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Latest BHEL Graduate Apprentice Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : GK, General Studies, English, Reasoning, Aptitude, ECE
Question Bank BHEL Graduate Apprentice Exam (Electronics) - English
General Studies
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 17 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 18 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 20 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 21 :
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
A.5
B.6
C.7
D.8
Q 22 :
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
A.2001
B.2010
C.2012
D.2011
Q 23 :
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
A.1 only
B.1 and 2
C.1 and 3
D.1,2, and 3
Q 24 :
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
A.2007-12
B.2008-13
C.2010-15
D.2012-17
Q 25 :
A closed economy is an economy in which
A.the money supply is fully controlled
B.deficit financing takes place
C.only exports take place
D.neither exports nor imports take place
GK
Q 26 :
‘Mukhyamantri Mahtari Nyay Rath’ was launched by the CM of which of the following state?
A.Madhya Pradesh
B.Maharashtra
C.Chhattisgarh
D.Uttar Pradesh
Q 27 :
Mirabai Chanu has won the first Gold medal for India at CWG 2022. Mirabai Chanu participated in which of the following category ?
A.51 Kg Women’s
B.49 Kg Women’s
C.53 Kg Women’s
D.47 Kg Women’s
Q 28 :
'The Indian Vegetable Oil Producers' Association (IVPA) and Palm Oil Council of which country have signed an MOU to promote use of palm oil ?
A.Cambodia
B.Japan
C.Indonesia
D.Malaysia
Q 29 :
Who gave away Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Awards in New Delhi in July 2022 ?
A.Rajnath Singh
B.Giriraj Singh
C.Narendra Singh Tomar
D.Nirmala Sitharaman
Q 30 :
Name the company that recently partnered with Talgo India Private Limited to set up a joint venture for manufacturing high-speed trains in India ?
A.GMR Infrastructure Limited
B.BF Infrastructure Limited
C.Reliance Infrastructure Limited
D.Hindustan Construction
English
Q 31 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 32 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 33 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 34 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 35 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 36 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 37 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 38 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 39 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 40 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 41 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 42 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 43 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 44 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 45 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 46 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 47 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 48 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 49 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 50 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
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BHEL Graduate Apprentice Exam (Electronics) Question Bank Book - English
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 52 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 53 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 54 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 55 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 56 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 57 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 58 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 59 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 60 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A.held, generating
B.aimed, creating
C.targeted, awakening
D.focused, building
E.concentrated, producing
Reasoning
Q 61 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 62 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 63 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 64 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 65 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 66 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 67 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 68 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 69 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 70 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 71 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 72 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 73 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 74 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 75 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 76 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 77 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 78 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 79 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 80 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 81 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 82 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 83 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 84 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 85 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 86 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 87 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 88 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 89 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 90 :
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A.HID
B.SON
C.Both LAP and BUT
D.CAR
E.Both CAR and LAP
Aptitude
Q 91 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 92 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 93 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 94 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 95 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 96 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 97 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 98 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 99 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 100 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 101 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 102 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 103 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 104 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 105 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 106 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 107 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 108 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 109 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 110 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 111 :
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A.20
B.24
C.22
D.26
Q 112 :
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A.3/4
B.2/3
C.4/5
D.5/8
Q 113 :
Which is greater ?
A.11/13
B.12/15
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 114 :
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A.0
B.1
C.Same
D.Prime
Q 115 :
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A.
10
B.100
C.1000
D.10000
Q 116 :
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A.318
B.198
C.213
D.206
Q 117 :
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A.558
B.718
C.628
D.None of these
Q 118 :
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A.20%
B.25%
C.30%
D.40%
Q 119 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A.19%
B.31%
C.44%
D.None of these
Q 120 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A.38%
B.48%
C.51%
D.None of these
ECE
Q 121 :
Consider the following statements:
The output of a linear circuit, driven with a sine wave at a frequency f, is itself a sine wave
1. at the same frequency
2. with chance of changed amplitude
3. with chances of changed amplitude and phase
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.1 only
C.1 and 3
D.2 only
Q 122 :
Consider the following statements:
The main contribution to photo conduction is by
1. the generation of electron and hole pair by a photon
2. a donor electron jumping into the conduction band because of a photon’s energy
3. a valence electron jumping into an acceptor state because of a photon’s energy Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 123 :
Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the temperature of the FET increase
A signal may have frequency components which lie in the range of 0.001 Hz to 10 Hz. Which one of the following types of couplings should be chosen in a multistage amplifier designed to amplify the signal?
A.Capacitor coupling
B.Direct coupling
C.Transformer coupling
D.Double-tuned transformer coupling
Q 126 :
If an input impedance of op-amp is finite, then which one of the following statements related to virtual ground is correct ?
A.Virtual ground condition may exist.
B.Virtual ground condition cannot exist
C.In case of op-amp, virtual ground condition always exists.
D.Cannot make a valid declaration
Q 127 :
Hysteresis is desirable in a Schmitt-trigger because
A.energy is to be stored/discharged in parasitic capacitances
B.effects of temperature variations would be compensated
C.devices in the circuit should be allowed time for saturating and de-saturation
D.it would prevent noise from causing false triggering
Q 128 :
In a photoconductive cell the resistance, of the semiconductor material varies with intensity of incident light.
A.directly
B.inversely
C.exponentially
D.logarithmically
Q 129 :
In graded index multimode optical fiber the refractive index of the core is
A.uniform across its radial distance except for the cladding
B.maximum at the fiber axis and decreased stepwise towards the cladding
C.maximum at the fiber axis and decreases gradually towards the cladding.
D.maximum at the fiber axis and increases stepwise towards the cladding
Q 130 :
Consider the following factors:
1. Number of turns of the coil
2. Length of the coil
3. Area of cross-section of the coil
4. Permeability of the core
On which of the above factors does inductance, depend?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.1, 2, 3 and 4
D.2 and 4 only
Q 131 :
Consider the following statements:
1. Fleming’s rule is used where induced e.m.f. is due to flux cutting.
2. Lenz’s law is used when the induced e.m.f. is due to change in flux linkages.
3. Lenz’s law is direct consequence of the law of conservation of energy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 132 :
A conductor of length 1 m moves at right angles to a uniform magnetic field of flux density 2Wb/m2 with a velocity of 50 m/s. What is the value of the induced e.m.f. when the conductor moves at an angle of 30° to the direction of the field ?
A.75 V
B.50 V
C.25 V
D.12.5 V
Q 133 :
The slip of a 400 V, 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz machine running at 1440 r.p.m. is
A.6%
B.5%
C.4%
D.3%
Q 134 :
A 500 HP, 440 V, 3-phase, 50 Hz induction motor runs at 950 r.p.m. when on full load with a synchronous speed of 1000 r.p.m. for this condition, the frequency of the rotor current will be
A.4.0 Hz
B.3.5 Hz
C.2.5 Hz
D.2.0 Hz
Q 135 :
By adding resistance in the rotor circuit of a slip ring induction motor, the starting current
A.as well as torque reduce
B.as well as torque increase
C.reduces but the starting torque increases
D.increase but the starting torque decreases
Q 136 :
Consider the following statements with regards to an induction motor:
1. Maximum torque is independent of rotor resistance.
2. Starting torque is maximum when rotor resistance equals rotor reactance.
3. Torque is very sensitive to any changes in supply voltage.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 137 :
A transformer has 2% resistance and 5% reactance. What is its voltage regulation at full load with 0.8 p.f. lagging?
A.5.3%
B.4.6%
C.0.53%
D.0.43%
Q 138 :
A voltage is generated across a piezoelectric material, 0.5 cm thick, subjected to an impact of 5 N/m2. The voltage coefficient of the material is 23 kV-m/N. The magnitude of the voltage generated will be
A.2300 V
B.1650 V
C.1150 V
D.575 V
Q 139 :
The ‘residual resistivity’ of a metal is
A.due to lattice vibrations at high temperature
B.due to photon scattering at high temperature
C.temperature-dependent
D.temperature-independent
Q 140 :
Electrical conductivity, thermal conductivity and magnetic properties of ceramic material are
A.very high all the time
B.very low all the time
C.dependent on the material
D.ascertainable, instance to instance
Q 141 :
Laminated insulation, coated with varnish, is a staple adoption in transformer assemblage in order to
A.reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
B.minimize losses due to eddy currents
C.increase the reluctance of the magnetic path
D.increase the defect of eddy current.
Q 142 :
When a ferromagnetic substance is magnetized, there are marginal diminutions in its linear dimensions. This phenomenon is called
A.hysteresis
B.magnetostriction
C.diamagnetism
D.dipolar relaxation
Q 143 :
When the working temperature becomes more than the Curie temperature, a ferromagnetic material becomes a
A.diamagnetic material
B.paramagnetic material
C.ferromagnetic material
D.Mu-material
Q 144 :
Compared to other materials, a material with wider hysteresis loop has
A.lower permeability, higher retentively and higher coercivity
B.higher permeability, lower retentively and higher coercivity
C.lower permeability, higher retentivity and lower reluctance
D.lower permeability, lower retentivity and lower residual magnetism
Q 145 :
Which of the following materials is used in light-emitting diodes ?
A.Gallium arsenide sulphate
B.Gallium arsenide phosphide
C.Gallium chromate phosphide
D.Gallium phosphide sulphate
Q 146 :
Consider the following methods in nano-particle synthesis:
1. Bottom-up
2. Top-down
3. Side-by-side
Which of these methods is/are slow and does/do not conduce to large-scale production?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 147 :
Consider the following statements:
1. Type-I superconductors undergo abrupt transition to the normal state above a critical magnetic field.
2. Type-II superconductors are highly technologically useful super-conductors because the incidence of a second critical field in them is useful in the preparation of high field electromagnets.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 148 :
Consider the following statements:
1. Metal conductors have more R at higher temperatures.
2. Tungsten can be used as a resistance wire.
3. A superconductive material is one which has practically zero resistance.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 149 :
Consider the following statements regarding precision in measurements of a quantity:
1. Precision is the measure of the spread of the incident errors.
2. Precision is independent of the realizable correctness of the measurement. 3. Precision is usually described in terms of number of digits used in the measurement by a digital instrument.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 150 :
Consider the following statements in connection with deflection-type and null-type instruments:
1. Null-type instruments are more accurate than the deflection-type ones.
2. Null-type of instrument can be highly sensitive compared to a deflection-type instrument.
3. Under dynamic conditions, null-type instruments are less preferred to deflection-type instruments.
4. Response is faster in null-type instruments as compared to deflection-type instruments.
Which of the above statements are correct?
5.015 =?