To boost your performance in AWES PGT TGT Chemistry exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in AWES PGT TGT Chemistry exams.
Latest AWES PGT TGT Chemistry Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
A.An officer entrusted by the Department with the responsibility of controlling the incurring of expenditure and or the collection of revenue
B.A Head of Department
C.An Administrator of a Union Territory
D.All of the above
Q 12 :
Who is Desk Officer ?
A.Assistants and Upper Division Clerks
B.A Section Officer may be designated as Desk Officer, who is to function as per powers delegated by the Ministries/Departments like signing financial sanctions, affirming affidavits in court etc
C.In-charge of a Section who has to ensure efficient and expeditious disposal of work, recording and weeding out, indexing and digitization.
D.All of them
Q 13 :
The duties and responsibilities of a Controlling Officer in respect of funds placed at his disposal are to ensure that -
A.The expenditure does not exceed the budget allocation
B.The expenditure is incurred for the purpose for which funds have been provided
C.Adequate control mechanism is functioning in the department to prevent, detect errors and irregularities in the financial proceedings and to guard against waste and loss of public money
D.All of the above
Q 14 :
Which of the following sanctions is not to be endorsed to the Audit Officer ?
A.Sanctions of routine nature issued by Heads of Subordinate Offices
B.Sanctions issued by Ministries / Departments proper and under powers of a Head of Department
C.Sanctions relating to grant of advances to Government employees
D.Sanctions relating to payment or withdrawal of GPF advance to Government employees
Q 15 :
Any loss or shortage of public moneys, departmental revenue or receipts, stores or other property, held by or on behalf of Government shall be immediately reported to -
A.The next higher authority
B.The Statutory Audit Officer
C.The concerned Principal Accounts Officer
D.All of the above
Q 16 :
What is Information and Facilitation Counter (IFC) ?
A.A functionary on duty outside office hours who performs the functions of the central receipt and issue section during such hours.
B.A Facilitation counter, to provide information/ assistance to the citizens/clients about the programmes, schemes, status of cases, applications, etc.
C.A collection of papers on a specific subject, assigned a number and consisting of one or more
D.None of them
Q 17 :
Minute is a meeting recorded by ?
A.President
B.Vice President
C.Prime Minster
D.All of them
Q 18 :
Who is authorised to renew Pension Payment Order without reference to the Accountant General -
A.Disbursing Officer
B.Head of the Office
C.Accounts Officers
D.Administrative Officer
Q 19 :
The following three aspects of intelligence are dealt by Sternberg's triarchic theory except
A.componential
B.social
C.experiential
D.contextual
Q 20 :
Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences emphasizes
A.general intelligence
B.common abilities required in school
C.the unique abilities of each individual
D.conditioning skills in students
Q 21 :
In order to avoid gender stereotyping in class, a teacher should
A.try to put both boys and girls in nontraditional roles.
B.appreciate students' good work by saying 'good girl' or 'good boy'.
C.discourage girls from taking part in wrestling.
D.encourage boys to take risk and be bold.
Q 22 :
Schools should cater to Individual differences to
A.narrow the gap between individual students.
B.even out abilities and performance of students.
C.understand why students are able or unable to learn.
D.make individual students feel exclusive.
Q 23 :
What kind of support can a school provide to address the individual differences in students ?
A.Follow a child-centered curriculum and provide multiple learning opportunities to students
B.Apply every possible measure to remove the individual differences in students
C.Refer slow learners to special schools
D.Follow same level of curriculum for all students
Q 24 :
"Readiness for learning " refers to
A.general ability level of students
B.present cognitive level of students in the learning continuum
C.satisfying nature of the act of learning
D.Thorndike's Law of Readiness
Q 25 :
Learning disabilities may occur due to all of the following except
A.Cerebral dysfunction
B.Emotional disturbance
C.Behavioural disturbance
D.Cultural factors
Q 26 :
Which of the following is appropriate for environment conducive to thinking and learning in children ?
A.Passive listening for long periods of time
B.Home assignments given frequently
C.Individual tasks done by the learners
D.allowing students to take some decisions about what to learn and how to learn
Q 27 :
The National Education Policy 2020 was announced by which government body ?
A.Ministry of Human Resource Development
B.University Grants Commission
C.National Council of Educational Research and Training
D.NITI Aayog
Q 28 :
The National Education Policy 2020 aims to provide education to children of which age group ?
A.3-6 years
B.6-14 years
C.14-18 years
D.18-23 years
Q 29 :
Which of the following is NOT a key feature of the National Education Policy 2020 ?
A.Introduction of a 5+3+3+4 curricular structure
B.Emphasis on early childhood care and education
C.Focus on vocational training in schools
D.Promotion of multilingualism and language learning
Q 30 :
The National Education Policy 2020 proposes the establishment of a National Research Foundation to promote research in which sector ?
A.Science and Technology
B.Social Sciences
C.Humanities
D.All of the above
Chemistry
Q 31 :
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A.Anygora
B.Rayon
C.Nylon
D.Polyster
Q 32 :
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A.Ca3Al2O6
B.Ca3SiO5
C.Ca2SiO4
D.Ca3(PO4)2
Q 33 :
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A.It does not contain carbon
B.It does not contain silicon
C.It does not contain iron
D.It does not contain calcium
Q 34 :
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A.Super phosphate
B.Nitrolim
C.Muriate of Potash
D.Humus
Q 35 :
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A.Aluminium sulphate
B.Copper sulphate
C.Cobalt sulphate
D.Nickel sulphate
Q 36 :
What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
A.Glass
B.Cement
C.paint
D.Gun powder
Q 37 :
Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
A.Sulphur based
B.Phosphorus based
C.Silicon based
D.Iron based
Q 38 :
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
A.Magnesium oxide
B.Magnesium carbonate
C.Magnesium chloride
D.Magnesium sulphate
Q 39 :
Which one of the following substances is used in the manufacture of safety matches ?
A.Red phosphorus
B.White phosphorus
C.Phosphorus trioxide (P2O3)
D.Black phosphorus
Q 40 :
Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket ?
A.Nylon –6, 6
B.Rayon
C.Kevlar
D.Dacron
Q 41 :
Which one of the following is another name of RDX
A.Cyanohydrin
B.Dextran
C.Cyclohexane
D.Cyclonite
Q 42 :
Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
A.Phosphorus trichloride
B.Mercuric oxide
C.Graphite
D.Nitroglycerine
Q 43 :
Flint glass is obtained from which of the following ?
A.Zinc and barium borosilicate
B.Sand, red lead and potassium carbonate
C.Sodium aluminium borosilicate
D.Pure silica and zinc oxide
Q 44 :
Which one of the following correctly defines the state of glass ?
A.Crystalline solid
B.Super cooled liquid
C.Condensed gas
D.Liquid crystal
Q 45 :
Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer ?
A.Ammonium nitrate
B.Ammonium sulphide
C.Ammonium phosphate
D.Ammonium sulphate
Q 46 :
Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells ?
A.Lithium
B.Sodium
C.Rubidium
D.Caesium
Q 47 :
Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching powder ?
A.It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries
B.It is used for bleaching wood pup in paper factories
C.It is used for disinfecting drinking water
D.It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry
Q 48 :
Hard glass having the same ingredientsas soft glass excepts.
A.hard glass have Na in place of K
B.hard glass having K in place of Na
C.hard glass having both Na and K
D.None of the above
Q 49 :
A complete fertilizer provides
A.N,P, K
B.S, K, N
C.S, B, K
D.N, S, P
Q 50 :
Antacids are commonly used to get rid of acidity in the Stomach. A commonly used antacid is.
A.sodium hydrogen phthalate
B.magnesium hydroxide
C.calcium hydroxide
D.manganese acetate
Important Questions Package
AWES PGT TGT Chemistry Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy AWES PGT TGT Chemistry Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in AWES PGT TGT Chemistry question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
AWES PGT TGT Chemistry Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
โน101[โน500]
2.
AWES PGT TGT Chemistry Exam - Hindi
Description : 1500 Question with Answer.
โน131[โน500]
3.
AWES PGT TGT Chemistry Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
โน101[โน500]
4.
AWES PGT TGT Chemistry Exam - English
Description : 1500 Question with Answer.
โน131[โน500]
5.
AWES PGT TGT Chemistry Exam - Hindi
Description : <strong><span style="color:rgb(128, 0, 0)"><span style="font-size:16px"><span style="font-family:georgia,serif">1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)</span></span></span></strong>
โน101[โน450]
6.
AWES PGT TGT Chemistry Exam - English
Description : <strong><span style="color:rgb(128, 0, 0)"><span style="font-size:16px"><span style="font-family:georgia,serif">1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)</span></span></span></strong>
โน101[โน450]
7.
AWES PGT TGT Chemistry Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi
The use of chemicals for treatment of diseases is called as.
A.isothermotherapy
B.angiotherapy
C.physiotherapy
D.chemotherapy
Q 54 :
Which of the following is a hypnotic drug ?
A.luminal
B.salol
C.catechol
D.chemisol
Q 55 :
Teflon is a polymer of which of the following monomers ?
A.Tetrafluoroethylene
B.Vinyl chloride
C.Acetylene dichloride
D.None of the above/More than one of the above
Q 56 :
LPG used as domestic fuel chiefly contains–
A.Methane
B.Propane
C.Ethylene
D.Butane
E.None of the above/More than one of the above
Q 57 :
Glass is a.
A.liquid
B.colloid
C.non–crystalline amorphous solid
D.crystalline solid
Q 58 :
Which one of the following acids is used for etching glass ?
A.H2SO4
B.HNO3
C.HF
D.HCI
Q 59 :
What is the purpose of adding plasticizers in paint manufacturing process ?
A.They act as a film–forming constituent
B.They reduce the viscosity
C.They prevent the polymerization and condensation
D.They provide elasticity to the film and minimize its cracking
Q 60 :
Which raw material is used in the preperation of soft glass ?
A.K2CO3, SiO2, CaCO3
B.K2CO3, SiO2, PbCO3
C.Na2CO3, SiO2, CaCO3
D.Na2CO3, SiO2, PbO
Q 61 :
What is the composition of nitrolim – a chemical fertilizer ?
A.Nitrogen and limestone
B.Calcium carbide and nitrogen
C.Calcium carbide and carbon
D.None of above
Q 62 :
the major component used in preparation of different type of glasses is.
A.Silica
B.Sodium borate
C.Calcium silicate
D.Sodium silicate
Q 63 :
Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks ?
A.Zinc and sulphur
B.Potassium and mercury
C.Strontium and barium
D.Chromium and nickel
Q 64 :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Phenyl is used as a household germicide.
Statement II : Phenyl is phenol derivative and phenol is an effective germicide.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A.Both Statement I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B.Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I
C.Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D.Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Q 65 :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Coal–based thermal power stations contribute to acid–rain.
Statement II : Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A.Both Statement I and II are individually correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B.Both Statement I and Statement II are individiaully correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C.Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D.Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Q 66 :
Terfenadine is commonly used as a/an.
A.transquilizer
B.antihistamine
C.antimicrobial
D.antibiotic
Q 67 :
Which one of the following is not a tranqualizer ?
A.Equanil
B.Veronal
C.Salvarsan
D.Serotonin
Q 68 :
Barbituric acid and its derivatives are well known.
A.antipyretics
B.analgesics
C.antiseptics
D.tranquilizers
Q 69 :
Which one among is not an analgesic ?
A.Ibuprofen
B.Naproxen
C.Aspirin
D.Valium
Q 70 :
Various phenol derivatives, tincture of iodine (2 – 3%) I 2 in (water/alcohol) and some dyes like methylene blue are.
A.antiseptics
B.disinfectants
C.analgesics
D.antipyretics
Q 71 :
Commonly used antiseptics 'Dettol' is a mixture of.
A.o–chlorophenozylenol + terpeneol
B.o–cresol + terpeneol
C.phenol + terpeneol
D.chloroxylenol + terpeneol
Q 72 :
Which of the following is not an antiseptic drug ?
A.Iodoform
B.Dettol
C.Gammexene
D.Genatian violet
Q 73 :
Which one of the following substances is made from natural raw materials ?
A.Rayon
B.Nylon
C.Polyster
D.Polystyrene
Q 74 :
The polymeric fibre used as a substitute for wool in making synthetic blankets, sweaters, etc. is.
A.nylon
B.teflon
C.orlon
D.bakelite
Q 75 :
The cleaning of dirty clothes by soaps and detergents is deue to a type of molecules called surfactants, which are present in soaps and detergents. The surfactant molecules remove the dirt by.
A.making the cloth slippery
B.producing some gases between the dirt and the cloth
C.dissolving the dirt
D.forming some aggregates of themselves and take away the dirt in the core of the aggregates
Q 76 :
Contact lenses are made from.
A.polyvinyl chloride
B.polystyrene
C.lucite
D.teflon
Q 77 :
On of the occupational health hazards commonly faced by workers of ceramics, pottery and glass industry is.
A.stone formation in gall bladder
B.melanoma
C.silicosis
D.stone formation in kidney
Q 78 :
vermicompost is an/a.
A.inorganic fertilizer
B.toxic substance
C.organic bio fertilizer
D.synthetic fertilizer
Q 79 :
The macro nutrients provided by inorganic fertilizer are.
A.carbon, iron and boron
B.magnesium, manganese and sulphur
C.magnesiu, zinc and iron
D.nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
Q 80 :
Which one of the following statement is not correct ?
A.Water starts boiling when its vapour pressure becomes equal to amospheric pressure
B.Water is known as universal solvent
C.Permanent hardness of water is due to presence of MgCl2, CaCl2, MgSO4 and CaSO4
D.Density of ice is greater than that of water
Q 81 :
Density of the following polymers is used for making bullet proof windows ?
A.Polycarbonates
B.Polyerethanes
C.Polystyrene
D.Polyamides
Q 82 :
Match the List – I with List – II
List - I List - II
(Substances) (Applications)
รขโฌโนA. Aspartame 1. Syunthetic rubber
B. Freon 2. Anti – histamine
C. Neoprene 3. Artificial Sweetener
D. Benadryl 4. Refrigerant
Select correct answer using the codes given below :
A.A B C D
1 3 4 2
B.2 4 1 3
C.3 4 1 2
D.3 1 2 4
Q 83 :
Match the List – I with List – II
List - I List - II
(Noble gas) (Use)
A. Argon 1. In lights for advertising display
B. Neon 2. Airport landing lights and in light houses
C. Krypton 3. Light in photographer's flash gun
D. Xenon 4. In tungsten filament to last longer
Select correct answer using the codes given below :
A.A B C D
3 1 2 4
B.3 2 1 4
C.4 2 1 3
D.4 1 2 3
Q 84 :
Which one is a sublime substance ?
A.Table salt
B.Sugar
C.Iodine
D.Potassium Iodide
Q 85 :
The process of change of liquied state into gaseous state at constant temperature is known as.
A.boiling
B.melting
C.fusion
D.evaporation
Q 86 :
Which one is a surface phenomenon ?
A.Evaporation
B.Boiling
C.Both (a) and (b)
D.None of these
Q 87 :
Jayamkondam in Tamil Nadu is famous for which among the following minerals ?
A.Bauxite
B.Lignite
C.Calcite
D.Magnesite
Q 88 :
Which of the following processes is known as fusion ?
A.change of liquid to solid
B.Change of solid to liquid
C.Change of liquid to vapour
D.Change of gaseous state to solid state
Q 89 :
The one, in which interparticle forces are strongest, is.
A.sodium chloride
B.hydrogen
C.ether
D.carbon dioxide
Q 90 :
Which of the following is compound ?
A.Stainless steel
B.Brass
C.Iron sulphide
D.Diamond
Q 91 :
Which one of the following is non-crystalline or amorphous ?
A.Diamond
B.Graphite
C.Glass
D.Common Salt
Q 92 :
The size of colloidal particles usually lies in the range.
A.10–5 – 10–7 cm
B.10–7 – 10–9 cm
C.10–3 – 10–5 cm
D.10–5 – 10–6 cm
Q 93 :
Oil and water can form a stable dispersion with the help of a third substance commonly called.
A.emulsifier
B.dispersant
C.protective colloid
D.None of these
Q 94 :
Why is helium preferred over hydrogen for use in airships.
A.Helium has a low density
B.Helium has a high density
C.Helium is chemically less reactive
D.Helium is chemically more reactive
Q 95 :
Which one of the following mixture is homogeneous ?
A.Starch and sugar
B.Methanol and water
C.Graphite and charcoal
D.Calcium carbonate and calcium bicarbonate
Q 96 :
A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is.
A.heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
B.homogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
C.heterogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
D.homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
Q 97 :
A student, carefully observed the colloidal of starch in water, human blood and cow milk. On the basis of observations, he made certain conclusions given below. Choose the wrong conclusion about colloidal solution.
A.Translucent
B.Components can be separated by ordinary filteration
C.Heterogenous and stable
D.show tyndal effect
Q 98 :
Choose the incorrect statement about true solution.
A.Its components can not be separated by filteration
B.It is opaque and unstable
C.Its particles can not be seen through naked eye
D.It does not show tyndal effect
Q 99 :
Barium sulphate (BaSO4) dispersed in water used diagnostic X–rays is a.
A.Colloid
B.Solution
C.Suspension
D.Foam
Q 100 :
Non–reacting gases have a tendency to mix with each other. This phenomenon is known as.
A.chemical reaction
B.diffusion
C.effusion
D.explosion
Q 101 :
Alkali halids do not show Frenkel defect because
A.cations and anions have almost equal size
B.there is a large difference in size of cations and anions
C.cations and anions have low coordination number
D.anions cannot be accommodated in voids
Q 102 :
In NaCl structure
A.all octahedral and tetrahedral sites are occupied
B.only octahedral sites are occupied
C.only tetrahedral sites are occupied
D.neither octahedral nor tetrahedral sites are occupied
Q 103 :
A mixture of ZnCl2 and PbCl2 can be separated by.
A.distillation
B.crystallization
C.sublimation
D.adding acetic acid
Q 104 :
Magnetism is most beneficial for separating.
A.gases and non–metallic liquids
B.magnetic solids and solids such as sulphur
C.non–metallic solids and solids such as sulphur
D.non–magnetic solids from non–magnetic liquids
Q 105 :
Water is boiling is open fry pan represents which type of change ?
A.Physical and irreversible
B.Chemical and irreversible
C.Physical and reversible
D.Chemical and reversible
Q 106 :
Chemical change is always accompanied by
(1) production of sound
(2) heat and light
(3) change in mass
(4) change in colour
A.1, 2 & 3
B.2 & 4
C.1 only
D.1, 2 & 4
Q 107 :
Who among the following is called 'The father of modern chemistry" ?
A.Michael Faraday
B.Lavoisier
C.Proust
D.Linus Pauling
Q 108 :
Which one among the following is not a mixture ?
A.Graphite
B.Glass
C.Brass
D.Steel
Q 109 :
The latest discovered state of matter is.
A.Solid
B.Bose–Einstein condensation
C.Plasma
D.liquid
Q 110 :
Which one of the following is not a mixture ?
A.Toothpaste
B.Toilet soap
C.Baking soda
D.Vinegar
Q 111 :
Which one of the following is a heterogenous mixure ?
A.Hydrochloric acid
B.Vinegar
C.Milk
D.Soda water
Q 112 :
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a compound ?
A.Composition is variable
B.All particles of compounder are of only one type
C.Particle of compound have two or more elements
D.Its constituents cannot be separated by simple physical methods
Q 113 :
The gas is commonly used in anaesthesia.
A.methane
B.nitrous oxide
C.nitrogen
D.hydrogen peroxide
Q 114 :
The inert gas abundantly found in atmosphere is.
A.Xe
B.Kr
C.He
D.Ar
Q 115 :
Which gas is used in filling electric bulbs ?
A.Neon
B.Argon
C.Radon
D.Krypton
Q 116 :
Kerosoene is a mixture of.
A.aromatic hydrocarbons
B.aliphatic hydrocarbons
C.saturated hydrocarbons
D.alicyclic hydrocarbons
Q 117 :
Candle contains a mixture of.
A.Bees wax and paraffin wax
B.Bees wax and stearic acid
C.Paraffin wax and stearic acid
D.Higher fatty acid
Q 118 :
Which one of the following noble gases is not found in the atmosphere ?
A.Argon
B.krypton
C.Radon
D.Xenon
Q 119 :
Which gas is responsible for the swelling of bread ?
A.oxygen
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Carbon dioxide
D.Ammonia
Q 120 :
Which of the following is used as a preservative to protect processed food ?
A.Sodium sulphate
B.Saccharin
C.BHT
D.Sodium metabisulphite
Q 121 :
Carborundum is a compound of.
A.Ca
B.Ge
C.Si
D.S
Q 122 :
Which of the following could act as a propellant for rockets ?
A.Liquid oxygen + Liquid argon
B.Liquid hydrogen + Liquid oxygen
C.Liquid nitrogen + Liquid oxygen
D.Liquid hydrogen + Liquid nitrogen
Q 123 :
Helium is preferred to hydrogen in air ballons because it.
A.is cheaper
B.is less dense
C.has greater lifting power
D.does not form an explosive mixture with air
Q 124 :
The compound that has the least value for octane number is-
A.n–heptane
B.2–methyl heptane
C.Iso–octane
D.2, 2 – dimethyl hexane
Q 125 :
Select the one that is not a matter.
A.feeling of hot
B.smoke
C.humidity
D.water
Q 126 :
Which is incorrect statement ?
A.Matter is continuous in nature
B.Of the three state of matter, the one that is most compact is solid state
C.In solid state interparticles space (i.e. empty space) is minimum
D.The density of solid is generally more than that of a liquid
Q 127 :
Select the one that when used would be considered as best condition for liquification of a gas.
A.Increasing the temperature
B.Decreasing the pressure
C.Increasing the pressure and decreasing the temperature
D.Decreasing the pressure and increasing the temperature
Q 128 :
Select the correct order of evaporation for water, alcohol, petrol and kerosene oil:
A.water > alcohol > kerosene oil > petrol
B.alcohol > petrol > water > kerosene oil
C.petrol > alcohol > water . kerosene oil
D.petrol > alcohol > kerosene oil > water
Q 129 :
The evaporation of a liquid can best be carried out in a.
A.flask
B.china dish
C.test–tube
D.beaker
Q 130 :
The melting point temperature of the solid state of a substance is 40° C. The freezing point temperature of the liquid state of the same substance will be.
A.35°C
B.40°C
C.45°C
D.can't predict
Q 131 :
Which one will help to accelerate the process of evaporation of a liquid kept in an open china dish ?
A.Keeping dish in open
B.Blowing air into the liquid
C.Keeping the dish under a running fan
D.All of the above
Q 132 :
When a gas is compressed keeeping temperature constant, it result in.
A.increase in speed of gaseous molecules
B.increase in collision among gaseous molecules
C.ecrease in speed of gaseous molecules
D.decrease in collision among gaseous molecules
Q 133 :
Which of the following in an element ?
A.Marble
B.Graphite
C.Washing stone
D.Stone
Q 134 :
An atom is.
A.The smallest particle of matter known
B.The smallest particle of a gas
C.The smallest indivisible particle of an element that can tak part in a chemical change
D.Radioactive emission
Q 135 :
Which of the following is a compound ?
A.Stainless steel
B.Brass
C.Iron sulphide
D.Diamond
Q 136 :
Select the one that has a definite boiling point.
A.true solution
B.compound
C.colloid
D.All of these
Q 137 :
we can see the particles of a collidal solution with.
A.naked eyes
B.the help of ultramicroscope
C.the help of microscope
D.None of these
Q 138 :
Which of the following will yield a mixture ?
A.Crushing of marble tile
B.Breaking of ice–cubes
C.Addition of sodium metal to water in a china dish
D.Agitating a detergent with water in a washing machine
Q 139 :
On passing through a colloidal solution, the beam of light gets..............
A.reflected
B.refracted
C.scattered
D.absorbed
Q 140 :
How many chloride ions are surrounding sodium ion in sodium chloride crystal ?
A.4
B.8
C.6
D.12
Q 141 :
Brass is an example of.
A.compound
B.element
C.homogeneous mixture
D.heterogeneous mixture
Q 142 :
Air is regarded as mixture because.
A.its pressure may vary
B.its temperature may vary
C.its volume changes with change in temperature pressure
D.its composition may vary
Q 143 :
The size of colloidal particles usually lies in the range.
A.10–5 – 10–7 cm
B.10–7 – 10–9 cm
C.10–3 – 10–5 cm
D.10–2 – 10–6 cm
Q 144 :
Oil and water can form a stable dispersion with help of a third substance commonly called.
A.emulsifier
B.dispersant
C.protective colloid
D.None of these
Q 145 :
The blue colour of water in the sea is due to.
A.absorption of other colour except blue by water molecules
B.scattering of blue light by sol particles
C.refraction of blue light by impurities present in seawater
D.reflection of blue sky by sea water
Q 146 :
Tails of comets are visible due to.
A.Tyndall Effect
B.Reflection
C.Brownian movement
D.None of these
Q 147 :
Why is helium preferred over hydrogen for use in airships ?
A.Helium has a low density
B.Helium has a high density
C.Helium is chemically less reactive
D.Helium is chemically more reactive
Q 148 :
Which one of the following mixtures is homogeneous ?
A.Starch and sugar
B.Methanol and water
C.Graphite and charcoal
D.Calcium carbonate and calcium bicarbonate
Q 149 :
During summer, wate kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the phenomenon of.
A.diffusion
B.transpiration
C.osmosis
D.evaporation
Q 150 :
A few substance are arranged in the increasing order of 'force of attraction' between their particle, Which one of the following represents a correct arrangement ?
A.Water, air, wind
B.Air, sugar, oil
C.Oxygen, water, sugar
D.salt, juice, air
Q 151 :
The boiling points of diethyl ether, acetone and n–butyl alcohol are 35°C, 56°C, and 118°C respectively. Which one of the following correctly represents their boiling points in kelvin scale ?
A.306K, 326K, 391K
B.308K, 329K, 392 K
C.308K, 329K, 391K
D.329K, 392K, 308K
Q 152 :
In Which of the following conditions, the distance between the molecules of hydrogen gas would increase ?
(1) Increasing pressure on hydrogen contained in a closed container
(2) Some hydrogen gas leaking out of the container
(3) Increasing the volume of the container of hydrogen gas
(4) Adding more hydrogen gas to the container without increasing the volume of the container
A.1 and 3
B.1 and 4
C.2 and 3
D.2 and 4
Q 153 :
Which of the following statements are true for pure substances ?
(1) Pure substances contain only one kind of particles
(2) Pure substances may be compounds of mixtures
(3) Pure substances have the same composition throughout
(4) Pure substances can be exemplified by all elements other than nickel
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.2 and 3
Q 154 :
Tincture of iodine has antiseptic properties. This solution is made by dissolving.
A.iodine in potassium iodide
B.iodine in vaseline
C.iodine in water
D.iodine in alcohol
Q 155 :
There are four test tubes A,B, C and D half filled with water. A considerable quantity of sugar, milk, egg white and common salt was added in them respectively with stirring the contents of each tube.
True solution will be obtained in
A.Only A
B.Only D
C.Both B and C
D.Both A and D
Q 156 :
The example of solution of liquid in gas is.
A.Dry air
B.Sugar in water
C.mercury in gold
D.Moist air
Q 157 :
The component of a solution which is present in larger amount is referred to as.
A.Solute
B.Solvent
C.Both (a) and (b)
D.Neither (a) nor (b)
Q 158 :
You have prepared four different mixtures in water using
1. Charcoal powder, 2. Chalk powder, 3. Slaked lime and 4. Detergent powder. If you filter these mixtures through a filter paper, there will be no residue left after filtration in the case of.
A.Charcoal powder
B.chalk powder
C.slaked lime
D.detergent powder
Q 159 :
A gas can be compressed to a fraction of its volume. The same volume of a gas can be spread all over a room. The reason for this is that.
A.the volume occupied by molecules of a gas is negligible as compared to the total volume of the gas
B.gases consists of molecules which are in a state of random motion
C.gases consist of molecules having very large intermolecular space which can be reduced or increased under ordinary conditions
D.None of these
Q 160 :
Which has the least energetic molecules ?
A.Solids
B.Liquids
C.Gases
D.Plasmas
Q 161 :
The process used to separate oil and water is.
A.distillation
B.sublimation
C.separating funnel
D.chromatography
Q 162 :
A mixture of common salt, sulphur, sand and iron filings is shaken with carbon disulphide and filtered through a filter paper. The filtrate is evaporated to dryness in a china dish. What will be left in dish after evaporation ?
A.Sand
B.Sulphur
C.Iron filings
D.Common salt
Q 163 :
White gold is used in jewelry and contains two elements, gold and palladium. A jeweler has two different samples that are both identical in appearence and have a uniform composition throughout. What can be said about the samples ?
A.They are homogeneous mixtures and be classified as metallic alloys
B.The materials are heterogeneous mixtures and can be classified by their components
C.The samples have variable compositions and are classified as metallic solution
D.The samples are heterogeneous mixtures that can be separated using magnetic properties
Q 164 :
Which flow chart correctly describe a homogeneous materials ?
A.Unknown – density – 3 layers
B.Unknown – filtration – two substances
C.Unknown – magnet – two substances
D.Unknown – boiling – one temperature
Q 165 :
Magnetism is most beneficial for separating.
A.gases and non – metalic liquids
B.magnetic solids and solids such as sulphur
C.non–metallic solids and solids such as sulphur
D.non–magnetic solids from non–magnetic liquids
Q 166 :
Distillation is a good separation technique for.
A.solids
B.liquids
C.solid alloys
D.gases
Q 167 :
Solubility is a good separation technique for.
A.solids
B.liquids
C.solid alloys
D.gases
Q 168 :
40g of common salt is dissolved in 320 g of water. The mass percentage of salt is.
A.11.1%
B.12.5%
C.15%
D.10%
Q 169 :
Water is boiling in open fry pan represents which type of change ?
A.Physical and irreversible
B.Chemical and irreversible
C.Physical and reversible
D.Chemical and reversible
Q 170 :
Which of the following is a chemical change ?
A.Dent produced on car body by cricket ball
B.Streching of rubber band
C.Brinjals and apples becomes dark on exposure to atmosphere
D.Formation of salts by collecting sea water in shallows pits
Q 171 :
The cause of Brownian movement is.
A.convection current
B.heat changes in liquid state
C.impact of molecules of dispersion medium on colloidal particles
D.attractive forces between particles of dispersed phase and dispersion medium
Q 172 :
Which one among the following statements regarding the properties of mixtures and compounds is not correct ?
A.A mixture shows the properties of its constituents but the properties of a compound are entirely different from its constituents
B.A mixture may be homogeneous or heterogeneous but a compound is a homogeneous substance
C.The constitudents of amixture can be separated by physical methods but those of a compound cannot be separated by physical methods
D.Energy is either absorbed or evolved during the preparation of a mixture but not in the preparation of a compound
Q 173 :
What is the term used to denote the criical temperature at which the air becomes saturated with vapour and below which the condensation is likely to begin ?
A.Condensation point
B.Evaporation point
C.Dew point
D.Point of critical temperature
Q 174 :
Barrium in a suitable form is administered to patients before an X–ray examination of the stomach, because.
A.barium allows X–rays to pass through the stomach on account of its transparency to X–rays
B.barium is a good absorber of g–rays and this helps the stomach to appear clearly in contrast with the other regions in the picture
C.barium is a good absorber of X–rays and this helps the stomach to appear clearly conrast with the other regions in the picture
D.barium salts are white in colour and this helps the stomach to appear clearly in contrast with other regions in the pictures
Q 175 :
Which one among the following statements about an atoms is not correct ?
A.Atoms always combine to form molecules
B.Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and ions are formed
C.Atoms are always neutral in nature
D.Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter that we can see, feel and touch
Q 176 :
Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched ?
1. Iosotopes : Atoms with same atomic number but different atomic mass
2. Isobars : Atoms with same number of neutrons but different atomic number
3. Isotones : Atoms with same mass number but different atomic number
Select the correct answer using the code given below: codes:
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.2 only
Q 177 :
An oxide of nitrogen has molecular weight 30. What is the number of electrons in one molecule of the compound ?
A.14
B.15
C.22
D.23
Q 178 :
What is the weight of one atom of Hydrogen in grams ?
A.6.023 × 10–23
B.1.66 × 10–24
C.6.62 × 10–24
D.None of these
Q 179 :
Which among the following is popularly called Hypo ?
A.Silver bromide
B.Silver nitrate
C.Sodium thiosulphate
D.Sodium phosphate
Q 180 :
The number of neutrons in 27Al13 is.
A.40
B.27
C.14
D.13
Q 181 :
The nucleus of a singly ionized carbon atom contains.
A.6 protons and 6 neutrons
B.5 protons and 6 neutrons
C.6 protons, 6 nuetrons and 6 electrons
D.12 proton, 6 nuetrons and 6 electrons
Q 182 :
Protons and neutrons are bound in a nucleus by the.
A.short range 'weak interaction'
B.short range 'strong interaction'
C.long range 'electromagnetic interaction'
D.long range 'gravitational interaction'
Q 183 :
Which one among the following most correctly determines the atomic number of an element ?
A.number of protons
B.Number of protons and electrons
C.Number of ions
D.Number of nucleons
Q 184 :
The number of protons in a negatively charged atom (anion) is.
A.more than the atomic number of the element
B.less than the atomic number of the element
C.more than the number of electrons in the atom
D.less than the number of electrons in the atom
Q 185 :
Which one among the following is correct regarding 20Ne, 23Na+, 19F– and 24Mg²+ ?
A.They are isomers of each other
B.They are isotopes of each other
C.They are isoelectronic with each other
D.All of the above
Q 186 :
Which formula gives the maximum number of electrons in a shell ?
A.n²
B.2n²
C.3n²
D.4n²
Q 187 :
Heavy water implies.
A.water which is used in heavy industires such as thermal power plants
B.water which contains SO42– and CI– of calcium and magnesium
C.deutertated water
D.water which has maximum density
Q 188 :
Which one of the following is not needed in a nuclear fission reactor ?
A.Moderator
B.Coolant
C.Accelerator
D.Control device
Q 189 :
An α–particle consists of which of the following ?
A.2 protons and 2 neutrons
B.1 proton and 1 electron
C.2 protons and 4 neutrons
D.1 proton and 1 neutron
Q 190 :
In which one of the following is the valence electronic configuration, ns²np³ found ?
A.Carbon
B.Oxygen
C.Nitrogen
D.Argon
Q 191 :
Age of fossil may be found out by determining the ratio of two isotopes of carbon. The isotopes are.
A.C–12 and C–13
B.C–13 and C–14
C.C–12 and C–14
D.C–12 and carbon black
Q 192 :
Which of the following radioactive substances enters/ enter the human body through food chain and causes/cause many physiological disorders ?
A.Strontium–90
B.Iodine – 131
C.Cesium – 137
D.All of the above
Q 193 :
Rutherford's alpha–particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of.
A.Electron
B.Proton
C.Nucleus
D.Helium
Q 194 :
The species that has the same number of electrons as is.
Q 195 :
What is the formula mass of anhydrous sodium carbonate ?
(Given that the atomic masses of sodium, carbon and oxygen are 23u, 12 u and 16u repectively)
A.286 u
B.106u
C.83u
D.53u
Q 196 :
Which one of the following statements about the law of conservation of mass is correct ?
A.A given compound always contains exactly same proportion of elements
B.When gases combine in a reaction, they do so in a simple ratio by volume, provided all gases are at room temperature
C.Matter can neither be created nor destroyed
D.Equal volumes of all gases at same temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules
Q 197 :
Which of the following elements does not contain neutrons ?
A.Oxygen
B.Nitrogen
C.Hydrogen
D.copper
Q 198 :
The number of electrons and neutrons in an element is 18 and 20 respectively. It mass number is.
A.22
B.2
C.38
D.20
Q 199 :
Which one among the following is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors ?
A.Ozone
B.Heavy hydrogen
C.Heavy water
D.Hydrogen peroxide
Q 200 :
Avogadro's law states that equal volumes of all gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of-
is.