorax is:

A
A type of fracture
B
A minor skin condition
C
A life-threatening chest emergency
D
A digestive disorder

Question 90Single Answer

Penetrating chest trauma may directly impair:

A
Vision only
B
Hair growth
C
Digestion only
D
Breathing and circulation

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Latest APSSB Junior Health Assistant Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

General Awareness

General Intelligence & Reasoning

Arithmetical Ability

English Language & Comprehension

Technical Subject

APSSB Junior Health Assistant Exam Online Question Bank Package

Technical Subject

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