To boost your performance in Bandhan Bank Clerk exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in Bandhan Bank Clerk exams.
Latest Bandhan Bank Clerk Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, English Language, Marketing, Computer Knowledge
Question Bank Bandhan Bank Clerk Exam - English
General Awareness
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 17 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 18 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 20 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 21 :
What is the rank of India in the ‘WIPO Global Innovation Index 2022’ ?
A.25
B.40
C.50
D.75
Q 22 :
Who has been appointed as the new Attorney General for India ?
A.R Venkataramani
B.A.J. Sadashiva
C.D Y Chandrachud
D.Ranjan Gogoi
Q 23 :
Which city is the host of the ‘Conference on International Day for Universal Access to Information’ ?
A.Tashkent
B.Dhaka
C.Nursultan
D.New Delhi
Q 24 :
Which state is the host of the National SC-ST hub conclave organised by the Union MSME Ministry ?
A.Jharkhand
B.Gujarat
C.Maharashtra
D.Tamil Nadu
Q 25 :
‘Operation Garuda’, which was seen in the news, is associated with which organization ?
A.CVC
B.CBI
C.Indian Air Force
D.Indian Navy
Q 26 :
Who has been named as the only Indian on “Time magazine’s list of 100 emerging leaders’ in September 2022 ?
A.Yash Dahiya
B.Rahul Bajaj
C.Avanish Grover
D.Akash Ambani
Q 27 :
At which place, Adani Green Energy Ltd (AGEL) commissioned the World’s largest Wind-solar power plant on 29 September 2022 ?
A.Jaisalmer
B.Gandhinagar
C.Jaipur
D.Jodhpur
Q 28 :
World Maritime Day was observed on 29 September 2022. What was the theme of World Maritime Day 2022 ?
A.A World Without Barriers
B.You Can : Attend the Innovation Forum
C.Save Maritime Species
D.New Technologies for greener Shipping
Q 29 :
Which state is hosting the 36th National Games from 29 September 2022 ?
A.Punjab
B.Meghalaya
C.Odisha
D.Gujarat
Q 30 :
Which country has struck a partnership agreement with Pacific island nations on 29 September 2022 ?
A.Mexico
B.United States
C.New Zealand
D.Australia
Q 31 :
After the recent Monetary Policy Committee Meeting of RBI (October 2022), What is the 2022 - 23 growth projection for India ?
A.6.5%
B.7.0%
C.7.5%
D.8.2%
Q 32 :
Which institution unveiled a list of 50 exclusive and iconic heritage textile crafts of India ?
A.UNESCO
B.NITI Aayog
C.Union Culture Ministry
D.FICCI
Q 33 :
Which country has recently signed a partnership agreement with Pacific island nations ?
A.China
B.USA
C.Russia
D.Germany
Q 34 :
Pangasius Icaria, which was recently discovered in the Cauvery River, belongs to which species ?
A.Turtle
B.Catfish
C.Frog
D.Snake
Q 35 :
As per a recent UNICEF report, what percent of child marriages can fall down if higher education is provided to girls ?
A.25 percent
B.40 percent
C.60 percent
D.80 percent
Q 36 :
The Second Round of Foreign Office Consultations between India and ………. Was held in New Delhi on 28 September 2022.
A.Chad
B.Ghana
C.Turkey
D.Nigeria
Q 37 :
Who was India’s Sherpa at the 3rd G-20 Sherpa meeting held in Yogyakarta, Indonesia from 26 to 29 September 2022 ?
A.Arvind Subramaniam
B.Satish Reddy
C.Dr K. Sivan
D.Amitabh Kant
Q 38 :
Which country’s navy has staged trilateral anti-submarine exercises with the navies of South Korea and Japan in September 2022 ?
A.USA
B.India
C.China
D.Russia
Q 39 :
Who has topped the ‘IIFL Wealth Hurun India 40 & Under Self - Made Rich List 202’ released in September 2022 ?
A.Bhavish Aggarwal
B.Shreyaa Bajaj
C.Manish Goyal
D.Nikhil Kamath
Q 40 :
Who has won gold medal in Men’s Rapid Fire Pistol event at the 36th National Games at Ahmedabad in Gujarat on 30 September 2022 ?
A.Anish
B.Ankur Goyal
C.Gurmeet
D.Satish Gupta
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 41 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 42 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 43 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 44 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 45 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 46 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 47 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 48 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 49 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 50 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Important Questions Package
Bandhan Bank Clerk Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy Bandhan Bank Clerk Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in Bandhan Bank Clerk question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
Bandhan Bank Clerk Exam - English
Description : 2500 Question With Answer
₹271[₹500]
2.
Bandhan Bank Clerk Exam - Hindi
Description : 2500 Question With Answer
₹271[₹500]
3.
Bandhan Bank Clerk Exam Question Bank Book - English
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 53 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 54 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 55 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 56 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 57 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 58 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 59 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 60 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 61 :
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A.20
B.24
C.22
D.26
Q 62 :
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A.3/4
B.2/3
C.4/5
D.5/8
Q 63 :
Which is greater ?
A.11/13
B.12/15
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 64 :
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A.0
B.1
C.Same
D.Prime
Q 65 :
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A.
10
B.100
C.1000
D.10000
Q 66 :
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A.1
B.10
C.Infinite
D.None
Q 67 :
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A.12345
B.1331
C.1234
D.1213
Q 68 :
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A.1
B.3
C.7
D.9
Q 69 :
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A.4
B.8
C.16
D.32
Q 70 :
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.6
Q 71 :
Which of the following is composite ?
A.
17
B.19
C.21
D.23
Q 72 :
What is √0.0009 ?
A.0.003
B.0.03
C.0.3
D.0.09
Q 73 :
What is √1156 ?
A.32
B.34
C.36
D.38
Q 74 :
What is √2025 ?
A.35
B.40
C.45
D.50
Q 75 :
What is (51^2) ?
A.2601
B.2501
C.2551
D.2651
Q 76 :
7 8 18 57 ?
A.244
B.174
C.186
D.none of these
Q 77 :
Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number. What is my Present age ?
A.25 years
B.27 years
C.26 years
D.24 years
Q 78 :
If a + b = 5, a2 + b2 = 13, the value of a – b (where a > b) is
A.2
B.-1
C.1
D.-2
Q 79 :
How many factors does 100 have ?
A.6
B.7
C.8
D.9
Reasoning Ability
Q 80 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 81 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 82 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 83 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 84 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 85 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 86 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 87 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 88 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 89 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 90 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 91 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 92 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 93 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 94 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 95 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 96 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 97 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 98 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 99 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 100 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 101 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 102 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 103 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 104 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 105 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 106 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 107 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 108 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 109 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 110 :
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A.71
B.61
C.79
D.69
Q 111 :
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A.HID
B.SON
C.Both LAP and BUT
D.CAR
E.Both CAR and LAP
Q 112 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A.LAP
B.BUT
C.CAR
D.SON
E.HID
Q 113 :
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 114 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 115 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 116 :
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 117 :
According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?
A.Two
B.One
C.None
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 118 :
If the first letter of all the words is changed to the previous letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will have more than one vowel?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 119 :
If all the vowels (in all the words) are changed to the next letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will form meaningful English words?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
English Language
Q 120 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 121 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 122 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 123 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 124 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 125 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 126 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 127 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 128 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 129 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 130 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 131 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 132 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 133 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 134 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 135 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 136 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 137 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 138 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 139 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Q 140 :
To sleep with the fishes
A.Always be in a dream world
B.To make absurd excuses
C.To sleep peacefully
D.To be dead
Q 141 :
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
A.To exterminate
B.To expurgate
C.To intricate
D.To extricate
Q 142 :
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
A.Irascible
B.Crucible
C.Miscible
D.Risible
Q 143 :
Shooting fish in a barrel
A.To do random acts of stupidity
B.To behave in a cruel manner
C.Ridiculously easy
D.To escape through a narrow opening
Q 144 :
What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?
A.was bounded by
B.was limitless
C.was limited
D.was bound to
Q 145 :
“There are more cyclists than pedestrians on the streets of Amsterdam”.
Choose the sentence which means the same as the above statement.
A.Pedestrians outnumber cyclists on the streets of Amsterdam
B.Cyclists are not as many is number as pedestrians
C.Walking is not as common as cycling is on the streets of Amsterdam
D.Cycling is not as common as walking is on the streets of Amsterdam
Q 146 :
Use the appropriate idiom to complete the expression. You may go home early if you are
A.Feeling a bit under the weather
B.Hitting the nail on the head
C.Sitting on the fence
D.Adding insult to the injury
Q 147 :
To bend over backwards
A.To accommodate every unreasonable request usually without getting anything back
B.Stepping away from an unpleasant situation
C.To make every effort to achieve something, especially to be fair or helpful
D.Submitting oneself completely to a higher authority
Q 148 :
To declare invalid an official agreement, decision, or result.
A.To annul
B.To negate
C.To efface
D.To undo
Q 149 :
Feeling or showing deep and solemn respect.
A.Pious
B.Reverent
C.Humble
D.Devout
Q 150 :
The teacher was taken aback by the student’s remark.
A.Annoyed
B.Surprised
C.Hurt
D.Pleased
Q 151 :
The lawyer insisted on having the contract in black and white.
A.In writing
B.Orally
C.Figuratively
D.Obliquely
Q 152 :
Our parents allowed us to watch films once in a blue moon.
A.Everywhere
B.Rarely
C.Secretly
D.Forever
Q 153 :
Hold your tongue, my lad ! I’ll deal with you later.
A.Stick out the tongue
B.Be silent
C.Cool the tongue
D.Gargle
Q 154 :
If you read his letter between the lines, you will find that he has no faith in his colleague’s honesty.
A.Strain your eyes
B.Read in secret
C.Find out the inner meaning
D.Read an untidy letter
Q 155 :
In this question idioms is followed by alternative meanings of which one is correct. Choose the correct option.
A.A person unsuited to the position he fills
B.A scheme that never works
C.An impossible task
D.A Herculean task
Q 156 :
Why do you fight shy of me ?
A.Fight with
B.Avoid
C.Embarrass
D.Shout at
Q 157 :
When he asked me the way to the cafeteria, I told him to follow the nose.
A.To find it by himself
B.To ask someone else
C.To follow me
D.To go Straight ahead
Q 158 :
You cannot throw dust into my eyes.
A.Terrify me
B.Cheat me
C.Hurt me
D.Abuse me
Q 159 :
Many would be leaders have feet to clay.
A.Elephantiasis
B.Nimble feet
C.Are flawed personalities
D.Run the business of clay modeling
Marketing
Q 160 :
Marketing offers to a market :
A.Products
B.Services
C.Information
D.All of the above
Q 161 :
Marketing concept focuses on :
A.Production
B.Customer needs
C.Environment
D.Product
Q 162 :
The Traditional Marketing Style Involves :
A.Tele Marketing
B.Digital Marketing
C.Indirect Marketing
D.Direct Marketing
Q 163 :
A true marketing requires :
A.command and other mindsets
B.
control mindset
C.Passive mindset
D.Active mindset
Q 164 :
For effective marketing, the salesman should have which of these qualities :
A.Creativity
B.Team spirit
C.Motivation
D.Effective communication skills
Q 165 :
Market Research is needed for :
A.Checking the market area & deciding right time to sell
B.checking the right product to be sold
C.Making proper marketing decisions
D.All of these
Q 166 :
Motivation means :
A.inspiring employees to perform better
B.better communication skills
C.Sales Coaching
D.Market Research
Q 167 :
Meaning of Target market is :
A.Entire country
B.Entire city
C.Entire globe
D.That which consist of customers who need the identified product
Q 168 :
Which company used the slogan “ The Complete Man” ?
A.DCM
B.GRASIM
C.RAYMONDS
D.VIMAL
Q 169 :
Information about developments in the marketing enviroment that managers use to prepare and making markting plans :
A.Marketing Information
B.Descision support System
C.Database Marketing
D.None of these
Q 170 :
Marketing the several different products under the same brand name :
A.Family Brand
B.Private Brand
C.co-branding
D.None of these
Q 171 :
A range of techniques used to engage the purchaser Such as discounting coupons, guarantees free gifts, vouchers, demonstrations bonus commission and sponsorship are known as :
A.sponsorship
B.Advertising
C.Personal Selling
D.Sales promotion
Q 172 :
When a company enters a new product category for which its current brand names are not appropriate, it will likely follow which of the following brand stratagies :
A.Product extensions
B.Line extensions
C.Brand extensions
D.New brands
Q 173 :
It is the process of evaluating each market segments attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter :
A.Mass Marketing
B.Marketing Segmantation
C.Market Targeting
D.Market Positioning
Q 174 :
Which of the following stages of the product life cycle focuses on expanding market and creating product awareness and trail :
A.Decline Stage
B.Introduction Stage
C.Growth Stage
D.Maturity Stage
Q 175 :
If an advertiser wants flexibility, timeliness, good local market coverage, broad acceptability, and high believabilty, the advertiser Will probably choose which of the following mass media types :
A.Newspapers
B.Television
C.Direct mail
D.Radio
Q 176 :
Relationship Marketing Means :
A.Improve profitability
B.Encourage utilization of products over the life span of the customer
C.Increase sales of new products
D.Developing strategic partnership with valued customers
Q 177 :
The selection of appropriate media is based upon :
A.Media habits of target consumers
B.Nature and cost of the product
C.The type of message
D.All of the above
Q 178 :
What are the advantages of radio advertising ?
(1) Relatively low cost
(2) High audience selectivity
(3) Good local acceptance
(4) High geographic selectivity
(5) High democratic selectivity
A.1 & 5
B.1, 4 & 5
C.All of the above
D.None of these
Q 179 :
What is meant by the term ‘above the line' marketing ?
A.The use or point of sale materials such as cutouts of artists in record stores
B.A marketing term referring to promotional expenditure using independent media channels, such as television and radio
C.The accounting profit before profit and tax are deducted
D.Using various ways to promote fast moving consumer goods by changing there appearance or contents
Computer Knowledge
Q 180 :
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A.Window
B.Pop-up menu
C.Message box
D.Taskbar
Q 181 :
What is active desktop ?
A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C.both a and b above mentioned
D.A software
E.None of these
Q 182 :
What is meant by an active window?
A.A window that is minimized
B.The window currently receiving user input
C.Any window currently open
D.The window opened first
Q 183 :
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A.An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B.A computer operating system
C.A spreadsheet application
D.A database management system
Q 184 :
An application is
A.word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B.computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C.Both a and b above mentioned
D.a document
E.None of these
Q 185 :
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A.Window program
B.Spreadsheet program
C.Graphics program
D.Word program
E.None of these
Q 186 :
The term Briefcase is used for
A.a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B.a window that us currently open
C.A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 187 :
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A.Executing a command or initiating an action
B.Permanently storing data
C.Displaying the computer's IP address
D.Formatting a disk automatically
Q 188 :
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A.a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B.a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C.an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 189 :
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A.The associated option is enabled or selected
B.The application has closed
C.The file has been deleted
D.The computer is offline
Q 190 :
The term classic style implies
A.you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B.a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C.both a and b
D.font style
E.None of these
Q 191 :
The term click implies
A.to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B.a button in a dialog box
C.to shut down or exit a dialog box
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 192 :
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A.Minimize the window
B.Close the associated window or application
C.Maximize the window
D.Move the window
Q 193 :
A command button
A.is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B.is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C.is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D.is a small button with an X on it
E.None of these
Q 194 :
What is smallest unit of the information?
A.A bit
B.A byte
C.A block
D.A nibble
Q 195 :
A cursor is
A.to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard
B.a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C.pressing and holding the main mouse button
D.A button in a dialog box
E.None of these
Q 196 :
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
A.A structured collection of data only
B.Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C.A physical device for storing database backups
D.A programming language used only for calculations
Q 197 :
The meaning of cut is
A.to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
B.to cut a document in two unequal parts
C.to cut a document in two equal parts
D.Only b and c are correct
Q 198 :
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
A.pre - determined setting
B.user - setting
C.default
D.setting
E.None of these
Q 199 :
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
5.015 =?