Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 2Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 3Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 4Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 5Single Answer
One Nanometer is equal to
A
10–9m
B
10–6m
C
10–10m
D
10–3m
Question 6Single Answer
Maxwell is the unit of
A
magnetic susceptibility
B
intensity of Magnetisation
C
magnetic Flux
D
magnetic Permeability
Question 7Single Answer
Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
A
Mass
B
Velocity
C
Length
D
Time
Question 8Single Answer
What are the units of magnetic permeability ?
A
Wb A–1 m–1
B
Wb–1 Am
C
Wb A m–1
D
Wb A–1 m
Question 9Single Answer
The dimensions of pressure gradient are
A
[ML–2 T–2]
B
[ML–2 T–1]
C
[ML–1 T–1]
D
[ML–1 T–2]
Question 10Single Answer
The dimensions of Rydberg's constant are
A
[M0L–1T]
B
[MLT–1]
C
[M0 L–1T0]
D
[ML0 T2]
Question 11Single Answer
'Farad' is the unit of
A
resistance
B
conductance
C
capacitance
D
inductance
Question 12Single Answer
S.I. unit of surface tension is
A
degree/cm
B
N/m
C
N/m²
D
Nm
Question 13Single Answer
Which one of the following pairs does not have the same dimension ?
A
Potential energy and Kinetic energy
B
Density and specific gravity
C
Focal length and height
D
Gravitational force and frictional force
Question 14Single Answer
Which one of the following physical quantity has the same unit as that of pressure ?
A
Angular momentum
B
Stress
C
Strain
D
Work
Question 15Single Answer
The symbol of SI unit of inductance is H. It stands for
A
Holm
B
Halogen
C
Henry
D
Hertz
Question 16Single Answer
Light year is a measure of
A
time
B
distance
C
total amount of light falling on the Earth in a year
D
average intensity of light falling on the Earth in a year
Question 17Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a dimension less quantity ?
A
Strain
B
Relative density
C
Frequency
D
Angle
Question 18Single Answer
The dimensions of universal gas constant are
A
[L² M¹ T–2 K–1]
B
[L¹ M² T–2 K–1]
C
[L¹ M¹ T–2 K–1]
D
[L² M² T–2 K–1]
Question 19Single Answer
The dimensions of magnetic moment are
A
[L²A¹]
B
[L²A–1]
C
[L²/A³]
D
[LA²]
Question 20Single Answer
The dimensions of Wien's constant are
A
[ML0TK]
B
[M0LT0K]
C
[M0L0TK]
D
[MLTK]
Question 21Single Answer
The dimensional formula of wave number is
A
[M0L0T–1]
B
[M0L–1T0]
C
[M–1 L–1 T0]
D
[M0 L0 T0]
Question 22Single Answer
The dimensional of Hubble ‘s wave number is
A
[T–1]
B
[M0L0T–2]
C
[MLT4]
D
[MT–1]
Question 23Single Answer
The dimensions of solar constant is
A
[M0L0T0]
B
[MLT–2]
C
[ML²T–2]
D
MT–3
Question 24Single Answer
The dimensional formula for entropy is
A
[MLT–2K¹]
B
[ML2 T-2]
C
[ML²T–2K–1]
D
[ML²T–2K]
Question 25Single Answer
Dimension of specific heat are
A
[ML² T–2 K]
B
[ML² T–2 K–1]
C
[ML²T²K–1]
D
[L²T–2K–2]
Question 26Single Answer
The physical quantity which has the dimensional formula [M¹T–3] is
A
surface tension
B
solar constant
C
density
D
compressibility
Question 27Single Answer
Which one of the following elements is used as a timekeeper in atomic clocks ?
A
Potassium
B
Caesium
C
Calcium
D
Magnesium
Question 28Single Answer
Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer ?
A
10–7 cm
B
10–6 cm
C
10–4 cm
D
10–3 cm
Question 29Single Answer
What is the unit of pressure ?
A
Newton/sq. meter
B
Newton–meter
C
Newton
D
Newton/meter
Question 30Single Answer
The unit of pressure is
A
kg/cm²
B
kg/cm
C
kg/mm
D
kg/cm3
Question 31Single Answer
Which one of the following quantities doe not have unit ?
A
Stress
B
Force
C
Strain
D
Pressure
Question 32Single Answer
Dimensional formula for thermal conductivity is here K denotes the temperature:
A
MLT–2K
B
MLT–2K–2
C
MLT–3K
D
MLT–3K–1
Question 33Single Answer
Which of the following is the unit of molar gas constant ?
A
JK–1 mol–1
B
Joule
C
JK–1
D
J mol–1
Question 34Single Answer
Density of liquid is 16.8 g cm–3. Its value in the International System of Units is
A
16.8 kgm–3
B
168 kgm–3
C
1680 kgm–3
D
16800 kgm–3
Question 35Single Answer
The dimensional formula of couple is
A
[ML² T–2]
B
[MLT²]
C
[ML–1T–3]
D
[ML–2T–2]
Question 36Single Answer
Subtract 0.2 J from 7.26 J and express the result with correct number of significant figures.
A
7.1 J
B
7.06 J
C
7.0 J
D
7 J
Question 37Single Answer
Multiply 107.88 by 0610 and express the result with correct number of significant figures.
A
65.8068
B
65.807
C
65.81
D
65.8
Question 38Single Answer
When 97.52 is divided by 2.54, the correct result is
A
38.3937
B
38.394
C
38.39
D
38.4
Question 39Single Answer
Which of the following is the most accurate ?
A
200.0m
B
20 × 10¹ m
C
2×10²m
D
data is inadequate
Question 40Single Answer
The area of a square is 5.29 cm². The area of 7 such square taking into account the significant figures is:
A
37cm²
B
37.030 cm²
C
37.03 cm²
D
37.0 cm²
Question 41Single Answer
The SI unit of coeffient of mutual inductance of a coil is
A
henry
B
volt
C
farad
D
weber
Question 42Single Answer
The S.I. unit of pole strength is
A
Am²
B
Am
C
Am–1
D
Am–2
Question 43Single Answer
Which is dimensionless ?
A
Force/acceleration
B
Velocity/accerleration
C
Volume/area
D
Energy/work
Question 44Single Answer
The expression [ML–1T–2] does not represent
A
pressure
B
power
C
Stress
D
Young's modulus
Question 45Single Answer
The dimensional formul of current density is
A
[M0L–2T–1Q]
B
[M0L2T1Q–1]
C
[MLT–1Q]
D
[ML–2T–1Q²]
Question 46Single Answer
Match the List – I with List – II
List - I List - II
(Units) (Physical quantity)
A. Watt 1. Electric charge
B. Tesla 2. Power
C. Coulomb 3. Luminous intensity
D. Candela 4. Magnetic field
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A
A B C D
1 4 1 3
B
1 2 3 4
C
1 2 4 3
D
2 4 3 1
Question 47Single Answer
Match the List – I with List – II
List - I List - II
(Physical quantity) (Units)
A. Power 1. kg ms–1
B. Energy 2. kg m²s–1
C. Momentum 3. Nm–2
D. Pressure 4. kW
5. kWh
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A
A B C D
4 5 1 3
B
4 5 1 2
C
5 4 1 2
D
5 4 2 3
Question 48Single Answer
What is the correct sequence in which the lengths of the following units increase ?
(1) Angstrom
(2) Micron
(3) Nanometer
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A
1, 2, 3
B
3, 1, 2
C
1, 3, 2
D
2, 3, 1
Question 49Single Answer
Match the List – I with List – II
List - I List - II
(Physical quantitiy) (Units)
A. Density 1. [MLT–2]
B. Force 2. [ML–3]
C. Energy 3. [MLT–1]
D. Momentum 4. [ML2T–2]
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A
A B C D
3 2 4 1
B
1 2 3 4
C
2 1 4 3
D
3 2 1 4
Question 50Single Answer
Match the List – I with List – II
List - I List - II
(Physical quanitity) (Units)
A. Solid angle 1. pascal
B. Impulse 2. Steradian
C. Viscosity 3. Newton–second
D. Pressure 4. Pascal–second
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A
A B C D
2 4 3 1
B
2 3 4 1
C
1 4 3 2
D
1 3 4 2
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Physics
Question 51Single Answer
Which of the following is most accurate ?
A
A screw gauge of least count 0.001 mm
B
A screw gauge having pitch 1 mm and 50 divisions on circular scale
C
A vernier callipers of least count 0.01 mm
D
Vernier callipers having 20 divisions on the sliding scale (vernier scale) coinciding 19 divisions on the main millimetre scale
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following quantities has a unit but dimensionless ?
A
Strain
B
Reynolds number
C
Angular displacemet
D
Poisson's ratio
Question 53Single Answer
The displacement of a body at a particular second n is given by the expression The dimensional formula of Snth in this equation is
A
[M¹L0T¹]
B
[M0L1T0]
C
[M0L¹T–1]
D
[M0L0T0]
Question 54Single Answer
The division of energy by time is X. The dimensional formula ofX is same as that of
A
momentum
B
power
C
torque
D
electric field
Question 55Single Answer
The dimensions of electromotive force in terms of correntA are
A
[MT-2 A-2]
B
[ML2T-2 A2]
C
[ML2T-2 A -2]
D
[ML2T3 A-1]
Question 56Single Answer
[MLT-1] + [MLT-1] = ………………
A
[M0L0T0]
B
[MLT-1]
C
2[MLT-1]
D
None of these
Question 57Single Answer
Which physical quantities have same dimensions ?
A
Moment of couple and work
B
Force and power
C
Latent heat and specific heat
D
Work in power
Question 58Single Answer
life is charge, V the potential difference, T the temperature, then the units of are the same as that of
A
planck’s constant
B
stefan’s constant
C
Boltzmann constant
D
gravitational constant
Question 59Single Answer
in the eqn. (V - b) = constant, the unit of a is
A
dyne × cm5
B
dyne × cm4
C
dyne × cm3
D
dyne × cm2
Question 60Single Answer
The least count of an instrument is 0.01 cm. Which of the following reding denotes the one, measured by this instrument ?
A
1.04 cm
B
2.001 cm
C
3.1 cm
D
None of these
Chemistry
Question 61Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 62Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 63Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 64Single Answer
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus
Question 65Single Answer
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate
Question 66Single Answer
What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
A
Glass
B
Cement
C
paint
D
Gun powder
Question 67Single Answer
Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
A
Sulphur based
B
Phosphorus based
C
Silicon based
D
Iron based
Question 68Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Magnesium carbonate
C
Magnesium chloride
D
Magnesium sulphate
Question 69Single Answer
Which one of the following substances is used in the manufacture of safety matches ?
A
Red phosphorus
B
White phosphorus
C
Phosphorus trioxide (P2O3)
D
Black phosphorus
Question 70Single Answer
Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket ?
A
Nylon –6, 6
B
Rayon
C
Kevlar
D
Dacron
Question 71Single Answer
Which one of the following is another name of RDX
A
Cyanohydrin
B
Dextran
C
Cyclohexane
D
Cyclonite
Question 72Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
A
Phosphorus trichloride
B
Mercuric oxide
C
Graphite
D
Nitroglycerine
Question 73Single Answer
Flint glass is obtained from which of the following ?
A
Zinc and barium borosilicate
B
Sand, red lead and potassium carbonate
C
Sodium aluminium borosilicate
D
Pure silica and zinc oxide
Question 74Single Answer
Which one of the following correctly defines the state of glass ?
A
Crystalline solid
B
Super cooled liquid
C
Condensed gas
D
Liquid crystal
Question 75Single Answer
Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer ?
A
Ammonium nitrate
B
Ammonium sulphide
C
Ammonium phosphate
D
Ammonium sulphate
Question 76Single Answer
Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells ?
A
Lithium
B
Sodium
C
Rubidium
D
Caesium
Question 77Single Answer
Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching powder ?
A
It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries
B
It is used for bleaching wood pup in paper factories
C
It is used for disinfecting drinking water
D
It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry
Question 78Single Answer
Hard glass having the same ingredientsas soft glass excepts.
A
hard glass have Na in place of K
B
hard glass having K in place of Na
C
hard glass having both Na and K
D
None of the above
Question 79Single Answer
A complete fertilizer provides
A
N,P, K
B
S, K, N
C
S, B, K
D
N, S, P
Question 80Single Answer
Antacids are commonly used to get rid of acidity in the Stomach. A commonly used antacid is.
A
sodium hydrogen phthalate
B
magnesium hydroxide
C
calcium hydroxide
D
manganese acetate
Question 81Single Answer
Annealing of glass is done to.
A
make it brittle
B
make it opaque
C
make it transparent
D
None of the above
Question 82Single Answer
Petrochemicals are obtained from.
A
coal
B
petroleum
C
coal tar
D
All of these
Question 83Single Answer
The use of chemicals for treatment of diseases is called as.
A
isothermotherapy
B
angiotherapy
C
physiotherapy
D
chemotherapy
Question 84Single Answer
Which of the following is a hypnotic drug ?
A
luminal
B
salol
C
catechol
D
chemisol
Question 85Single Answer
Teflon is a polymer of which of the following monomers ?
A
Tetrafluoroethylene
B
Vinyl chloride
C
Acetylene dichloride
D
None of the above/More than one of the above
Question 86Single Answer
LPG used as domestic fuel chiefly contains–
A
Methane
B
Propane
C
Ethylene
D
Butane
E
None of the above/More than one of the above
Question 87Single Answer
Glass is a.
A
liquid
B
colloid
C
non–crystalline amorphous solid
D
crystalline solid
Question 88Single Answer
Which one of the following acids is used for etching glass ?
A
H2SO4
B
HNO3
C
HF
D
HCI
Question 89Single Answer
What is the purpose of adding plasticizers in paint manufacturing process ?
A
They act as a film–forming constituent
B
They reduce the viscosity
C
They prevent the polymerization and condensation
D
They provide elasticity to the film and minimize its cracking
Question 90Single Answer
Which raw material is used in the preperation of soft glass ?
A
K2CO3, SiO2, CaCO3
B
K2CO3, SiO2, PbCO3
C
Na2CO3, SiO2, CaCO3
D
Na2CO3, SiO2, PbO
Question 91Single Answer
What is the composition of nitrolim – a chemical fertilizer ?
A
Nitrogen and limestone
B
Calcium carbide and nitrogen
C
Calcium carbide and carbon
D
None of above
Question 92Single Answer
the major component used in preparation of different type of glasses is.
A
Silica
B
Sodium borate
C
Calcium silicate
D
Sodium silicate
Question 93Single Answer
Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks ?
A
Zinc and sulphur
B
Potassium and mercury
C
Strontium and barium
D
Chromium and nickel
Question 94Single Answer
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Phenyl is used as a household germicide.
Statement II : Phenyl is phenol derivative and phenol is an effective germicide.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I
C
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Question 95Single Answer
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Coal–based thermal power stations contribute to acid–rain.
Statement II : Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and II are individually correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are individiaully correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Question 96Single Answer
Terfenadine is commonly used as a/an.
A
transquilizer
B
antihistamine
C
antimicrobial
D
antibiotic
Question 97Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a tranqualizer ?
A
Equanil
B
Veronal
C
Salvarsan
D
Serotonin
Question 98Single Answer
Barbituric acid and its derivatives are well known.
A
antipyretics
B
analgesics
C
antiseptics
D
tranquilizers
Question 99Single Answer
Which one among is not an analgesic ?
A
Ibuprofen
B
Naproxen
C
Aspirin
D
Valium
Question 100Single Answer
Various phenol derivatives, tincture of iodine (2 – 3%) I 2 in (water/alcohol) and some dyes like methylene blue are.
A
antiseptics
B
disinfectants
C
analgesics
D
antipyretics
Question 101Single Answer
Commonly used antiseptics 'Dettol' is a mixture of.
A
o–chlorophenozylenol + terpeneol
B
o–cresol + terpeneol
C
phenol + terpeneol
D
chloroxylenol + terpeneol
Question 102Single Answer
Which of the following is not an antiseptic drug ?
A
Iodoform
B
Dettol
C
Gammexene
D
Genatian violet
Question 103Single Answer
Which one of the following substances is made from natural raw materials ?
A
Rayon
B
Nylon
C
Polyster
D
Polystyrene
Question 104Single Answer
The polymeric fibre used as a substitute for wool in making synthetic blankets, sweaters, etc. is.
A
nylon
B
teflon
C
orlon
D
bakelite
Question 105Single Answer
The cleaning of dirty clothes by soaps and detergents is deue to a type of molecules called surfactants, which are present in soaps and detergents. The surfactant molecules remove the dirt by.
A
making the cloth slippery
B
producing some gases between the dirt and the cloth
C
dissolving the dirt
D
forming some aggregates of themselves and take away the dirt in the core of the aggregates
Question 106Single Answer
Contact lenses are made from.
A
polyvinyl chloride
B
polystyrene
C
lucite
D
teflon
Question 107Single Answer
On of the occupational health hazards commonly faced by workers of ceramics, pottery and glass industry is.
A
stone formation in gall bladder
B
melanoma
C
silicosis
D
stone formation in kidney
Question 108Single Answer
vermicompost is an/a.
A
inorganic fertilizer
B
toxic substance
C
organic bio fertilizer
D
synthetic fertilizer
Question 109Single Answer
The macro nutrients provided by inorganic fertilizer are.
A
carbon, iron and boron
B
magnesium, manganese and sulphur
C
magnesiu, zinc and iron
D
nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
Question 110Single Answer
Which one of the following statement is not correct ?
A
Water starts boiling when its vapour pressure becomes equal to amospheric pressure
B
Water is known as universal solvent
C
Permanent hardness of water is due to presence of MgCl2, CaCl2, MgSO4 and CaSO4
D
Density of ice is greater than that of water
Question 111Single Answer
Density of the following polymers is used for making bullet proof windows ?
A
Polycarbonates
B
Polyerethanes
C
Polystyrene
D
Polyamides
Question 112Single Answer
Match the List – I with List – II
List - I List - II
(Substances) (Applications)
A. Aspartame 1. Syunthetic rubber
B. Freon 2. Anti – histamine
C. Neoprene 3. Artificial Sweetener
D. Benadryl 4. Refrigerant
Select correct answer using the codes given below :
A
A B C D
1 3 4 2
B
2 4 1 3
C
3 4 1 2
D
3 1 2 4
Question 113Single Answer
Match the List – I with List – II
List - I List - II
(Noble gas) (Use)
A. Argon 1. In lights for advertising display
B. Neon 2. Airport landing lights and in light houses
C. Krypton 3. Light in photographer's flash gun
D. Xenon 4. In tungsten filament to last longer
Select correct answer using the codes given below :
A
A B C D
3 1 2 4
B
3 2 1 4
C
4 2 1 3
D
4 1 2 3
Question 114Single Answer
Which one is a sublime substance ?
A
Table salt
B
Sugar
C
Iodine
D
Potassium Iodide
Question 115Single Answer
The process of change of liquied state into gaseous state at constant temperature is known as.
A
boiling
B
melting
C
fusion
D
evaporation
Question 116Single Answer
Which one is a surface phenomenon ?
A
Evaporation
B
Boiling
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of these
Question 117Single Answer
Jayamkondam in Tamil Nadu is famous for which among the following minerals ?
A
Bauxite
B
Lignite
C
Calcite
D
Magnesite
Question 118Single Answer
Which of the following processes is known as fusion ?
A
change of liquid to solid
B
Change of solid to liquid
C
Change of liquid to vapour
D
Change of gaseous state to solid state
Question 119Single Answer
The one, in which interparticle forces are strongest, is.
A
sodium chloride
B
hydrogen
C
ether
D
carbon dioxide
Question 120Single Answer
Which of the following is compound ?
A
Stainless steel
B
Brass
C
Iron sulphide
D
Diamond
Biology
Question 121Single Answer
Plant viruses usually contain :
A
RNA
B
DNA
C
DNA and RNA
D
DNA or RNA
Question 122Single Answer
Viruses were discovered by :
A
Stanley
B
Ivanowski
C
Twort
D
Herelle
Question 123Single Answer
Which statement best defines viruses?
A
Acellular infectious agents that replicate only inside living host cells
B
Cellular microorganisms containing only DNA
C
Free-living microorganisms capable of independent metabolism
D
Cellular microorganisms containing only RNA
Question 124Single Answer
Which infectious agents consist essentially of small, naked RNA molecules without a protein coat?
A
Virions
B
Prions
C
Viroids
D
Bacteriophages
Question 125Single Answer
Coliphage f X 174 contains :
A
double stranded RNA
B
single stranded DNA
C
double stranded DNA
D
single stranded RNA
Question 126Single Answer
Viruses differ from living organisms in that, they :
A
can grow inside a living host
B
can multiply inside a living host
C
can undergo mutation inside a living host
D
are non-cellular
Question 127Single Answer
Virus which attacks E.coli is called :
A
bacteriophage
B
coliphage
C
phytophage
D
zoophage
Question 128Single Answer
Which characteristic distinguishes viruses from cellular organisms?
A
They possess ribosomes for protein synthesis
B
They have independent energy metabolism
C
They are acellular and depend on host cells for replication
D
They reproduce by binary fission
Question 129Single Answer
The genome of a temperate bacteriophage integrated into the bacterial chromosome is termed as?
A
Prophage
B
Episome
C
Plasmid
D
Capsomere
Question 130Single Answer
Virus was crystallized and isolated first by :
A
J.D. Ivanowski
B
F.C. Bawden
C
W.M. Stanley
D
K.M. Smith
Question 131Single Answer
Little leaf disease of brinjal is primarily associated with which pathogen?
A
Phytoplasma
B
Begomovirus
C
Fungus
D
Viroid
Question 132Single Answer
Which approximate size range includes many of the smallest known conventional virus particles?
A
20–30 nm
B
100–150 nm
C
500–700 nm
D
1–2 µm
Question 133Single Answer
Which of the following is devoid of protein coat, with a constitution of RNA only ?
A
Tobacco mosaic virus
B
Poxvirus
C
Potato spindle tuber virus
D
None of the above
Question 134Single Answer
Genetic modification brought about by a virus in a bacteria is known as :
A
transformation
B
transduction
C
conjugation
D
candidiasis
Question 135Single Answer
Which property makes the classification of viruses as strictly living or non-living problematic?
A
They reproduce independently outside cells
B
They possess cellular organelles but lack DNA
C
They replicate in host cells but are metabolically inactive outside them
D
They perform independent respiration outside host cells
Question 136Single Answer
Influenza viruses contain which type of genetic material?
A
Double-stranded DNA
B
Single-stranded RNA
C
Single-stranded DNA
D
Double-stranded RNA
Question 137Single Answer
Edward Jenner is best known for pioneering vaccination against which disease?
A
Smallpox
B
Chickenpox
C
Rabies
D
Poliomyelitis
Question 138Single Answer
Roux Sarcoma virus contains :
A
RNA
B
DNA
C
DNA and RNA
D
None of these
Question 139Single Answer
Which of the following is a viral disease of potato ?
A
Early blight of potato
B
Late blight of potato
C
Leaf roll of potato
D
None of the above
Question 140Single Answer
The term Virus' has been derived from a Latin word meaning :
A
poison
B
secretion
C
cell
D
venom
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of DNA containing plant virus ?
A
Tobacco mosaic virus
B
Potato mosaic virus
C
Cauliflower mosaic virus
D
Tomato mosaic virus
Question 142Single Answer
Rabies is caused by :
A
viruses
B
slime moulds
C
fungi
D
bacterium
Question 143Single Answer
A clear area produced when bacteriophages lyse bacterial cells growing on a culture medium is called a?
A
Plaque
B
Colony
C
Streak
D
Capsule
Question 144Single Answer
An antiviral substance produced by many vertebrates in response to viral infection for resisting the multiplication of viruses is known as :
A
antivirin
B
antigen
C
virion
D
interferon
Question 145Single Answer
Viruses with two types of symmetry, i.e., icosahedral head and helical tail are called :
A
picornaviruses
B
binal viruses
C
riboviruses
D
none of these
Question 146Single Answer
Which of the following is a Capsid ?
A
Protein part of virus
B
Nucleic part of virus
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of these
Question 147Single Answer
A stage in the replication of virus, when the cell wall of host is ruptured is known as :
A
lesion
B
lysis
C
autolysis
D
haemolysis
Question 148Single Answer
Which metabolic capability is absent in viruses?
A
Independent ATP-generating metabolism
B
Genetic mutation
C
Genome replication within a suitable host
D
Assembly of progeny virions inside host cells
Question 149Single Answer
The exception to the cell theory of Schleiden and Schwann are :
A
viruses
B
bacteria
C
algae
D
fungi
Question 150Single Answer
An extreme example of latency in which the DNA of the phage is integrated with the DNA of host cell chromosome is :
A
lysis
B
lysogeny
C
prophage
D
attenuated virus
Question 151Single Answer
What generally happens to contractile-vacuole activity when a freshwater Amoeba is transferred to a sufficiently hypertonic saline solution?
A
It increases rapidly
B
It remains unchanged
C
It decreases markedly or may cease
D
The vacuole divides repeatedly
Question 152Single Answer
What is the median adhesive pad located between the two terminal claws of a cockroach leg called?
A
Unguis
B
Arolium
C
Tibial spur
D
Cercus
Question 153Single Answer
The binomial system of Carolus Linnaeus was devoid of which of the following categories ?
A
Genus and species
B
Class and order
C
Phylum and family
D
Kingdom and class
Question 154Single Answer
The mouthparts of a cockroach are adapted primarily for which mode of feeding?
A
Biting and chewing
B
Piercing and sucking
C
Siphoning
D
Sponging
Question 155Single Answer
Which mosquito is the biological vector responsible for natural transmission of human malaria?
A
Male Culex
B
Female Culex
C
Female Aedes
D
Female Anopheles
Question 156Single Answer
Amniota group includes :
A
Aves and Reptiles
B
Pisces, Amphibia and Reptiles
C
Amphibia, Reptiles and Aves
D
Reptiles, Aves and Mammalia
Question 157Single Answer
Which combination correctly represents the principal mouthparts of a cockroach?
A
Labrum, mandibles, first maxillae, labium and hypopharynx
B
Labrum, antennae, tibia, labium and cerci
C
Mandibles, antennae, femur, maxillae and labium
D
Labrum, wings, mandibles, hypopharynx and tibia
Question 158Single Answer
In a typical winged insect, the two pairs of wings are borne on which thoracic segments?
A
Prothorax and mesothorax
B
Mesothorax and metathorax
C
Prothorax and metathorax
D
Prothorax and first abdominal segment
Question 159Single Answer
Which is true ?
A
Pisces, Reptiles and birds are poikilotherms
B
Pisces, Amphibians and Reptiles are Anamniota
C
Aves, Mammals and Reptiles are homeotherms
D
Reptiles, Aves and Mammais are Amniota
Question 160Single Answer
Which sequence correctly represents the general forward flow of haemolymph through the dorsal vessel of a cockroach?
What are the dorsal sclerites of the three thoracic segments of an insect collectively called?
A
Sterna
B
Pleura
C
Nota
D
Coxae
Question 162Single Answer
Amniotes do not include :
A
Amphibia
B
Reptiles
C
Birds
D
Mammals
Question 163Single Answer
Which vector transmits visceral leishmaniasis or kala-azar?
A
Glossina
B
Aedes
C
Pediculus
D
Phlebotomus
Question 164Single Answer
What are the corpora allata of a cockroach?
A
Excretory organs
B
Tactile organs
C
Endocrine glands
D
Digestive glands
Question 165Single Answer
The group amniota includes :
A
Reptiles and birds
B
Reptiles and mammals
C
Reptiles, birds and mammals
D
Birds and mammals
Question 166Single Answer
Wingless insects, with abdominal appendages in the adult, are put under the sub - class :
A
apterygota
B
pterygota
C
exopterygota
D
endopterygota
Question 167Single Answer
In cockroach, the type of metamorphosis is :
A
metabolus
B
hemimetabolus
C
paurometabolus
D
holometabolous
Question 168Single Answer
In which kingdom prokaryotic organisms were placed by Whittaker ?
A
Animalia
B
Plantae
C
Monera
D
Protista
Question 169Single Answer
Approximately how many eggs may a female Anopheles mosquito lay in a single batch?
A
5–20
B
50–200
C
300–500
D
More than 1,000
Question 170Single Answer
A dorsal sclerite of cockroach is called :
A
pleuron
B
plastrom
C
tergum
D
sternum
Question 171Single Answer
Concern with nomenclature of organisms :
A - Whittaker, B - Strickland
A
Only A
B
Only B
C
Both A and B
D
None
Question 172Single Answer
In mosquitoes and other true flies, the hindwings are modified into which balancing organs?
A
Scutella
B
Halteres
C
Tegmina
D
Elytra
Question 173Single Answer
In the male cockroach, the paired testes are situated approximately in which abdominal segments?
A
First to third
B
Second to fourth
C
Fourth to sixth
D
Seventh to ninth
Question 174Single Answer
According to five kingdom classification, Protozoa are placed in :
A
Protista
B
Monera
C
Fungi
D
Animalia
Question 175Single Answer
Which honeybee larvae continue to receive abundant royal jelly beyond the initial larval feeding period?
A
Larvae destined to become queens
B
Only drone larvae
C
Only worker larvae
D
All larvae throughout their entire development
Question 176Single Answer
Which feature most readily distinguishes an adult male mosquito from an adult female mosquito?
A
Male antennae are conspicuously plumose or bushy
B
Male mosquitoes possess two pairs of wings
C
Females completely lack antennae
D
Females possess no proboscis
Question 177Single Answer
Which taxonomic rank is placed above kingdom in the commonly used modern hierarchy?
A
Family
B
Order
C
Domain
D
Genus
Question 178Single Answer
Silk glands are modified :
A
salivary glands
B
collateral glands
C
anal glands
D
mushroom glands
Question 179Single Answer
Which statement correctly identifies a hermit crab?
A
It is a crustacean commonly occupying empty gastropod shells
B
It is an echinoderm related to sea cucumbers
C
It is a cnidarian related to sea anemones
D
It is a mollusc related to sea hares
Question 180Single Answer
Under Whittaker's five-kingdom classification, Mycoplasma is placed in which kingdom?
A
Monera
B
Protista
C
Fungi
D
Plantae
Mathematics
Question 181Single Answer
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}
Question 182Single Answer
A
B
C
D
None of these
Question 183Single Answer
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Question 184Single Answer
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}
Question 185Single Answer
If A B and A B, then
A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A
Question 186Single Answer
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17
Question 187Single Answer
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
A
2m – 1
B
m
C
m2
D
2m
Question 188Single Answer
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these
Question 189Single Answer
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these
Question 190Single Answer
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint
Question 191Single Answer
Which of the following is/are empty set?
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z} B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}
A
A
B
B
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above
Question 192Single Answer
The set {x : x4 = 1 and x R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
A
empty
B
finite
C
infinite
D
singleton
Question 193Single Answer
The universal set for the sets
A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and
B = {x : x2 – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is
A
{1, 2}
B
{1, 3}
C
{1, 2, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}
Question 194Single Answer
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0},
C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and
D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are
A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A, B and C
D
A, C and D
Question 195Single Answer
If A = (–3, 5) and B = [–7, 9], then
A
A = B
B
A B
C
B A
D
None of these
Question 196Single Answer
Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are
A
7, 6
B
5, 1
C
6, 3
D
8, 7
Question 197Single Answer
Combine terms: 12a + 26b - 4b – 16a .
A
4a + 22b
B
-28a + 30b
C
-4a + 22b
D
28a + 30b
Question 198Single Answer
The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .
A
25.30
B
25.5
C
25.00
D
12.25
Question 199Single Answer
60 Times of 8 Equals to
A
480
B
300
C
250
D
400
Question 200Single Answer
Consider the sets
A = {x : x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0}
B = {x : x is a real number and x2 – 16 = 0}
C = {x : x is a real number and x2 = x + 2}
Which of the following is are null set ?
A
A
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
A, B and C
Question 201Single Answer
If X = {4n – 3n – 1: n Î N} and Y = {9(n – 1): n Î N}; where N is the set of natural numbers, then X È Y is equal to
A
N
B
Y – X
C
X
D
Y
Question 202Single Answer
Which of the following is / are correct?
I. {2, 3, 4} {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
II. {a, b, c} {b, c, d}
III. {x : x is an equilateral triangle in a plane} Ì {x : x is a triangle in the same plane}
IV. {x : x is an even natural number} {x : x is an integer}
A
I and III are correct
B
II and III are correct
C
Only IV is correct
D
All above are correct
Question 203Single Answer
A
B
C
D
Question 204Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The set of all irrational numbers between √2 and √5 is an infinite set .
2. The set of all odd integers less than 100 is a finite set .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 205Single Answer
What is the Next Prime Number after 7 ?
A
13
B
12
C
14
D
11
Question 206Single Answer
If A and B are two given sets, then A (A B)C is equal to
A
A
B
B
C
D
Question 207Single Answer
121 Divided by 11 is
A
11
B
10
C
19
D
18
Question 208Single Answer
Let X be the universal set for sets A and B, if n(A) = 200, n(B) = 300 and n = 100, then n is equal to 300 provided n(X) is equal to
A
600
B
700
C
800
D
900
Question 209Single Answer
A
{3, 4, 10}
B
{2, 8, 10}
C
{4, 5, 6}
D
{3, 5, 14}
Question 210Single Answer
Let A = {x : x is a prime factor of 240} B = {x : x is the sum of any two prime factors of 240}, then
A
B
C
D
Question 211Single Answer
If A = {x : x is a multiple of 4 and x N} and B = {x : x is a multiple of 6 and x N}, then A B consists of all multiples of
A
16
B
12
C
8
D
4
Question 212Single Answer
A
A = B
B
B = C
C
A = C
D
None of these
Question 213Single Answer
A
equal
B
disjoint
C
either equal or disjoint
D
none of the above
Question 214Single Answer
A
{–i, i}
B
{–1, 1}
C
{–1, 1, i, –i}
D
None of these
Question 215Single Answer
If A = {x : f(x)= 0} and
B = {x : g(x) = 0}, then A B will be
A
[f(x)]2 + [g(x)]2 = 0
B
C
D
None of the above
Question 216Single Answer
In a group of 400 people, 250 can speak Hindi and 200 can speak English. Then, people who can speak both Hindi and English are
A
60
B
80
C
50
D
45
Question 217Single Answer
20 teachers of a school either teach Mathematics or Physics. 12 of them teach Mathematics while 4 teach both the subjects. The number of teacher teaching Physics only, is
A
12
B
8
C
16
D
20
Question 218Single Answer
In a class of 100 students, 70 have taken Science, 60 have taken Mathematics, 40 have taken both Science and Mathematics. The number of students who have not taken Science or Mathematics or both Science and Mathematics, is equal to
A
90
B
10
C
30
D
20
Question 219Single Answer
A market research group conducted a survey of 1000 consumers and reported that 720 consumers like product A and 450 consumers like the product B, then least number that must have like both products, is
A
730
B
170
C
180
D
1270
Question 220Single Answer
If there are three athletic teams in a school, 21 are in the basketball team, 26 in hockey team and 29 in the football team. 14 play hockey and basketball, 15 play hockey and football, 12 play football and basketball and 8 play all the games. The total number of members is
A
42
B
43
C
45
D
None of these
Question 221Single Answer
A college awarded 38 medals in football, 15 in basketball and 20 in cricket. If these medals went to a total of 58 men and only three men got medals in all the three sports, then number of men who received meal in exactly two of the three sports is
A
18
B
15
C
9
D
24
Question 222Single Answer
In the class of 175 students, the following data shows the number of students opting one or more subjects. Mathematics 100; Physics 70; Chemistry 40; Mathematics and Physics 30; Mathematics and Chemistry 28; Physics and Chemistry 23; Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry 18. Then, number of students opted Mathematics alone is
A
35
B
48
C
60
D
20
Question 223Single Answer
In a town of 10000 families it was found that 40% family buy newspaper A, 20% family buy newspaper B and 10% family buy newspaper C, 5% families buy and B, 3% families buy B and C and 4% families buy A and C. If 2% families buy all the three newspapers. Then, number of families which by A only is
A
3100
B
3300
C
2900
D
1400
Question 224Single Answer
In a city, 20% of the population travles by car, 50% travles by bus and 10% travles by both car and bus. Then, person travelling by car or bus, is
A
80%
B
40%
C
60%
D
70%
Question 225Single Answer
Universal set,
U = {x | x5 – 6x4 + 11x3 – 6 x 2 = 0}
A = {x | x2 – 5x + 6 = 0}
B = {x | x2 – 3x + 2 = 0}
What is the value of (A B)?
A
{1, 3}
B
{1, 2, 3}
C
{0, 1, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}
Question 226Single Answer
A
B
C
D
Question 227Single Answer
If P(A) denotes the power set of A and A is the void set, then what is the number of elements in P{P{P{P(A)}}}?
A
Zero
B
1
C
4
D
16
Question 228Single Answer
If A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, b = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and C = {x : x2 = 4 or x = 1}, then
A
B
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 229Single Answer
In a group of 50 people, 35 speak Hindi, 25 speak both English and Hindi and all the people speak atleast one of two languages. The number of people who speak 'English', 'English but not Hindi' are respectively
A
40, 15
B
15, 40
C
35, 15
D
25, 15
Question 230Single Answer
If P = {1, 2}, then P × P × P = {(1, 1, 1), (1, 1, 2), (1, 2, 1), (2, 1, 2), (2, 2, 1), (2, 2, 2)}. The ordered triplet missing in P × P × P are
A
(1, 2), (2, 1)
B
(1, 2, 1), (2, 1, 1)
C
(1, 2, 2), (2, 1, 2)
D
(1, 2, 2), (2, 1, 1)
Question 231Single Answer
If A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {5, 7, 9} then
A
A × B = B × A
B
n(A × B) =n(B × A)
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 232Single Answer
Let A and B are two sets having 3 elements in common. If n(A) = 5 and n(B) = 4, then n[(A × B) (B × A)] is equal to
A
20
B
25
C
16
D
9
Question 233Single Answer
If n(A) = 3, n(B) = 4 then, n(A × A × B) is equal to
A
36
B
12
C
108
D
None of these
Question 234Single Answer
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {3, 8}, then (A B) × (A B) is equal to
A
{(8, 3), (8, 2), (8, 1), (8, 8)}
B
{(1, 2), (2, 2), (3, 3), (8, 8)}
C
{(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 8)}
D
{(1, 3), (2, 3), (3, 3), (8, 3)}
Question 235Single Answer
The Cartesian product A × A has 9 elements among which are found (–1, 0) and (0, 1). Then, the remaining elements of A × A are