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BECIL Junior Engineer Maintainer Exam Paper I - English

Duration: 90 ยท Questions: 90 ยท Max Marks: 90 ยท Language: 1

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General Awareness

1
Where did PM Narendra Modi Unveil the Rs. 100 Commemorative Coin & Postal Stamp to Mark Centennial Foundation Day of University of Lucknow?
  1. A.Uttarakhand
  2. B.Madhya Pradesh
  3. C.Uttar Pradesh
  4. D.Gujarat
2
Ayodhya Airport in Uttar Pradesh is set to be renamed as __?
  1. A.Purushottam Sri Ram Airport
  2. B.Sri Ram Airport
  3. C.Ayodhya Naresh Sri Ram Airport
  4. D.Maryada Purushottam Sri Ram Airport
3
Name the first Arab Gulf country to generate electricity from coal?
  1. A.Saudi Arabia
  2. B.United Arab Emirates (UAE)
  3. C.Iraq
  4. D.Oman
4
Which state launched an interest free loan scheme name “Jagananna Thodu”?
  1. A.Karnataka
  2. B.Telangana
  3. C.Tamil Nadu
  4. D.Andhra Pradesh
5
Indian Navy inducted 2 MQ-9B Sea Guardian unarmed drones (Unmanned Aerial Vehicles – UAV) procured from which Country on lease?
  1. A.Japan
  2. B.United States
  3. C.Russia
  4. D.France
6
Which Country will host Temporary Ground Station Tracking facilities for ISRO’s Gaganyaan Mission?
  1. A.United States
  2. B.Japan
  3. C.Australia
  4. D.Canada
7
Which Sports Association has been restored by the Sports Ministry of India for a one year term?
  1. A.Archery Association of India
  2. B.Indian Hockey Federation
  3. C.Baseball Federation of India
  4. D.Kabaddi Federation of India
8
James David Wolfensohn passed away recently. He was former president of which Financial Institution?
  1. A.International Monetary Fund
  2. B.Asian Development Bank
  3. C.World Bank
  4. D.New Development Bank
9
Which day is observed as National (Indian) Organ Donation Day?
  1. A.November 25
  2. B.November 26
  3. C.November 27
  4. D.November 28
10
Singrauli Super Thermal Power Plant is located in which State/UT?
  1. A.Uttarakhand
  2. B.Madhya Pradesh
  3. C.Ladakh
  4. D.Uttar Pradesh
11
Which new definition was included in the Motor Vehicles Amendment Act, 2019?
  1. A.Medical Vehicles
  2. B.Aggregators
  3. C.Cargo vehicles
  4. D.Electric Vehicles
12
Which country is set to impose a new competition regime next year to curb dominance of Google and Facebook?
  1. A.China
  2. B.India
  3. C.United Kingdom
  4. D.Germany
13
Chandrabhaga beach, which is the venue of the International Sand Art Festival 2020, is located in which state?
  1. A.Gujarat
  2. B.Odisha
  3. C.Chennai
  4. D.Kerala
14
Which state debarred its Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA) and retired IPS officer Lalduhoma, from its state assembly?
  1. A.Assam
  2. B.Maharashtra
  3. C.Madhya Pradesh
  4. D.Mizoram
15
Which organization was awarded the Platinum Partner Award in the newly instituted UMANG Awards?
  1. A.ESIC
  2. B.EPFO
  3. C.LIC
  4. D.GIC
16
Which organization released USD 25 million from its emergency fund to support women-led organization fighting gender-based violence?
  1. A.United Nations
  2. B.World Economic Forum
  3. C.Asian Development Bank
  4. D.World Bank
17
Which country has announced to set up ‘Counter Terrorism Operations Centre (CTOC)’?
  1. A.United States
  2. B.Russia
  3. C.Israel
  4. D.United Kingdom
18
Which Indian state has approved the Ganga Expressway project?
  1. A.Uttarakhand
  2. B.Uttar Pradesh
  3. C.Bihar
  4. D.Jharkhand
19
‘Fit India School Week’ is celebrated in a week of which month?
  1. A.November
  2. B.December
  3. C.January
  4. D.February
20
Which institution released ‘Mitigation and Management of Covid-19: Practices from India’s States & UTs’ report?
  1. A.NITI Aayog
  2. B.ICMR
  3. C.AIIMS
  4. D.National Development Council

Logical Ability

1
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
2
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
3
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
4
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
5
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
6
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
7
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
8
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
9
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
10
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
11
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
  1. A.N
  2. B.Q
  3. C.J
  4. D.M
  5. E.None of these
12
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
13
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
  1. A.The only argument I is strong
  2. B.Only argument II is strong
  3. C.Either I or II is strong
  4. D.Neither I nor II is strong
14
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
  1. A.P
  2. B.L
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
15
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
16
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.One
  2. B.Two
  3. C.Three
  4. D.Four
  5. E.More than four
17
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can  be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
  1. A.I
  2. B.A
  3. C.L
  4. D.M
  5. E.N
18
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
19
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
  1. A.26
  2. B.28
  3. C.30
  4. D.32
  5. E.None of these
20
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three

Quantitative Aptitude

1
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
  1. A.2 hours
  2. B.3 hours
  3. C.4 hours
  4. D.5 hours
2
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
  1. A.69
  2. B.96
  3. C.78
  4. D.Cannot be determined
  5. E.None of these
3
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
  1. A.12
  2. B.13
  3. C.14
  4. D.10
  5. E.None of these
4
Mr. Sinha distributes a certain sum of money among his five sons, one daughter and his wife in such a way that each son gets double the amount of his daughter and the wife gets double the amount of each son. If each son gets Rs. 15000, what was the total amount distributed ?
  1. A.Rs. 123000
  2. B.Rs. 112500
  3. C.Rs. 138500
  4. D.Rs. 132500
5
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
    6
    The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
    1. A.42
    2. B.38
    3. C.32
    4. D.72
    5. E.None of these
    7
    Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
    1. A.18
    2. B.16
    3. C.19
    4. D.17
    5. E.None of these
    8
    The difference between th of th of a number and  of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
    1. A.45
    2. B.35
    3. C.40
    4. D.30
    5. E.None of these
    9
    If  is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
    1. A.2024
    2. B.2104
    3. C.2004
    4. D.2014
    5. E.None of these
    10
    ‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
    1. A.38
    2. B.42
    3. C.44
    4. D.34
    5. E.None of these
    11
    The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
    1. A.20
    2. B.22
    3. C.21
    4. D.23
    5. E.None of these
    12
    If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
    1. A.50
    2. B.75
    3. C.57
    4. D.60
    5. E.None of these
    13
    IF the sum of four consecutive even number  is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
    1. A.52
    2. B.54
    3. C.56
    4. D.48
    5. E.None of these
    14
    If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
      15
      What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
      1. A.118
      2. B.95
      3. C.110
      4. D.100
      5. E.None of these
      16
      What is 234 time 167 ?
      1. A.48768
      2. B.41184
      3. C.40581
      4. D.39078
      5. E.None of these
      17
      The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
      1. A.62
      2. B.71
      3. C.66
      4. D.65
      5. E.None of these
      18
      If the fractions  are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
        19
        What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
        1. A.47
        2. B.38
        3. C.28
        4. D.25
        5. E.None of these
        20
        What is 147 times 329 ?
        1. A.48069
        2. B.48363
        3. C.49021
        4. D.48723
        5. E.None of these

        Civil Engineering

        1
        One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
        1. A.30 l 
        2. B.35 l
        3. C.40 l
        4. D.45 l
        2
        AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
        1. A.1 : 1 : 1
        2. B.1 : 2 : 3
        3. C.1 : 2 : 4
        4. D.1 : 3 : 4
        3
        Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
        1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
        2.Noise reduction
        3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
        4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
        5.Not recommended for outer walls. 
        Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks? 
        1. A.1, 2 and 4
        2. B.1, 3 and 5
        3. C.2, 3 and 4
        4. D.2, 4 and 5
        4
        The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
        1. A.10
        2. B.20
        3. C.25
        4. D.30
        5
        If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
        1. A.11.8
        2. B.12.4
        3. C.14.2 
        4. D.14.8
        6
        Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
        1.Capillary water
        2.Chemically combined water
        3.Interlayer water
        4.Adsorbed water 
        Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste? 
        1. A.1, 2 and 3
        2. B.1, 2 and 4
        3. C.2, 3 and 4
        4. D.1, 3 and 4
        7
        Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
        1.Fine grinding.
        2.Decreasing the lime content
        3.Burning at higher temperature
        4.Increasing the quality of gypsum. 
        Which of the above statements are correct? 
        1. A.1 and 2
        2. B.1 and 3
        3. C.2 and 3
        4. D.3 and 4
        8
        Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
        1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
        2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
        3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
        4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case? 
        1. A.1, 2 and  3 only
        2. B.1, 3 and  4 only
        3. C.2, 3 and  4 only
        4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
        9
        Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
        1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
        2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
        3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
        4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
        5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test. 
        Which of the above statements are correct? 
        1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
        2. B.1, 2 and 5 only
        3. C.1, 2, 3 and 4 only
        4. D.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 
        10
        What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
        1. A.165 l
        2. B.205 l
        3. C.245 l
        4. D.285 l 
        11
        Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
        1. A.IS : 4970-1973
        2. B.IS : 1708-1969
        3. C.IS : 1141-1958
        4. D.IS : 399-1963 
        12
        Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
        1.Increase in the life span of the member
        2.Increase in the strength of the timber
        3.Removal of moisture
        4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them 
        Which of the above are correct?
        1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
        2. B.2 and 4 only
        3. C.1 and 4 only
        4. D.2 and 3 only
        13
        The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
        1. A.Parallel to each other
        2. B.At right angle to one another
        3. C.45° oblique to adjacent grain
        4. D.Not constrained by any consideration
        14
        Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
        1. A.It must be free from lumps of lime
        2. B.It should not be mixed with salty water
        3. C.It must be non-homogeneous
        4. D.It should not contain vegetable and organic matter 
        15
        The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
        1. A.440 kg/cm2
        2. B.175 kg/cm2
        3. C.100kg/cm2
        4. D.75kg/cm2 
        16
        Consider the following statements:
        1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
        2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
        3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
        4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds. 
        Which of the above statements are correct?
        1. A.1 and 2
        2. B.3 and 4
        3. C.2 and 3
        4. D.1 and 4
        17
        Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
        1.30% alumina
        2.10% lime nodules
        3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
        4.15% magnesia 
        Which of the above statements are correct?
        1. A.1 and 2 only
        2. B.1 and 3
        3. C.1, 2 and 4
        4. D.2, 3 and 4
        18
        Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?
        1. A.Magnesium oxide
        2. B.Silica
        3. C.Alumina
        4. D.Calcium sulphate
        19
        Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
        1. A.Ordinary Portland
        2. B.High Alumina
        3. C.Low-heat Portland
        4. D.Portland Cement
        20
        Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
        1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
        2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
        3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
        4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
        4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time. 
        Which of the above statements are correct? 
        1. A.1, 2 and 3
        2. B.2, 3 and 4
        3. C.3, 4 and 5
        4. D.2, 3 and 5 
        21
        Consider the following statements regarding ‘strength of cement’:
        1.Strength test on cement is made on cubes of cement-sand mix.
        2.Water to be used for the paste is 0.25 P, where P is the water needed for normal consistency.
        3.The normal consistency is determined on Le Chatelier’s principle.
        4.Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof moulds further compacted in each layer by vibration on a machine. 
        Which of the above statements are correct? 
        1. A.1 and 2
        2. B.2 and 3
        3. C.1 and 4
        4. D.3 and 4 
        22
        Which of the following ingredients refer to binding material of mortar?
        1.Cement
        2.Lime
        3.Sand
        4.Ashes 
        Select the correct answer using the code given below. 
        1. A.1 and 4
        2. B.3 and 4 
        3. C.1 and 2
        4. D.2 and 3
        23
        Consider the following statements:
        1.Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar.
        2.Mortars make brick damp-proof.
        3.Strength of brick in masonry is improved by plastering.
        4.Addition of lime improves workability.
        5.Marine construction needs sulphate-resistant cement mortar. 
        Which of the above statements are relevant for ‘cement mortar’? 
        1. A.1, 2 and 3
        2. B.2, 3 and 4 
        3. C.1, 4 and 5
        4. D.3, 4 and 5 
        24
        Consider the following parameters of concrete:
        1.Impermeability
        2.Compactness
        3.Durability
        4.Desired consistency
        5.Workability 
        Which of the above parameters are relevant for ‘water-cement ratio’? 
        1. A.4 and 5
        2. B.1 and 2
        3. C.2 and 4
        4. D.3 and 5
        25
        Consider the following statements:Presence of Na2O and K2O in concrete leads to
        1.Expansive reaction in concrete
        2.Cracking of concrete
        3.Disruption of concrete
        4.Shrinkage of concrete 
        Which of the above statements are correct? 
        1. A.1 and 2 only
        2. B.2 and 3 only
        3. C.1, 2 and 3
        4. D.3 and 4 
        26
        The maximum total quantity of dry aggregate by mass per 50 kg of cement, to be taken as the sum of the individual masses of fine and coarse aggregates (kg), for M20 grade of concrete is
        1. A.625
        2. B.480
        3. C.330
        4. D.250
        27
        Absorption capacity of an aggregate refers to the difference expresses in appropriate proportion in water content between
        1. A.A wet aggregate and a dry aggregate
        2. B.A dry aggregate and a wet aggregate
        3. C.A saturated surface-dry aggregate and a dry aggregate
        4. D.A saturated surface-dry aggregate and an over dry aggregate 
        28
        Consider the following statements concerning  ‘elasticity of concrete’:
        1.Stress-strain behavior of concrete is a straight line up to 10% ultimate stress.
        2.Strain determination is obtained from tangent modulus.
        3.Modulus of elasticity of concrete is also called as secant modulus. 
        Which of the above statements are correct? 
        1. A.1, 2 and 3
        2. B.1 and 3 only
        3. C.1 and 2 only
        4. D.2 and 3 only
        29
        Consider the following statements :The addition of CaCl2 in concrete results in
        1.Increased shrinkage
        2.Decreased setting time
        3.Decreased shrinkage
        4.Increased setting time 
        Which of the above statements are correct? 
        1. A.1 only
        2. B.2 and 3
        3. C.3 and 4
        4. D.1 and 2
        30
        Which of the following statements are correct ?
        1.Knots in a tree affect the continuity of fibres.
        2.Nail knots do not influence the strength of timber.
        3.Druxiness of wood is not a defect.
        4.Tall trees with twisted fibers give good timber for poles.
        1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
        2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
        3. C.1, 2 and 3 only
        4. D.2, 3 and 4 only