Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity _________________?
A
Pascal
B
Poise
C
Stoke
D
Faraday
E
None of the above
Question 2Single Answer
Consider the following processes:
1. Extension of a spring
2. Plastic deformation of a material
3. Magnetization of a material exhibiting hysteresis
Which of the above process are irreversible?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 3Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct for a throttling process?
1. It is an adiabatic steady flow process
2. The enthalpy before and after throttling is same
3. In the processes, due to fall in pressure, the fluid velocity at outlet is always more than inlet velocity
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 4Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 5Single Answer
A heat engine receives heat at the rate of 2500 kJ/min and gives an output of 12.4 kW. Its thermal efficiency is, nearly
A
18%
B
23%
C
26%
D
30%
Question 6Single Answer
One reversible heat engine operates between 1000 K and T2 K and another reversible heat engine operates between T2K and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat input and output, then the temperature T2 must be equal to
A
582.7 K
B
632.5 K
C
682.8 K
D
732.5 K
Question 7Single Answer
Consider the following statements for isothermal process:
1. Change in internal energy is zero
2. Heat transfer is zero
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 8Single Answer
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. The process is:
A
Reversible and isothermal
B
Irreversible
C
Reversible only
D
Isothermal only
Question 9Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is correct during adiabatic charging of an ideal gas into an empty cylinder from a supply main?
A
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
B
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
C
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
D
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
Question 10Single Answer
Consider the following systems :
1. An electric heater
2. A gas turbine
3. A reciprocating compressor
The steady flow energy equation can be applied to which of the above systems?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3 only
Question 11Single Answer
Consider the following motions :
1. Piston reciprocating inside an engine cylinder
2. Motion of a shaft between foot-step bearings
Which of the above can rightly be considered as successfully constrained motion?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 12Single Answer
A rotor weighing 2 kN is supported on bearings A and B which are 1 m apart. The centre of mass of the rotor is at a distance 0.4 m from bearing A. It is observed that there is an unbalanced couple of magnitude 300 N-m which leaves the shaft balanced statically.The dynamic reactions at the supports will be
A
800 N and 800 N
B
300 N and 800 N
C
800 N and – 300 N
D
300 N and – 300 N
Question 13Single Answer
A cam is a mechanical member used to impart a desired motion to a follower by direct contact. Which one of the under-listed follower motion types will produce the least jerk to the system?
A
Simple harmonic
B
Constant acceleration and deceleration
C
Constant velocity
D
Cycloidal
Question 14Single Answer
In a circular are cam with a roller follower, acceleration of the follower depends on
1. cam speed and location of centre of circular arc
2. roller diameter and radius of circular arc
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 15Single Answer
A manufacturing company is selling a product for 15 per unit with variable cost of 10 per unit. The fixed cost of the asset is 50,000. How many units should be produced to breakeven?
A
2000
B
5000
C
8000
D
10000
Question 16Single Answer
Hot wire anemometer is used to measure_______________?
A
discharge
B
velocity of gas
C
pressure intensity of gas
D
pressure intensity of liquid
Question 17Single Answer
A gear of 28 cm pitch circle diameter has 40 teeth. The circular pitch will nearly be
A
11 mm/tooth
B
22 mm/tooth
C
33 mm/tooth
D
44 mm/tooth
Question 18Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding gear tooth designing for gear drive :
1. Tooth profiles not designed as per ‘law of gearing’ will cause vibration and impact problems even at low speed.
2. As the gears go through their mesh, the pitch point must remain stationary on the line of centres.
3. In a correctly designed tooth profile, the line of action of successive instantaneous points of contact will pass through the stationary pitch point.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 19Single Answer
The flywheel of a steam engine has a radius of gyration of 1 m and mass 2000 kg. The starting torque of the engine is 2000 N-m. The kinetic energy of the flywheel after 10 seconds from start is
A
75 kN-m
B
100 kN-m
C
125 kN-m
D
150 kN-m
Question 20Single Answer
Consider two shafts connected with two gears as per the following options :
1. One on each shaft.
2. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft, and every shaft having one gear only.
3. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft having two gears, whereas the other shafts have one gear each
Which of the above represent(s) a simple gear train?
A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 21Single Answer
A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter splits up in air into 64 smaller drops of equal size. The surface tension coefficient of water in air is 0.073 N/m. The work required in splitting up the drop is
A
0.96 × 10–6 J
B
0.69 × 10–6 J
C
0.32 × 10–6 J
D
0.23 × 10–6 J
Question 22Single Answer
Consider the following statements pertaining to stability of floating bodies:
1. A floating body will be stable when the centre of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.
2. The position of metacentres corresponding to different axes of rotation are generally different for the same floating object.
3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height varies with loading.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 23Single Answer
Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow, constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and neglecting curvature and surface tension effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below the tap opening is nearly
A
11.7 mm
B
14.6 mm
C
17.5 mm
D
20.4 mm
Question 24Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. At low Reynolds numbers of any flow, viscous forces dominate over inertial forces.
2. Transition from laminar to turbulent flow occurs over a range of Reynolds numbers depending on the surface presented to the flow.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 25Single Answer
In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head loss is proportional to
A
D–1
B
D–2
C
D–3
D
D–4
Question 26Single Answer
The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow is 800?
A
2 m/s
B
1.5 m/s
C
1 m/s
D
0.5 m/s
Question 27Single Answer
During a constant pressure expansion of a gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of work, W is
A
8%
B
10%
C
12%
D
15%
Question 28Single Answer
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/kg K to 75 kJ/kg K. The process is
A
reversible and isothermal
B
irreversible
C
reversible only
D
isothermal only
Question 29Single Answer
A reversible heat engine rejects 80% of the heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If the engine is reversed and operates as a refrigerator, then its coefficient of performance shall be
A
6
B
5
C
4
D
3
Question 30Single Answer
For the same efficiency of the Brayton cycle and the Carnot cycle working between temperature limits of Tmax and Tmin, the power contribution of the Brayton cycle will be
A
zero
B
maximum
C
minimum
D
50% of the Carnot cycle
Question 31Single Answer
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
A
Greater than 1
B
Equal to 1
C
Between 1 and 3
4 4
D
Less than 1
Question 32Single Answer
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 33Single Answer
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C
Pseudo-plastic fluids
D
Dilatent fluids
Question 34Single Answer
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A
8
B
6
C
4
D
2
Question 35Single Answer
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A
0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B
4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C
0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D
4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Question 36Single Answer
If a submerged body displaced from its equilibrium position, returns to its original position, it is called __________.
A
thermal equilibrium
B
neutral equilibrium
C
unstable equilibrium
D
stable equilibrium
Question 37Single Answer
In a flow measurement, a venturi meter is preferred over an orifice plate because _____.
A
energy of head loss is less
B
It is cheaper
C
pressure drop is more
D
space is limited
Question 38Single Answer
Pitot tube measures ______.
A
dynamic pressure of a moving stream
B
guage pressure
C
temperature of moving water
D
pressure difference between two fluids
Question 39Single Answer
Which of the following is not a property of an ideal fluid ?
A
flow is irrotational
B
it has no viscosity
C
it has viscosity
D
it is incompressible
Question 40Single Answer
Nozzle used in steam turbines convert ________.
A
enthalpy of steam into work
B
enthalpy of steam into kinetic energy
C
enthalpy of steam into pressure energy
D
pressure energy into work
Question 41Single Answer
Which of the following assumptions is the most relevant in air-standard cycle analysis ?
A
All the processes within the cycle are irreversible
B
Working fluid is a fixed mass
C
Specific heat of air changes during the cycle
D
Cycle is assumed to be an open cycle
Question 42Single Answer
The modern Francis turbine is a ___________flow turbine .
A
tangential
B
axial
C
radial
D
mixed
Question 43Single Answer
Variation of stress with strain rate for a Newtonian fluid is ______ .
A
hyperbolic
B
linear
C
elliptical
D
parabolic
Question 44Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a part of refrigeration systems ?
A
Turbine
B
Evaporator
C
Compressor
D
Condenser
Question 45Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT an intensive property ?
A
Temperature
B
Total volume
C
Pressure
D
Density
Question 46Single Answer
Which of the following does NOT represent a unit of viscosity ?
A
Stoke
B
Poise
C
m²/sec
D
N-m/sec
Question 47Single Answer
__________ in the fuel is oxidised during knocking .
A
Hydrocarbon
B
Phosphorous
C
Water
D
Coal
Question 48Single Answer
_________ is defined as the ability of a material to resist deformation under action of an external load .
A
Stiffness
B
Resilience
C
Brittleness
D
Toughness
Question 49Single Answer
Draught is produced in locomotive boilers by which of the following components ?
A
Locomotive
B
Steam jet
C
Centrifugal fan
D
Chimney
Question 50Single Answer
For a steady flow, the value of all fluid properties at any fixed point _________ .
A
do not change with location
B
change with time
C
change with location
D
do not change with time
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Mechanical
Question 51Single Answer
For a floating body, if the metacentre is below the centre of gravity, then the body is said to be __________ equilibrium .
A
thermal
B
stable
C
unstable
D
neutral
Question 52Single Answer
________ is useful for measuring flow of a conducting fluid .
A
Orifice meter
B
Rotameter
C
Vane meter
D
Electro-magnetic flow meter
Question 53Single Answer
A two- stroke engine consists of ________ port (s)
A
Three
B
Four
C
One
D
Two
Question 54Single Answer
Air Cooling is mostly preferred for _________ .
A
heavy truck
B
buses
C
moto cycles
D
multi-utility vehicles
Question 55Single Answer
_______ valves are provided in reciprocating compressors .
A
Simply supported
B
Solenoid
C
Plate
D
Poppet
Question 56Single Answer
Benson boiler have ______ water drum (s)
A
One
B
Zero
C
Three
D
Two
Question 57Single Answer
_________ is used for pumping water into a boilers .
A
Economiser
B
Duplex pump
C
Feed pump
D
Rotor
Question 58Single Answer
The function of a carburetor in internal combustion engines is :
A
to control fuel alone
B
to cool exhaust gases
C
to maintain air-fuel ratio
D
to control air alone
Question 59Single Answer
The device which transfers energy from the ______ to _____ the is known as hydraulic turbine .
A
atmosphere; fluid
B
rotor; fluid
C
fluid; rotor
D
fluid; atmosphere
Question 60Single Answer
The flash chamber in the single stage VCR cycle serves to ________ .
A
decrease the compression ratio
B
increase the refrigerating effect
C
increase the compression ratio
D
decrease the refrigerating effect
Question 61Single Answer
Define thermodynamics .
A
It is a science which deals with the relation between heat, work and properties of systems
B
It is a science which deals with work done
C
It deals with dynamics under thermal conditions
D
It is science which deals with the relation between work and properties
Question 62Single Answer
Which of the following statements is correct about a Benson boiler ?
A
Air is sent through the same direction
B
There is no recirculation of water
C
Steam is sent out in multiple directions
D
Flue gases pass only in one direction
Question 63Single Answer
Within a refrigeration system, the expansion valve is incorporated between the ________ .
A
Super-heater and sub-cooler
B
compressor and condenser
C
evaporator and compressor
D
condenser and evaporator
Question 64Single Answer
The reversed ______ cycle employed for passenger aircraft systems .
A
Carnot
B
Atkinson
C
Ericsson
D
Brayton
Question 65Single Answer
Fusible plug in a steam boiler is placed ______ .
A
below the water level indicator
B
at he crown of the furnace
C
at the fire grate of the boiler
D
near the manhole
Question 66Single Answer
Aqua ammonia solution used in a vapour absorption refrigeration system is a solution of ammonia in ________ .
A
CF3
B
LiBr
C
H2O2
D
H2O
Question 67Single Answer
Coated electrodes are used in ______ .
A
gas tungsten arc welding
B
submerged arc welding
C
tungsten insert gas welding
D
shielded metal arc welding
Question 68Single Answer
Where is air cycle refrigeration commonly used ?
A
Domestic refrigerator
B
Cold storage
C
Aircraft conditioning
D
Car air conditioning
Question 69Single Answer
________, is not a water tube boiler .
A
Benson boiler
B
Babcock-Wilcox boiler
C
Stirling boiler
D
Scotch marine
Question 70Single Answer
Stoke is another unit of -
A
kinematic viscosityy
B
velocity gradient
C
Shear stress
D
dynamic viscosit
Question 71Single Answer
For a refrigerating machine, capacity is expressed as ______ .
A
the lowest temperature attained
B
inside volume of the cabinet
C
gross weight of the machine
D
rate of heat extraction from the space being cooled
Question 72Single Answer
The value of quality or dryness fraction of a substance in saturated liquid-vapor mixture is ________ .
A
1
B
2
C
Zero
D
between Zero and 1
Question 73Single Answer
Uniform flow is the type of flow where in velocity at any given time ________- with respect to space .
A
Decreases
B
Does not change
C
Increases
D
Changes
Question 74Single Answer
______ falls under the category of a water tube boiler .
A
Locomotive boiler
B
Lancashire boiler
C
Cornish boiler
D
LaMont boiler
Question 75Single Answer
Chaplets are used in ________ .
A
forging
B
casting
C
welding
D
extrusion
Question 76Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a unit of pressure ?
A
Pa
B
Bar
C
N/m²
D
Joule
Question 77Single Answer
What was the first refrigerant used in continuous refrigeration system ?
A
Ammonia
B
Water
C
Air
D
Carbon dioxide
Question 78Single Answer
For a 2 m deep swimming pool, pressure difference between the top and the bottom of the pool is ________ kPa .
A
22
B
19.6
C
11
D
12
Question 79Single Answer
Pressure measurement is done by ____. by measuring heat loss from a heated wire .
A
A pirani gauge
B
a manometer
C
a barometer
D
an orifice meter
Question 80Single Answer
In the Rankine cycle, the fluid which enters the boiler is :
A
water
B
steam
C
mercury
D
oxygen
Question 81Single Answer
Percentage elongating measured during tensile testing indicates _____ .
A
malleability
B
fatigue strength
C
creep
D
ductility
Question 82Single Answer
For a given centrifugal pump, discharge varies _______ with speed .
A
fifth power of
B
linearly
C
inversely
D
square root of
Question 83Single Answer
Foaming is a phenomenon that occurs in the boiler feed water due to _____ .
A
nitrogen peroxide
B
manganese
C
sodium chloride
D
oil
Question 84Single Answer
Compounding of a steam turbine is done to ______ .
A
balance the rotor
B
reduce the rotor speed
C
reduce the blade friction
D
connect the shaft
Question 85Single Answer
Any change in entropy could be achieved by changing______ .
A
velocity
B
heat
C
acceleration
D
mass
Question 86Single Answer
Smoke emitting from a lighted cigarette represents ________ .
A
point
B
pathline
C
streakline
D
streamline
Question 87Single Answer
The splash system is NOT used to lubricate _______ .
A
tappets
B
camshafts
C
gear teeth and roller bearings
D
piston rings
Question 88Single Answer
A dead weight tester is used widely for ______ .
A
producing high pressures
B
accurate measurement of loads
C
calibration of another equipment
D
testing magnitude of the given weight
Question 89Single Answer
_______ CANNOT be classified as inversion (s) of a single-slider crank mechanism .
A
Elliptical trammel
B
Whitworth quick-return mechanism
C
Oscillating cylinder engine
D
Crank and slotted-lever mechanism
Question 90Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a part of Rankine cycle ?
A
Pump
B
Compressor
C
Boiler
D
Turbine
Question 91Single Answer
A power plant that uses a gas turbine followed by a steam turbine for necessary power generation is known as __________ cycle power plant .
A
combined
B
bottom
C
generation
D
topping
Question 92Single Answer
In the context of properties of steel, which of the following statement is highly relevant ?
A
Presence of carbon contents imparts strength to iron
B
Presence of carbon does not influence the heat-treatment process
C
Presence of manganese decreases strength.
D
Presence of sulphide improves corrosion resistance
Question 93Single Answer
Those pumps employed for mud related work have ______ type of impeller .
A
an open
B
a two-side shrouded
C
a double-suction
D
a one-side shrouded
Question 94Single Answer
If the oil viscosity increased, then the wear loss _________ .
A
increases
B
becomes zero
C
decreases
D
remains the same
Question 95Single Answer
Impact load is an example of :
A
uniform load
B
static load
C
dynamic load
D
fatigue load
Question 96Single Answer
Internal energy associated with kinetic energy of molecules is ______ .
A
latent energy
B
nuclear energy
C
sensible energy
D
chemical energy
Question 97Single Answer
A capillary tube is employed in a refrigeration cycle to _______ .
A
produce a cooling effect
B
control temperature of the refrigerated space
C
reduce pressure of the refrigerant
D
control flow of the refrigerant
Question 98Single Answer
The Babcock-Wilcox boiler is classified as a water tube boiler because :
A
it has a large reservoir of water at the bottom
B
water passes around the tubes having hot gases
C
water heater is mounted on the boiler itself
D
water passes through the tube and hot gases around
Question 99Single Answer
Otto cycle of a car engine consists of :
A
two isochore and two reversible adiabatic cycles
B
four adiabatic cycles
C
one isochore cycle only
D
one adiabatic cycle only
Question 100Single Answer
When hot air exhausting from the turbine is used to heat up the compressor exit flow, it is knows as _______ .
A
regeneration
B
re-evaporating
C
intercooling
D
intracooling
Question 101Single Answer
If the specific gravity of oil is 0.7, then its density in kg/m³ will be _______ .
A
700
B
7
C
70
D
7000
Question 102Single Answer
viscous forces are NOT available in _______ .
A
laminar flow
B
irrational flow
C
rotational flow
D
transitional flow
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following is the most widely used fuel in boilers ?
A
Pulverised coal
B
Wood
C
Oil
D
Anthracite coal
Question 104Single Answer
If the relationship between shear stress of a fluid is NOT linear to the velocity gradient, then the fluid is :
A
a compressible fluid
B
a Newtonian fluid
C
a non-Newtonian fluid
D
an ideal fluid
Question 105Single Answer
In a Pelton wheel, jet ratio values are ________ .
A
More than 6
B
between 2 and 5
C
less than 1
D
less than or equal to 2
Question 106Single Answer
What is kinematic viscosity ?
A
It is the rate of change of shear stress
B
It is the ratio of dynamic viscosity to relative density
C
It is the ratio of dynamic viscosity to mass density
D
It is the rate of change of shear strain
Question 107Single Answer
The efficiency of an ideal diesel engine does NO directly depend on ______ .
A
the cut-off ratio
B
the compression ratio
C
the fluid pressure
D
the isentropic index
Question 108Single Answer
Which of the following equipment gives direct reading of fluid flow rates ?
A
Nutating disk flow meter
B
Hot wire anemometer
C
Rotameter
D
Orifice meter
Question 109Single Answer
The tendency of material to fracture without appreciable deformation is called ______ .
A
stiffness
B
plasticity
C
toughness
D
brittlensess
Question 110Single Answer
Lancashire boiler has ______ flue tube(s), whereas Cornish boiler has _____ flue tube (s) .
A
3 ; 2
B
2; 2
C
2; 1
D
1; 2
Question 111Single Answer
The maximum temperature in case of internal combustion engines is obtained at ______ .
A
end of the compression process
B
end of the expansion process
C
start of the compression process
D
start of the expansion process
Question 112Single Answer
The moisture content o steam at the turbine exit of a steam power plant operating on the Rankine cycle can be decreased by :
A
increasing boiler pressure
B
super cooling steam
C
decreasing boiler pressure
D
reheating steam
Question 113Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a non-ferrous alloy ?
A
Stainless steel
B
Magnesium
C
Titanium
D
Aluminium
Question 114Single Answer
The flow is volute casing outside the rotating impeller of a centrifugal pump is :
A
forced vortex flow
B
radial flow
C
free vortex flow
D
axial flow
Question 115Single Answer
The compression ratio in ideal air standard cycles is the ratio of :
A
minimum pressure to maximum pressure
B
minimum volume to maximum volume
C
maximum pressure to minimum pressure
D
maximum volume to minimum volume
Question 116Single Answer
Two stroke engine consist of a combined process of _____ in a single stroke .
A
compression and expansion
B
suction and compression
C
suction and expansion
D
suction and exhaust
Question 117Single Answer
The density of fluid does NOT affect the working of ______ .
A
an electro-magnetic flow meter
B
a nozzle meter
C
a rotameter
D
an orifice meter
Question 118Single Answer
Which of the following processes is NOT part of an ideal Otto cycle ?
A
Isentropic expansion
B
Heat addition at constant volume
C
Isentropic compression
D
Heat addition at constant pressure
Question 119Single Answer
In which of the following types of compressors are the motor and compressor enclosed in the same housing ?
A
Open-type compressor
B
Hermetic compressor
C
Reciprocating compressor
D
Axial flow type compressor
Question 120Single Answer
An oil of specific gravity 0.7 is stored in a closed tank up to a height of 2m. What will be the gauge pressure at the bottom of the tank ?
A
0.14 MPa
B
1.4 MPa
C
0.014 MPa
D
14 MPa
Question 121Single Answer
If there is no change in pressure at any point of the system with time, then the system is said to be in :
A
chemical equilibrium
B
mechanical equilibrium
C
Phase equilibrium
D
thermal equilibrium
Question 122Single Answer
If Valve of dryness fraction is 0, it indicates that working fluid is at ______ .
A
Compressed liquid
B
Saturated liquid
C
saturated vapour
D
supreheated vapour
Question 123Single Answer
In the context of roto-dynamic machines, which of the following statements is correct ?
A
There will be a relative motion between the rotor vanes and the fluid
B
Linear momentum is the normal to the stator
C
Linear momentum is the direction normal to the rotor
D
While flowing through the stator. linear momentum changes
Question 124Single Answer
When two elements of a pair are connected such that they can only turn about a fixed axis of another element, they are called _______ .
A
a turning pair
B
a screw pair
C
a spherical pair
D
a sliding pair
Question 125Single Answer
In high-speed aircrafts flying at high altitudes, why is cooling of the cabin required even temperature outside is very low ?
A
Since outside pressure is very high
B
Due to absence of solar radiation
C
To improve fuel efficiency
D
Due to large internal heat generation
Question 126Single Answer
Fusible plug is generally made up of an alloy (gunmetal) which consists of copper, tin and _______ .
A
cast iron
B
zinc
C
aluminium
D
manganese
Question 127Single Answer
In the context of laminar flow, which of the following statement sis the most appropriate ?
A
Laminar flow is observed in high viscous fluids at low velocity
B
There will be an exchange of momentum from fluid particles of one layer of another layer
C
Flow is always through small tanks
D
Particles move in turbulent order
Question 128Single Answer
Which of the following statements is more relevant in the context ?
A
If center of gravity is below the centre of buoyancy, the body is unstable
B
Metacentric height is positive in case of unstable equilibrium
C
The centre of buoyancy in a submerged boy remains
D
When the body is fully submerged, shape of he displaced fluid alters when the body is tilted
Question 129Single Answer
Determinate the COP (coefficient of performance) of a heat pump if the rate of heat rejected is 360 kJ/min and power supplied is 2 kW .
A
4
B
2
C
3
D
1
Question 130Single Answer
Define free-body diagram
A
A figure that represent external forces acting on a body
B
A diagram that represents internal forces acting on a body
C
A free-hand sketch representing a body
D
A diagram that only represents moments acting on a body
Question 131Single Answer
A ball and socket joint is an example of a ________pair .
A
turning
B
screw
C
rolling
D
spherical
Question 132Single Answer
From among the given options, Poisson's ration is the highest for :
A
iron
B
wood
C
copper
D
rubber
Question 133Single Answer
What is ductility in steel ?
A
Ratio of ultimate stress to yield stress
B
Stress at yield stress
C
Amount of strain a material can withstand before fracture
D
Ratio of change in length to original length
Question 134Single Answer
If the gauge pressure of air in a cylinder is 250 kPa, then it's absolute pressure will be _______ .
A
50 kPa
B
150 kPa
C
350 kPa
D
450 kPa
Question 135Single Answer
Flow velocity at the throat of a converging-diverging nozzle is ______, when designed for maximum discharge .
A
Supersonic
B
Sonic
C
Sub-sonic
D
Hypersonic
Reasoning
Question 136Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 137Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 138Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 139Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 140Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 141Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 142Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 143Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 144Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 145Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
General English
Question 146Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 147Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 148Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 149Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 150Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.