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Latest Assam Police Excise Constable Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Elementary Arithmetic, General English, Logical reasoning, Assam’s History & Geography, General Awareness
Question Bank Assam Police Excise Constable Exam - English
Elementary Arithmetic
Q 1 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 2 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 3 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 4 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 5 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 6 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 7 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 8 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 9 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 10 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 11 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 12 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 13 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 14 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 15 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 16 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 17 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 18 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 19 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 20 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
General English
Q 21 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 22 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 23 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 24 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 25 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 26 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 27 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 28 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 29 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 30 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 31 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 32 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 33 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 34 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 35 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 36 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 37 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 38 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 39 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 40 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Logical reasoning
Q 41 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 42 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 43 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 44 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 45 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 46 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 47 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 48 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 49 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 50 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
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Assam Police Excise Constable Exam Question Bank Book - English (New)
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 52 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 53 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 54 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 55 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 56 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 57 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 58 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 59 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 60 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Assam’s History & Geography
Q 61 :
In 640 A.D. Chinese traveller Hiuen Tang visited Assam (Kamrupa) The king who gave him warm reception was.
A.Kumar Rudra Barmana
B.Swargadeo Rudra Singha
C.Kumar Bhaskara Barmana
D.Bhagadatta
Q 62 :
Which one of the following was the last capital of Ahom dynasty ?
A.Nazira
B.Sivasagar
C.Charaideo
D.Jorhat
Q 63 :
In which year the first newspaper of Assam ‘Orunodoi’ was published ?
A.1899
B.1824
C.1830
D.1846
Q 64 :
The ancient name of Assam as mentioned in epics Ramayana and Mahabharata is
A.Indraprastha
B.Kamrup
C.Ahom
D.Pragiyotishpura
Q 65 :
The state of Assam has.....................representatives in the Rajya Sabha
A.5
B.12
C.7
D.13
Q 66 :
The rare white-winged duck (Deohanh) is found in which of the following National
Park of Assam ?
A.Kaziranga National Park
B.Manas
C.Dibru Saikhowa
D.Namer
Q 67 :
A famous musical instrument of Assam ‘GAGONA”is made of which material ?
A.Cane
B.Buffalo horn
C.bamboo
D.teak wood
Q 68 :
Which one of the following was the earliest historical dynasty of Assam ?
A.Varmans
B.Narkas
C.Salastambhas
D.Palas
Q 69 :
The state of Assam has.......................representatives in the Lok Sabha ?
A.12
B.15
C.14
D.18
Q 70 :
Who was the first Assamese person to receive the title of ‘Sir’ from the British ?
A.Sir Sayed Ahmad
B.Sir Akbar Hydari
C.Sir Saiyyid Sadullah
D.None of the above
Q 71 :
In which year Panchayati Raj was formally introduced in Assam ?
A.1962
B.1964
C.1969
D.1970
Q 72 :
Which one of the following was the royal symbol of the kings of ancient Kamrupa ?
A.elephant
B.lion
C.tiger
D.rhinoceros
Q 73 :
Which one of the following district of Assam shares the longest international
boundary ?
A.Karimganj
B.Kokrajhar
C.Slichar
D.Dhubri
Q 74 :
In which year Assam Pradesh Congress Committee was founded ?
A.1909
B.1912
C.1917
D.1921
Q 75 :
Who among the following Assamese leader was a member in the Constitution
Drafting Committee ?
A.Mohammad Sadullah
B.Rohini Kumar Chaudhary
C.Gopinath Bardoloi
D.None of the above
Q 76 :
In which of the following cities ‘Gibon Wildlife Sanctuary’ is located ?
A.Kokrajhar
B.Jorhat
C.Dibrugarh
D.Chirang
Q 77 :
The first President of the ‘Assam Pradesh Congress Committee’ was
A.Gopinath Bordoloi
B.Nabin Chandra Bordoloi
C.Kuladhar Chaliha
D.Tarun Ram Phukan
Q 78 :
The Guwahati Stock Exchange was established in Assam in which of the following
years ?
A.1984
B.1989
C.1987
D.1983
Q 79 :
Who among the following was the first Assamese to be appointed as a judge in the
Supreme Court of India ?
A.Mahendra Mohan Chaudhary
B.Parbati Kumar Goswami
C.Ranjan kumar Gogoi
D.Non e of the above
Q 80 :
Which one of the following cities is also known as the ‘Manchester of Assam’ ?
A.Diphu
B.Jorhat
C.Saulkuchi
D.Digboi
General Awareness
Q 81 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 82 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 83 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 84 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 85 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 86 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 87 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 88 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 89 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 90 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 91 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 92 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 93 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 94 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 95 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 96 :
Which Indian state launched the ‘Green Energy Villages’ initiative in 2025 to promote renewable energy?
A.Uttar Pradesh
B.Rajasthan
C.Tamil Nadu
D.Gujarat
Q 97 :
Which organization developed the K-6 hypersonic Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM) tested in 2025?
A.ISRO
B.HAL
C.Bharat Dynamics Limited
D.DRDO
Q 98 :
Which ministry established the Passport Seva Portal to streamline passport services in 2025?
A.Ministry of Home Affairs
B.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
C.Ministry of External Affairs
D.Ministry of Electronics and IT
Q 99 :
What is the primary goal of the Digital Payment Intelligence Platform (DPIP) launched by the RBI in 2025?
A.Promote cash transactions
B.Enhance cybersecurity in digital payments
C.Reduce ATM usage
D.Increase bank branch networks
Q 100 :
Which Indian state topped the vulture population census in 2025?