Which of the following is not a basic economic problem?
A
What to produce
B
How to produce
C
When to produce
D
For whom to produce
Question 2Single Answer
Which branch of economics focuses on individual units such as households and firms?
A
Macroeconomics
B
Microeconomics
C
Development economics
D
International economics
Question 3Single Answer
Which of the following is a positive economic statement?
A
The government should provide free healthcare
B
Increasing the tax rate on the rich will reduce income inequality
C
Inflation reduces the purchasing power of money
D
The government should subsidize agriculture
Question 4Single Answer
Which tool is commonly used for analyzing economic relationships in agricultural economics?
A
Differential equations
B
Regression analysis
C
Quantum mechanics
D
Molecular biology
Question 5Single Answer
Which mathematical tool is widely used to optimize production and cost functions?
A
Integration
B
Differentiation
C
Linear algebra
D
Set theory
Question 6Single Answer
Which of the following is not a method of economic analysis?
A
Deductive method
B
Inductive method
C
Experimental method
D
Statistical method
Question 7Single Answer
Which statistical tool is used for demand estimation?
A
Chi-square test
B
Regression analysis
C
T-test
D
ANOVA
Question 8Single Answer
In economics, the term "opportunity cost" refers to:
A
The cost of producing one more unit
B
The value of the next best alternative foregone
C
The total cost of production
D
The cost of labor inputs
Question 9Single Answer
Which of the following is an assumption of economic analysis?
A
Resources are unlimited
B
People have rational behavior
C
Demand and supply are independent
D
Money has no role in decision-making
Question 10Single Answer
Which method is used to forecast agricultural production trends?
A
Monte Carlo Simulation
B
Time Series Analysis
C
Factorial Design
D
Cluster Analysis
Question 11Single Answer
The concept of utility measures:
A
Consumer satisfaction
B
Profit maximization
C
Cost of production
D
Demand elasticity
Question 12Single Answer
Which of the following is not an assumption of the cardinal approach to utility?
A
Measurability of utility
B
Diminishing marginal utility
C
Rational behavior of consumers
D
Completeness of preferences
Question 13Single Answer
The law of diminishing marginal utility states that as a consumer consumes more of a good:
A
Total utility decreases
B
Marginal utility decreases
C
Total utility remains constant
D
Marginal utility increases
Question 14Single Answer
Which approach assumes that utility cannot be measured in absolute terms?
A
Cardinal approach
B
Ordinal approach
C
Classical approach
D
Keynesian approach
Question 15Single Answer
Indifference curves are convex to the origin due to:
A
Increasing marginal rate of substitution
B
Diminishing marginal rate of substitution
C
Law of diminishing returns
D
Constant returns to scale
Question 16Single Answer
The budget line represents:
A
The combination of two goods a consumer can buy given their income
B
The marginal utility of consumption
C
The profit-maximization condition of a firm
D
The elasticity of demand
Question 17Single Answer
The point of consumer equilibrium occurs when:
A
MRS = Price ratio
B
Marginal cost = Marginal revenue
C
Total revenue = Total cost
D
Utility is negative
Question 18Single Answer
The elasticity of demand measures:
A
Change in quantity demanded due to a price change
B
Production efficiency
C
Profitability of a firm
D
Cost of production
Question 19Single Answer
The law of diminishing returns applies when:
A
All inputs are variable
B
At least one input is fixed
C
Inputs are used in fixed proportions
D
Capital and labor are equally productive
Question 20Single Answer
In the short-run production function, total output initially:
A
Decreases
B
Increases at a decreasing rate
C
Increases at an increasing rate, then at a decreasing rate
D
Remains constant
Question 21Single Answer
Returns to scale measure the relationship between:
A
Cost and revenue
B
Input proportion and output change
C
Demand and supply
D
Government policies and production
Question 22Single Answer
Which of the following production functions exhibits constant elasticity of substitution?
A
Cobb-Douglas
B
CES (Constant Elasticity of Substitution)
C
Leontief
D
Linear
Question 23Single Answer
In a Cobb-Douglas production function, if the sum of exponents is greater than 1, it indicates:
A
Increasing returns to scale
B
Constant returns to scale
C
Decreasing returns to scale
D
No relationship between inputs and output
Question 24Single Answer
The marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) measures:
A
The rate at which one input can be substituted for another while keeping output constant
B
The ratio of total cost to total output
C
The relationship between price and demand
D
The total revenue generated by production
Question 25Single Answer
Which of the following is a normative economic statement?
A
A rise in price leads to a fall in demand.
B
The government should provide free education.
C
Inflation is measured using the Consumer Price Index.
D
The production of wheat increased last year.
Question 26Single Answer
Which of the following represents a macroeconomic issue?
A
Price determination in a single market
B
A consumerβs choice between two goods
C
National unemployment rate
D
Profit maximization by a firm
Question 27Single Answer
What does the production possibilities frontier (PPF) illustrate?
A
Unlimited resources
B
The trade-offs between two goods
C
Constant opportunity cost
D
Demand elasticity
Question 28Single Answer
Which mathematical tool is commonly used in economic optimization problems?
A
Matrix algebra
B
Integration
C
Differential calculus
D
Topology
Question 29Single Answer
Which of the following methods is used to collect primary economic data?
A
Census surveys
B
National income accounts
C
Secondary data analysis
D
Economic history review
Question 30Single Answer
A perfectly competitive market has:
A
A single buyer
B
A single seller
C
No barriers to entry
D
Differentiated products
Question 31Single Answer
Which of the following concepts is used to measure income inequality?
A
Gini coefficient
B
Price elasticity
C
Marginal rate of substitution
D
Indifference curve analysis
Question 32Single Answer
Which statistical measure indicates the strength of the relationship between two economic variables?
A
Standard deviation
B
Correlation coefficient
C
Mean deviation
D
Skewness
Question 33Single Answer
An increase in consumer income will shift the demand curve for a normal good:
A
Leftward
B
Rightward
C
No change
D
Downward
Question 34Single Answer
What does a Lorenz curve represent?
A
The elasticity of demand
B
The distribution of income
C
The utility maximization
D
The production function
Question 35Single Answer
Which demand curve is perfectly elastic?
A
Horizontal
B
Vertical
C
Upward-sloping
D
U-shaped
Question 36Single Answer
Which type of elasticity measures responsiveness to changes in consumer income?
A
Price elasticity
B
Cross elasticity
C
Income elasticity
D
Demand elasticity
Question 37Single Answer
If two goods are substitutes, the cross elasticity of demand is:
A
Zero
B
Positive
C
Negative
D
Infinite
Question 38Single Answer
Which of the following represents diminishing marginal utility?
A
Enjoying the first slice of pizza more than the second
B
Total utility increasing at an increasing rate
C
Demand curve shifting rightward
D
Increase in total utility with consumption
Question 39Single Answer
Which assumption is not made in indifference curve analysis?
A
Transitivity
B
Completeness
C
Increasing marginal utility
D
Diminishing marginal rate of substitution
Question 40Single Answer
If a consumerβs demand for a good decreases as income rises, the good is classified as:
A
Normal
B
Inferior
C
Complementary
D
Substitute
Question 41Single Answer
In consumer equilibrium, which condition holds?
A
Total utility is maximum
B
Budget constraint is violated
C
MRS = Price ratio
D
Demand is inelastic
Question 42Single Answer
The Engel curve represents the relationship between:
A
Income and quantity demanded
B
Price and quantity demanded
C
Utility and quantity demanded
D
Supply and demand
Question 43Single Answer
A Giffen good has a demand curve that:
A
Slopes downward
B
Slopes upward
C
Is perfectly elastic
D
Is U-shaped
Question 44Single Answer
Which concept explains why diamonds are more expensive than water despite being less useful?
A
Law of demand
B
Paradox of value
C
Income elasticity
D
Production function
Question 45Single Answer
The law of diminishing returns applies in the:
A
Short run
B
Long run
C
Monopoly market
D
Consumer preference model
Question 46Single Answer
Which of the following is not a feature of Cobb-Douglas production function?
A
Constant elasticity of substitution
B
Returns to scale can be increasing, constant, or decreasing
C
Marginal products are positive but diminishing
D
Factor substitution is fixed
Question 47Single Answer
Isoquants are convex due to:
A
Law of diminishing marginal rate of technical substitution
B
Constant returns to scale
C
Increasing marginal productivity
D
Fixed proportions of inputs
Question 48Single Answer
Which of the following is a characteristic of a short-run production function?
A
All inputs are variable
B
At least one input is fixed
C
Constant returns to scale
D
No diminishing returns
Question 49Single Answer
If the total product (TP) curve reaches its maximum, marginal product (MP) is:
A
Positive
B
Zero
C
Negative
D
Increasing
Question 50Single Answer
The elasticity of substitution measures:
A
The ease of substituting one input for another
B
The responsiveness of demand to price changes
C
The total revenue from production
D
The efficiency of capital utilization
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Agricultural Economics
Question 51Single Answer
Which function represents a linear production technology?
A
Cobb-Douglas
B
CES
C
Leontief
D
Linear
Question 52Single Answer
A firm experiences increasing returns to scale when:
A
Doubling inputs leads to more than double output
B
Output remains constant
C
Marginal product is negative
D
The firm reduces costs
Question 53Single Answer
Marginal cost is defined as:
A
The cost of producing one additional unit
B
Total cost divided by total output
C
The change in total cost due to labor changes
D
Fixed cost per unit
Question 54Single Answer
Which of the following is not a cost function component?
A
Fixed cost
B
Variable cost
C
Average cost
D
Marginal utility
Question 55Single Answer
In the short run, which cost remains constant regardless of output?
A
Variable cost
B
Fixed cost
C
Marginal cost
D
Total cost
Question 56Single Answer
The shape of the Average Variable Cost (AVC) curve is:
A
U-shaped
B
Downward sloping
C
Upward sloping
D
Horizontal
Question 57Single Answer
Which cost curve is never U-shaped?
A
Average Fixed Cost (AFC)
B
Average Total Cost (ATC)
C
Average Variable Cost (AVC)
D
Marginal Cost (MC)
Question 58Single Answer
In the long run, all costs are:
A
Fixed
B
Variable
C
Zero
D
Decreasing
Question 59Single Answer
What happens when there are increasing returns to scale?
A
Long-run average cost increases
B
Long-run average cost remains constant
C
Long-run average cost decreases
D
No impact on cost
Question 60Single Answer
Economies of scale refer to:
A
Increasing average costs
B
Cost advantages due to increased production
C
Decreasing marginal utility
D
Higher costs in the short run
Question 61Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of internal economies of scale?
A
Improved labor skills within a firm
B
Better infrastructure in a region
C
Government subsidies
D
Access to financial markets
Question 62Single Answer
Diseconomies of scale occur due to:
A
Specialization
B
Bureaucratic inefficiencies
C
Increasing marginal returns
D
Lower production costs
Question 63Single Answer
Which cost curve intersects the Average Total Cost (ATC) curve at its minimum point?
A
Marginal Cost (MC)
B
Average Fixed Cost (AFC)
C
Average Variable Cost (AVC)
D
Total Cost (TC)
Question 64Single Answer
Which of the following is not a determinant of cost?
A
Input prices
B
Technology
C
Consumer preferences
D
Scale of production
Question 65Single Answer
The primary objective of a profit-maximizing firm is to:
A
Maximize revenue
B
Minimize cost
C
Maximize the difference between total revenue and total cost
D
Increase employee satisfaction
Question 66Single Answer
Which of the following is not an objective of a firm?
A
Profit maximization
B
Sales maximization
C
Revenue minimization
D
Market share expansion
Question 67Single Answer
Which market structure has a single seller with no close substitutes?
A
Perfect competition
B
Monopolistic competition
C
Monopoly
D
Oligopoly
Question 68Single Answer
Which market structure is characterized by free entry and exit and a homogeneous product?
A
Monopoly
B
Oligopoly
C
Monopolistic competition
D
Perfect competition
Question 69Single Answer
Which of the following is a characteristic of monopolistic competition?
A
Identical products
B
Large number of firms
C
No product differentiation
D
Only one producer
Question 70Single Answer
The kinked demand curve is associated with:
A
Monopoly
B
Monopolistic competition
C
Oligopoly
D
Perfect competition
Question 71Single Answer
Which type of firm faces a downward-sloping demand curve?
A
Perfectly competitive firm
B
Monopolist
C
Price taker
D
Firm in a perfectly competitive market
Question 72Single Answer
In which market structure do firms engage in non-price competition?
A
Perfect competition
B
Monopoly
C
Oligopoly
D
None of the above
Question 73Single Answer
Under monopolistic competition, firms produce at:
A
Minimum cost
B
Excess capacity
C
Maximum efficiency
D
Zero profit
Question 74Single Answer
A firm in perfect competition earns normal profit in:
A
The short run
B
The long run
C
Both short and long run
D
Neither short nor long run
Question 75Single Answer
In perfect competition, price is determined by:
A
Individual firmβs demand
B
Government regulation
C
Industry supply and demand
D
Monopolistic firms
Question 76Single Answer
A monopolist maximizes profit where:
A
Marginal cost = Average cost
B
Marginal revenue = Marginal cost
C
Price = Marginal cost
D
Total revenue is highest
Question 77Single Answer
Which of the following is not a type of price discrimination?
A
First-degree
B
Second-degree
C
Third-degree
D
Fourth-degree
Question 78Single Answer
In first-degree price discrimination, a firm:
A
Charges a uniform price
B
Charges different prices based on consumer willingness to pay
C
Sets the same price for all buyers
D
Uses government price controls
Question 79Single Answer
Which of the following market structures allows price discrimination?
A
Perfect competition
B
Monopoly
C
Monopolistic competition
D
All of the above
Question 80Single Answer
In an oligopoly, price rigidity is explained by:
A
Kinked demand curve
B
Law of diminishing returns
C
Perfect information
D
Elastic demand
Question 81Single Answer
Which type of monopoly is created by government protection of innovation?
A
Natural monopoly
B
Patent monopoly
C
Private monopoly
D
Coercive monopoly
Question 82Single Answer
The demand curve under perfect competition is:
A
Downward sloping
B
Vertical
C
Horizontal
D
U-shaped
Question 83Single Answer
What is the main objective of price discrimination?
A
Reduce production costs
B
Maximize profits
C
Equalize demand and supply
D
Increase consumer welfare
Question 84Single Answer
Price leadership occurs in:
A
Perfect competition
B
Oligopoly
C
Monopoly
D
Monopolistic competition
Question 85Single Answer
The total fixed cost (TFC) curve is:
A
U-shaped
B
Upward sloping
C
Horizontal
D
Vertical
Question 86Single Answer
Which of the following statements about marginal cost (MC) is true?
A
MC cuts the Average Total Cost (ATC) curve at its lowest point
B
MC is always greater than ATC
C
MC is always equal to ATC
D
MC and ATC curves never intersect
Question 87Single Answer
The law of diminishing returns states that as additional units of a variable input are added to a fixed input:
A
Total output decreases
B
Marginal output initially increases and then decreases
C
Marginal output remains constant
D
Total cost remains constant
Question 88Single Answer
Which type of cost remains the same per unit as output increases?
A
Fixed cost
B
Variable cost
C
Marginal cost
D
Average fixed cost
Question 89Single Answer
The long-run average cost curve is also known as:
A
Marginal cost curve
B
Envelope curve
C
Demand curve
D
Short-run cost curve
Question 90Single Answer
Which market structure is characterized by many firms selling slightly differentiated products?
A
Perfect competition
B
Monopoly
C
Monopolistic competition
D
Oligopoly
Question 91Single Answer
Under monopolistic competition, firms engage in:
A
Price competition only
B
Non-price competition (advertising, branding)
C
Collusive pricing
D
None of the above
Question 92Single Answer
Which of the following is not a characteristic of oligopoly?
A
Few sellers
B
Interdependence among firms
C
Homogeneous or differentiated products
D
No barriers to entry
Question 93Single Answer
Which theory explains price rigidity in an oligopoly?
A
Law of variable proportions
B
Kinked demand curve theory
C
Marginal utility theory
D
Supply and demand equilibrium
Question 94Single Answer
In which type of market does a firm have the most control over price?
A
Perfect competition
B
Monopolistic competition
C
Monopoly
D
Oligopoly
Question 95Single Answer
Which of the following is not a necessary condition for price discrimination?
A
Market segmentation
B
Differences in elasticity of demand
C
Government price controls
D
No resale between markets
Question 96Single Answer
Price leadership is most commonly observed in:
A
Perfect competition
B
Oligopoly
C
Monopoly
D
Monopolistic competition
Question 97Single Answer
In third-degree price discrimination, a firm charges different prices based on:
A
Quantity purchased
B
Customer groups or segments
C
Bargaining power
D
Time of purchase
Question 98Single Answer
Which of the following markets is likely to exhibit price wars?
A
Monopoly
B
Perfect competition
C
Oligopoly
D
Monopolistic competition
Question 99Single Answer
If a monopolist charges a single price for all customers, its marginal revenue (MR) is:
A
Equal to price
B
Greater than price
C
Less than price
D
Always negative
Question 100Single Answer
Which condition is not required for perfect competition?
A
Homogeneous products
B
Free entry and exit
C
Price discrimination
D
Perfect knowledge
Question 101Single Answer
The supply curve of a monopoly is:
A
Upward sloping
B
Vertical
C
Downward sloping
D
Non-existent
Question 102Single Answer
When firms in an oligopoly agree to set prices or limit output, it is known as:
A
Price discrimination
B
Collusion
C
Price fixing
D
Cost-plus pricing
Question 103Single Answer
A monopolist practicing price discrimination will charge higher prices in markets with:
A
Elastic demand
B
Inelastic demand
C
Unregulated demand
D
Homogeneous demand
Question 104Single Answer
In a perfectly competitive market, a tax on producers typically leads to:
A
The entire tax burden falling on consumers
B
The entire tax burden falling on producers
C
The tax burden being shared between consumers and producers
D
No change in price or quantity
Question 105Single Answer
In a monopoly, a tax on the monopolist leads to:
A
A decrease in price and increase in quantity
B
An increase in price and decrease in quantity
C
No change in price or quantity
D
A decrease in both price and quantity
Question 106Single Answer
The incidence of a tax refers to:
A
The legal liability for paying the tax
B
The actual burden of the tax
C
The amount of revenue collected by the government
D
The efficiency of tax collection
Question 107Single Answer
A tax on a good with perfectly inelastic demand will result in:
A
The entire tax burden falling on consumers
B
The entire tax burden falling on producers
C
The tax burden being shared equally
D
No change in quantity demanded
Question 108Single Answer
A tax on a good with perfectly elastic supply will result in:
A
The entire tax burden falling on consumers
B
The entire tax burden falling on producers
C
The tax burden being shared equally
D
No change in quantity supplied
Question 109Single Answer
The deadweight loss from a tax is a measure of:
A
The revenue collected by the government
B
The loss of economic efficiency
C
The redistribution of income
D
The increase in consumer surplus
Question 110Single Answer
A specific tax is:
A
A percentage of the price of a good
B
A fixed amount per unit of a good
C
A tax on profits
D
A tax on income
Question 111Single Answer
An ad valorem tax is:
A
A fixed amount per unit of a good
B
A percentage of the price of a good
C
A tax on profits
D
A tax on income
Question 112Single Answer
Taxation can lead to a decrease in consumer surplus by:
A
Increasing the price paid by consumers
B
Decreasing the quantity consumed
C
Creating a deadweight loss
D
All of the above
Question 113Single Answer
Taxation can lead to a decrease in producer surplus by:
A
Decreasing the price received by producers
B
Decreasing the quantity produced
C
Creating a deadweight loss
D
All of the above
Question 114Single Answer
Social welfare refers to:
A
The total utility of all individuals in society
B
The distribution of income
C
The level of government spending
D
The rate of economic growth
Question 115Single Answer
Pareto efficiency is achieved when:
A
Income is equally distributed
B
It is impossible to make someone better off without making someone else worse off
C
Government spending is maximized
D
Economic growth is maximized
Question 116Single Answer
Market failure occurs when:
A
Markets fail to allocate resources efficiently
B
Prices are too high
C
Demand is too low
D
Supply is too high
Question 117Single Answer
Externalities are:
A
Costs or benefits that affect parties not directly involved in a transaction
B
Government regulations
C
Market prices
D
Consumer preferences
Question 118Single Answer
A positive externality leads to:
A
Overproduction
B
Underproduction
C
Efficient production
D
No change in production
Question 119Single Answer
A negative externality leads to:
A
Overproduction
B
Underproduction
C
Efficient production
D
No change in production
Question 120Single Answer
Public goods are characterized by:
A
Rivalry and excludability
B
Non-rivalry and non-excludability
C
Rivalry and non-excludability
D
Non-rivalry and excludability
Question 121Single Answer
The free-rider problem is associated with:
A
Private goods
B
Public goods
C
Merit goods
D
Demerit goods
Question 122Single Answer
Information asymmetry occurs when:
A
All parties have equal information
B
One party has more information than another
C
Information is publicly available
D
Information is costly to obtain
Question 123Single Answer
The Coase theorem suggests that externalities can be resolved through:
A
Government intervention
B
Private bargaining
C
Taxation
D
Subsidies
Question 124Single Answer
National income measures:
A
The total value of goods and services produced in an economy
B
The distribution of income
C
The level of government spending
D
The rate of economic growth
Question 125Single Answer
GDP is calculated using:
A
The expenditure approach
B
The income approach
C
The production approach
D
All of the above
Question 126Single Answer
The expenditure approach to GDP includes:
A
Consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports
B
Wages, rent, interest, and profits
C
Value added at each stage of production
D
Transfer payments
Question 127Single Answer
The income approach to GDP includes:
A
Consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports
B
Wages, rent, interest, and profits
C
Value added at each stage of production
D
Transfer payments
Question 128Single Answer
The production approach to GDP includes:
A
Consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports
B
Wages, rent, interest, and profits
C
Value added at each stage of production
D
Transfer payments
Question 129Single Answer
Net exports are calculated as:
A
Exports plus imports
B
Exports minus imports
C
Total exports
D
Total imports
Question 130Single Answer
Nominal GDP is:
A
GDP measured at constant prices
B
GDP measured at current prices
C
GDP adjusted for inflation
D
GDP adjusted for population
Question 131Single Answer
Real GDP is:
A
GDP measured at constant prices
B
GDP measured at current prices
C
GDP not adjusted for inflation
D
GDP not adjusted for population
Question 132Single Answer
The GDP deflator is used to:
A
Calculate real GDP
B
Calculate nominal GDP
C
Measure inflation
D
Measure unemployment
Question 133Single Answer
In a two-sector model, the circular flow of income includes:
A
Households and firms
B
Households, firms, and government
C
Households, firms, government, and foreign sector
D
Households and banks
Question 134Single Answer
In a three-sector model, the circular flow of income includes:
A
Households and firms
B
Households, firms, and government
C
Households, firms, government, and foreign sector
D
Households and banks
Question 135Single Answer
In a four-sector model, the circular flow of income includes:
A
Households and firms
B
Households, firms, and government
C
Households, firms, government, and foreign sector
D
Households and banks
Question 136Single Answer
Disposable income is:
A
Income before taxes
B
Income after taxes
C
Total income
D
Investment income
Question 137Single Answer
Gross National Product (GNP) measures:
A
The total value of goods and services produced within a country's borders
B
The total value of goods and services produced by a country's citizens, regardless of location
C
The total value of exports
D
The total value of imports
Question 138Single Answer
Net National Product (NNP) is calculated as:
A
GNP plus depreciation
B
GNP minus depreciation
C
GDP plus depreciation
D
GDP minus depreciation
Question 139Single Answer
National income at factor cost is:
A
National income at market prices
B
National income minus indirect taxes plus subsidies
C
National income plus indirect taxes minus subsidies
D
National income plus direct taxes
Question 140Single Answer
Personal income is:
A
National income earned by individuals
B
Income received by households
C
Income after taxes
D
Income from investments
Question 141Single Answer
The circular flow of income shows the interaction between:
A
Production and consumption
B
Saving and investment
C
Government spending and taxation
D
All of the above
Question 142Single Answer
Leakages in the circular flow of income include:
A
Investment
B
Government spending
C
Savings and imports
D
Exports
Question 143Single Answer
Injections in the circular flow of income include:
A
Savings
B
Imports
C
Investment and exports
D
Taxes
Question 144Single Answer
A trade surplus occurs when:
A
Imports exceed exports
B
Exports exceed imports
C
Imports equal exports
D
There is no trade
Question 145Single Answer
A trade deficit occurs when:
A
Imports exceed exports
B
Exports exceed imports
C
Imports equal exports
D
There is no trade
Question 146Single Answer
The multiplier effect refers to:
A
The increase in government spending
B
The increase in investment
C
The proportional increase in national income due to an increase in spending
D
The decrease in taxes
Question 147Single Answer
The marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is:
A
The change in consumption due to a change in income
B
The change in savings due to a change in income
C
The change in investment due to a change in income
D
The change in taxes due to a change in income
Question 148Single Answer
The marginal propensity to save (MPS) is:
A
The change in consumption due to a change in income
B
The change in savings due to a change in income
C
The change in investment due to a change in income