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Latest BFUHS Assistant Professor Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, English, Current Affairs, Chemistry
Question Bank BFUHS Assistant Professor Exam - English
Reasoning
Q 1 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 2 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 3 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 4 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 5 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 6 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 7 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 8 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 9 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 10 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 11 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 12 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 13 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 14 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 15 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 16 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 17 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 18 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 19 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 20 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 21 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A.2 hours
B.3 hours
C.4 hours
D.5 hours
Q 22 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A.69
B.96
C.78
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 23 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.10
E.None of these
Q 24 :
Mr. Sinha distributes a certain sum of money among his five sons, one daughter and his wife in such a way that each son gets double the amount of his daughter and the wife gets double the amount of each son. If each son gets Rs. 15000, what was the total amount distributed ?
A.Rs. 123000
B.Rs. 112500
C.Rs. 138500
D.Rs. 132500
Q 25 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
Q 26 :
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A.42
B.38
C.32
D.72
E.None of these
Q 27 :
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A.18
B.16
C.19
D.17
E.None of these
Q 28 :
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A.45
B.35
C.40
D.30
E.None of these
Q 29 :
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A.2024
B.2104
C.2004
D.2014
E.None of these
Q 30 :
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A.38
B.42
C.44
D.34
E.None of these
Q 31 :
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A.20
B.22
C.21
D.23
E.None of these
Q 32 :
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A.50
B.75
C.57
D.60
E.None of these
Q 33 :
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A.52
B.54
C.56
D.48
E.None of these
Q 34 :
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
Q 35 :
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A.118
B.95
C.110
D.100
E.None of these
Q 36 :
What is 234 time 167 ?
A.48768
B.41184
C.40581
D.39078
E.None of these
Q 37 :
The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
A.62
B.71
C.66
D.65
E.None of these
Q 38 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
Q 39 :
What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
A.47
B.38
C.28
D.25
E.None of these
Q 40 :
What is 147 times 329 ?
A.48069
B.48363
C.49021
D.48723
E.None of these
English
Q 41 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 42 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 43 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 44 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 45 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 46 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 47 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 48 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 49 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 50 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
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B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 54 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 55 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 56 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 57 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 58 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 59 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 60 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
Current Affairs
Q 61 :
Where is the headquarters of the Inter Parliamentary Union (IPU) located?
A.Geneva
B.Rome
C.Paris
D.Nairobi
Q 62 :
The first National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research was established in which state?
A.Gujarat
B.Punjab
C.Rajasthan
D.Maharashtra
Q 63 :
The Mines and Minerals Amendment Bill 2021 seeks to empower Central Government to issue directions to DMF. What is a DMF?
A.Deposit Mineral Fund
B.Deep Mine Fund
C.District Mineral Foundation
D.District Mine Fund
Q 64 :
My Life in Full: Work, Family and Our Future’ is a memoir of which Indian personality?
A.Kiran Mazumdar Shaw
B.Sudha Murthy
C.Shikha Sharma
D.Indra Nooyi
Q 65 :
MPLADS Fund has been suspended till which year, due to Covid-19 pandemic?
A.2021
B.2022
C.2023
D.2024
Q 66 :
Which country’s Navy participated (in Mar’ 21) with Indian Navy in a Passage Exercise (PASSEX) at the Persian Gulf region as a part of ‘Operation Sankalp’?
A.Bahrain
B.Qatar
C.United Arab Emirates
D.Kuwait
Q 67 :
Which country’s Foreign Minister visited (in Mar’21) India, where it was decided to establish a Joint Ministerial Commission at the level of Foreign Ministers?
A.Bahrain
B.Qatar
C.Saudi Arabia
D.Kuwait
Q 68 :
Which organization recently (in Mar’21) signed a Statement of intent (SoI) with Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) to empower school students with Cloud computing skills?
A.Microsoft
B.Google
C.Digital Ocean
D.Amazon Web Services
Q 69 :
What was India’s position among the top 10 nations in Market Capitalization, as per Bloomberg report released in March 2021?
A.6th
B.9th
C.10th
D.8th
Q 70 :
Who was appointed as the Director General of National Security Guard (NSG) in March 2021?
A.Krishnaswamy Natarajan
B.Kuldiep Singh
C.MA Ganapathy
D.Surjeet Singh Deswal
Q 71 :
Adoption of e-commerce during the pandemic led to an increase in digital transactions on platforms of State Bank of India from 60% to how much per cent?
A.59
B.63
C.67
D.71
Q 72 :
In March 2021, the health department of which state has decided to provide one month extra pay to all frontline medical workers for their services?
A.Bihar
B.Jharkhand
C.Uttar Pradesh
D.Rajasthan
Q 73 :
In March 2021, Uranium exploration has been taken up in which state by the Atomic Minerals Directorate(AMD) for Exploration and Research?
A.Arunachal Pradesh
B.Nagaland
C.Sikkim
D.Manipur
Q 74 :
Which country was recently hit by the tropical storm kompasu?
A.Philippines
B.USA
C.Indonesia
D.Germany
Q 75 :
When was International Nowruz Day observed in 2021?
A.18 March
B.19 March
C.20 March
D.21 March
Q 76 :
In March 2021, NPPA has fixed the price of how many medicines including off-patent anti-diabetic drugs allowing due benefits of patent expiry to the patients?
A.51
B.61
C.71
D.81
Q 77 :
According to Emkay Global Financial Services Ltd, the Indian rupee has advanced how much per cent in March 2021?
A.1.1
B.1.3
C.1.5
D.1.7
Q 78 :
Arindam Bagchi has been appointed as the new MEA spokesperson. Whom has he replaced?
A.Gaurav Ahluwalia
B.Pratibha Parkar
C.Kishan Dan Dewal
D.Anurag Srivastava
Q 79 :
What is the upper limit to permit abortion to special categories of women, as per the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Bill, 2020?
A.20 weeks
B.24 weeks
C.28 weeks
D.32 weeks
Q 80 :
Who has been appointed as the Director General of National Security Guard?
A.Swapan Dasgupta
B.P.K. Sinha
C.M. A. Ganapathy
D.A P Maheshwari
Chemistry
Q 81 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 82 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 83 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 84 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A.28 mm
B.56 mm
C.70 mm
D.140 mm
Q 85 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A.1 M solution of glucose
B.0.05 M solution of glucose
C.6% solution of glucose
D.25% solution of glucose
Q 86 :
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B.to minimise the snow fall
C.to minimise pollution
D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Q 87 :
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A.AB2
B.A2B
C.AB
D.AB3
Q 88 :
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B.decreases electron density at meta position
C.increases electron density at meta position
D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
Q 89 :
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A.PCI5
B.PCI3
C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Q 90 :
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
B.same as in C2H4
C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
Q 91 :
The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is
A.methanal
B.propanal
C.propanone
D.ethanal
Q 92 :
An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is
A.CH3CH2OH
B.CH3 – C – CH3
C.(CH3)2CHOH
D.CH3CHO
Q 93 :
Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, NH3
A.NH3, < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
B.NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
C.(CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
D.CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N , NH3
Q 94 :
The one which has least iodine value is
A.sunflower oil
B.ginger oil
C.ghee
D.groundnut oil
Q 95 :
A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
A.glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
B.glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
C.glucose reduces the blood sugar level
D.glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
Q 96 :
There are 20 naturally occurring among acids. The maximum number of tripeptides than can be obtained is
A.8000
B.6470
C.7465
D.5360
Q 97 :
At what temperature ill the RMS velocity of SO2 be the same as that of O2 at 303 K ?
A.403 K
B.303 K
C.606 K
D.273 K
Q 98 :
Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken well. The white precipitate formed during the process is
A.m–bromophenol
B.2, 4, 6 tribromophenol
C.2-4 dibromophenol
D.A mixture of o-and p-bromophenols
Q 99 :
In thermite process the metal used as reducing agent is:
A.Nickel
B.Zinc
C.Sodium
D.Aluminium
Q 100 :
Which of the following compounds on boiling with alkaline KMnO4 and subsequent acidification will not give benzoic acid?
A.Benzyl alcohol
B.Acetophenone
C.Anisole
D.Toluene
Q 101 :
The base present in DNA, but not in RNA is:
A.Guanine
B.Adenine
C.Uracil
D.Thymine
Q 102 :
The total number of lattice arrangements in different crystal system is:
A.7
B.3
C.8
D.14
Q 103 :
Alcoholic potash is used to bring about :
A.Dehydrogenation
B.Dehydration
C.Dehydrohalogenation
D.Dehalogenation
Q 104 :
Which of the following is the correct statement?
A.Order of a reaction has always an integral value
B.Mechanism of a reaction proposed is always final
C.Zero order reactions are multi-step reactions
D.Order of reaction can be predicted even without knowing the rate law
Q 105 :
The unit of quantity of electricity is:
A.Ohm
B.Ampere
C.Coulomb
D.Volt
Q 106 :
Which of the following organic compounds answers both iodoform test and fehling’s test ?
A.Methanal
B.Ethanol
C.Propane
D.Ethanal
Q 107 :
10 dm3 of N2 gas and 10 dm3 of gas X at the same temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules.
A.NO
B.H2
C.CO2 or CO
D.All of these
Q 108 :
When the electrons of hydrogen atoms return to L shell from shells of higher energy, we get a series of lines in the spectrum. This series is called
A.Balmer series
B.Lyman series
C.Bracket series
D.Paschen series
Q 109 :
The alcohol obtained by the hydrolysis of oils and fats is:
A.Glycol
B.Glycerol
C.Propanol
D.Pentanol
Q 110 :
Which of the following alloys is used for making magnets for hearing aids?
A.Alnico
B.German silver
C.Invar
D.Monel metal
Q 111 :
One dm3 of 2M ethanoic acid is mixed with one dm3 of 3M ethanol to form an easter
CH3COOH + C2H5OH → CH3COOC2H5 +H2O
The decrease in the initial rate if each solution is diluted with an equal volume of water would be
A.2 times
B.4 times
C.0.25 times
D.0.5 times
Q 112 :
Which one of the following can be classified as a Bronstead base?
A.NO3-
B.H3O+
C.CH3COOH
D.NH4+
Q 113 :
Gold sol is an electronegative sol. The amount of electrolyte required to coagulate a certain amount of gold sol is minimum in the case of :​
A.CaCl2
B.NaCl
C.AlCl3
D.Na2SO4
Q 114 :
Aluminium displaces hydrogen from acids, but copper does not. A Galvanic cell prepared by combining Cu/Cu2+ and Al/Al3+ has an emf of 2.0 V at 298 K. If the potential of copper electrode is +0.34 V, that of aluminium electrode is:
A.– 2.3 V
B.+ 2.34 V
C.– 1.66 V
D.+ 1.66 V
Q 115 :
1.5 moles of O2 combine with Mg to form the oxide MgO. The mass of Mg that has combined is (Mg = 24):
A.72 g
B.36 g
C.48 g
D.24 g
Q 116 :
How much of NaOH is required to neutralize 1500 cm3 of 0.1 N HCI?(Na = 23):
A.60 g
B.6 g
C.4 g
D.40 g
Q 117 :
The boiling point of water is exceptionally high because:
A.Water molecule is not linear
B.Water molecule is linear
C.There is covalent bond between H and O
D.Water molecules associate due to hydrogen bonding
Q 118 :
P4O10 is not used with to dry NH3 gas because:
A.P4O10 is basic and NH3 is acidic
B.P4O10 is acidic and NH3 is basic
C.P4O10 is not a drying agent
D.P4O10 reacts with moisture in NH3
Q 119 :
A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 10 years. What percentage of the original amount of it remain after 20 years:
A.1
B.12.5
C.8
D.25
Q 120 :
75% of a first order reaction is completed in 30 minutes. What is the time required for 93.75% of the reaction (in minutes)?
th of 
th of a number and 
of 
th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
is subtracted from 
and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?