To boost your performance in BHEL Haridwar Graduate Apprentice exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in BHEL Haridwar Graduate Apprentice exams.
Latest BHEL Haridwar Graduate Apprentice Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Logical Reasoning, Electrical, Numerical Ability, General Knowledge, English
Question Bank BHEL Haridwar Graduate Apprentice Exam (Electrical) - English
Logical Reasoning
Q 1 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 2 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 3 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 4 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 5 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 6 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 7 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 8 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 9 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 10 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 11 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 12 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 13 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 14 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 15 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 16 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 17 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 18 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 19 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 20 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 21 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 22 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 23 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 24 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A.P
B.Q
C.B
D.K
E.None of these
Q 25 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A.None
B.One
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than Four
Electrical
Q 26 :
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
A.0.8 Ω
B.1.4 Ω
C.2 Ω
D.2.8 Ω
Q 27 :
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
A.7.0 × 1012 m-3
B.7.0 × 10-12 m-3
C.7.0 × 10-12 m3
D.7.0 × 1012 m3
Q 28 :
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
A.9.2 × 105/m3
B.2.77 × 103/m3
C.2.43 × 1019/m3
D.8.9 × 1012/m3
Q 29 :
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
A.By the mobility of the carriers
B.Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
C.By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
D.By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
Q 30 :
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
A.Parallel polarized
B.Perpendicularly polarized
C.Normally polarized
D.None of the above
Q 31 :
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
A.Forward voltage increases up to the rating
B.Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
C.Forward voltage decreases below the rating
D.Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
Q 32 :
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
A.Very difficult to form, machine or case
B.The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
C.The poor strength-to-weight ratio
D.The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
Q 33 :
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
A.High stiffness and strengths
B.Low densities
C.Unusual electrical property
D.Non-ductile
Q 34 :
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
A.Meissner effect
B.Josephson effect
C.Isotope effect
D.x quantization experiments
Q 35 :
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
A.Phenol formaldehyde
B.Polytetrafluoroethylene
C.Polyvinyl chloride
D.Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
Q 36 :
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is
A.Ferrite
B.Piezoelectric
C.Pyroelectric
D.Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Q 37 :
The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called
A.Peak temperature
B.Neel temperatur
C.Critical temperature
D.Weiss temperature
Q 38 :
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
A.Seeback effect
B.Thomson effect
C.Hall effect
D.Joule effect
Q 39 :
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
A.Soft magnetic materials
B.Hard magnetic materials
C.High eddy current loss materials
D.High hysteresis loss materials
Q 40 :
Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.Both 1 and 2
B.Neither 1 nor 2
C.1 only
D.2 only
Q 41 :
The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse process of
A.Radiative recombination
B.Auger recombination
C.Surface recombination
D.Shockley-Read-Hall recombination
Q 42 :
Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of
A.GeO2
B.B2O3
C.P2O5x
D.Al2O3
Q 43 :
If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage same, then the drift velocity will
A.Become twice
B.Become half
C.ecome four times
D.Remain unchanged
Q 44 :
In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux.
Which of the above are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 45 :
If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?
A.MCHTX
B.MXHTC
C.XMHCT
D.XMHTC
Q 46 :
Consider the following statements associated with the basic electrostatic properties of ideal conductors:
1.The resultant field inside is zero.
2.The net charge density in the interior is zero.
3.Any net charges reside on the surface.
4.The surface is always equipotential.
5.The field just outside is zero.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.3, 4 and 5 only
C.1, 2 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 47 :
A semiconductor device made out of a material having very high temperature coefficient of resistance is
A.Transistor
B.Varistor
C.Thyristor
D.Thermistor
Q 48 :
The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature because
A.The carrier concentration increases
B.The mobility of carrier increases
C.Both carrier concentration and mobility increases
D.The band gap decreases
Q 49 :
Which of the following are associated with soft superconductors?
1.Silsbee’s rule
2.Meissner effect
3.Faraday rotation
4.Curie-Weiss law
A.2, 3 and 4
B.1 and 3 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 50 :
In a two-channel oscilloscope operating in x-y mode, two in-phase 50 Hz sinusoidal waveforms of equal amplitude are fed to the two channels. What will be the resultant pattern on the screen?
A.An ellipse
B.A parabola
C.Straight line inclined at 45 with respect to x-axis
D.A circle
Important Questions Package
BHEL Haridwar Graduate Apprentice Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy BHEL Haridwar Graduate Apprentice Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in BHEL Haridwar Graduate Apprentice question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
BHEL Haridwar Graduate Apprentice Exam (Electrical) - English
Description : 2300 Question With Answer
₹181[₹500]
2.
BHEL Haridwar Graduate Apprentice Exam (Electrical) - Hindi
Description : 2300 Question With Answer
₹181[₹500]
3.
BHEL Haridwar Graduate Apprentice Exam (Electrical) Question Bank Book - English
Materials, whose resistivity at very low temperature plunges from a finite value to zero and remains there upon further cooling, are known as
A.
Ferromagnetic materials
B.
High-energy hard magnetic materials
C.
Superconductors
D.
Ferromagnetic materials
Q 52 :
In a superconductor, is the temperature is decreased below its critical temperature, the value of critical magnetic field will
A.
Increase
B.
Decrease
C.
Not change
D.
Increase or decrease depending on the superconductor material
Q 53 :
The imaginary part of dielectric constant determines
A.
Component of current which is in phase with the applied field
B.
Component of energy absorbed per m3
C.
Amount of applied field
D.
Component of voltage which is in phase with the applied field
Q 54 :
Direction:Each of the items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
A.Statement (I):Hard magnetic materials are used for making permanent magnets. Statement (II):
Hard magnetic materials have relatively small and narrow hysteresis loop.
B.Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
C.
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is NOT the correct explanation of Statement (I)
D.
Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
E.
Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
Q 55 :
In 8085A microprocessor, the operation performed by the instruction LHLD 2100 H is
A.(H) ← 21 H, (L) ←00
B.(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2101H)
C.(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2100H)
D.(H) ← 00H, (L) ←21H
Q 56 :
If the magnetic susceptibility of a specimen is small and positive, the specimen is
A.
Diamagnetic
B.
Paramagnetic
C.
Ferromagnetic
D.
Non-magnetic
Q 57 :
Manganese ferrite is a 1 : 1 mixture of
A.
Manganese nitride and iron oxide
B.
Manganese oxide and iron nitride
C.
Manganese nitride and iron sulphide
D.
Manganese oxide and iron sulphide
Q 58 :
When a ferromagnetic substance is magnetized, small changes in dimensions occur. Such a phenomenon is known as
A.
Magnetic hysteresis
B.
Magnetic expansion
C.
Magnetostriction
D.
Magneto-calorisation
Q 59 :
In ferromagnetic , anti-ferromagnetic and ferromagnetic materials, the atomic thermal motions counteract the coupling forces between the adjacent atomic dipole moments, thereby causing
A.
Some dipole misalignment regardless of whether an external field is present
B.
Increase in dipole alignment regardless of whether an external field is present
C.
No effect on dipole alignment
D.
Atoms tend to de-randomize the direction of moments
Q 60 :
The Hall effect voltage in intrinsic silicon
A.
Is positive
B.
Is zero
C.
Is negative
D.
Changes its sign based on application of magnetic field
Q 61 :
Most outstanding property of indium antimonide is
A.A very wide range gap
B.
High resistivity at room temperature
C.
High carrier mobility
D.
Very low conductivity at room temperature
Q 62 :
Which of the following semiconducting compounds is used in photoconductive devices?
A.
Caesium antimonide
B.
Barium oxide
C.
Lead sulphide
D.
Zinc oxide
Q 63 :
Consider the following transducers:
1.LVDT
2.Piezoelectric
3.Thermocouple
4.Photovoltaic cell
Which of the above are active transducers?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.
1, 2 and 4
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
2, 3 and 4
Q 64 :
Consider the following statements regarding magnetic materials:
1.A diamagnetic material has no permanent dipole
2.Paramagnetic material has anti-parallel orientation of equal moments with neighboring dipoles
3.Ferrimagnetic material has anti parallel orientation of unequal moments between neighboring dipoles
4.Anti-ferromagnetic material has negligible interaction between neighboring dipoles
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.
3 and 4
C.
2 and 4
D.
1 and 3
Q 65 :
Consider the following statements regarding hysteresis loops of hard and soft magnetic materials:
1.Hysteresis loss of hard magnetic material will be less than that of soft material
2.Coercivity of hard materials will be greater than that of soft material
3.Retentivity of the two materials will always be equal
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.
2 only
C.
3 only
D.
1 and 3 only
Q 66 :
Loss-tangent in plane waves in lossy dielectrics will be
A.
Proportional to the Y component of the magnetic field intensity (HY)
B.Inversely proportional to the Y component of the magnetic field intensity (HY)
C.
Inversely proportional to the X component of the magnetic field intensity (HX)
D.
proportional to the X component of the magnetic field intensity (HX)
Q 67 :
Orientational polarization is
A.
Inversely proportional to temperature and proportional to the square of the permanent dipole moment
B.
proportional to temperature as well as to the square of the permanent dipole moment
C.
proportional to temperature and inversely proportional to the square of the permanent dipole moment
D.
Inversely proportional to temperature as well as to the square of the permanent dipole moment
Q 68 :
Behavior of conductors, semiconductors and insulators is explained on the basis of
A.
Atomic nature
B.
Molecular structure
C.
Energy band structure
D.
All of the above
Q 69 :
In general, for a superconductor, which of the following statements is true?
A.
A superconductor is a perfect paramagnetic material with the magnetic susceptibility equals to positive unity
B.
A superconductor is a perfect diamagnetic material with the magnetic susceptibility equals to negative one
C.
A superconductor is a perfect ferromagnetic material with the magnetic susceptibility equals to positive one
D.
A superconductor is a perfect piezoelectric material with the magnetic susceptibility equals to negative one
Q 70 :
Ferro-electric materials have a
A.
High dielectric constant which varies non linearly
B.
Low dielectric constant and is non-linear
C.
High dielectric constant which varies linearly
D.
Low dielectric constant but linear
Q 71 :
In the magnetic core the electromotive forces (emf) induced in accordance with Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction give rise to
A.
Eddy current
B.
Excitation current
C.
Armature current
D.
Field current
Q 72 :
Consider the following characterizing parameters of a material:
1.Magnetic permeability
2.Electron relaxation time 3.Electron effective mass
4.Energy band gap
In case of metals, increase in one of the above parameter decreases its conductivity, while increase in another increases the conductivity. There are respectively
A.1 and 3
B.
3 and 2
C.
4 and 3
D.
1 and 2
Q 73 :
Some magnetic materials may be classified on the basis of
1.Susceptibility
2.Saturation
3.Spin arrangement
4.Nature of hysteresis loop
5.Domain structure
6.Critical temperature above which it behaves as a paramagnetic material
Which of these can be used to distinguish between ferri and ferromagnetic materials?
A.1, 3 and 4 only
B.
2, 3 and 6 only
C.
3, 4 and 5 only
D.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Q 74 :
Magnetism is mainly due to only electron spin around their axis in case of
A.
Diamagnetic materials
B.
Paramagnetic materials
C.
Ferromagnetic materials
D.
Paramagnetic and Diamagnetic materials
Q 75 :
For Paramagnetic materials, the relative permeability is
A.
Less than unity but magnetic susceptibility is relatively small and positive
B.
greater than unity and magnetic susceptibility is relatively small but positive
C.
equal to unity and magnetic susceptibility is relatively large but positive
D.
Less than unity but magnetic susceptibility is relatively large and positive
Numerical Ability
Q 76 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A.2 hours
B.3 hours
C.4 hours
D.5 hours
Q 77 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A.69
B.96
C.78
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 78 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.10
E.None of these
Q 79 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
Q 80 :
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A.42
B.38
C.32
D.72
E.None of these
Q 81 :
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A.18
B.16
C.19
D.17
E.None of these
Q 82 :
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A.45
B.35
C.40
D.30
E.None of these
Q 83 :
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A.2024
B.2104
C.2004
D.2014
E.None of these
Q 84 :
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A.38
B.42
C.44
D.34
E.None of these
Q 85 :
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A.20
B.22
C.21
D.23
E.None of these
Q 86 :
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A.50
B.75
C.57
D.60
E.None of these
Q 87 :
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A.52
B.54
C.56
D.48
E.None of these
Q 88 :
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
Q 89 :
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A.118
B.95
C.110
D.100
E.None of these
Q 90 :
What is 234 time 167 ?
A.48768
B.41184
C.40581
D.39078
E.None of these
Q 91 :
The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
A.62
B.71
C.66
D.65
E.None of these
Q 92 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
Q 93 :
What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
A.47
B.38
C.28
D.25
E.None of these
Q 94 :
What is 147 times 329 ?
A.48069
B.48363
C.49021
D.48723
E.None of these
Q 95 :
The sum of 5 consecutive even number A, B, C, D and E is 410. What is the product of A and E ?
A.6708
B.6880
C.6552
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 96 :
The product of two consecutive odd number is 6399. What is the smaller number ?
A.83
B.79
C.81
D.77
E.None of these
Q 97 :
If the fractions are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
E.None of these
Q 98 :
What is 394 times 113 ?
A.44402
B.44632
C.44802
D.44522
E.None of these
Q 99 :
What is the least number to be added to 7700 to make it a perfect square ?
A.131
B.221
C.77
D.98
E.None of these
Q 100 :
What least number should be added to 8602 to make if a perfect square ?
A.234
B.47
C.128
D.36
E.None of these
General Knowledge
Q 101 :
With reference to Medical College Admission, “All India Quota” scheme was introduced in which year?
A.1975
B.1980
C.1986
D.1990
Q 102 :
How many Tiger reserves of India have received accreditation of the Global Conservation Assured Tiger Standards (CA|TS)?
A.5
B.3
C.11
D.14
Q 103 :
AS per ICMR’s 4th Serology Survey released in July 2021, which state has the highest Covid-19 Sero-prevalence?
A.Bihar
B.Madhya Pradesh
C.Uttar Pradesh
D.Kerala
Q 104 :
Who won the Maharashtra Bhushan Awards 2021?
A.Asha Bhosle
B.Sachin Tendulkar
C.Lata Mangeshkar
D.Ratan Tata
Q 105 :
Which Company collaborated with CBSE and Ministry of Education for “AI For All” initiative?
A.Intel
B.Microsoft
C.Wipro
D.Dell
Q 106 :
In July 2021, NABARD sanctioned Rs 445 crore loan under its Rural Infrastructure Development Fund to support drinking water projects in which state?
A.Karnataka
B.Madhya Pradesh
C.Odisha
D.Punjab
Q 107 :
Which bank partnered with LIC Cards Services to launch 2 Credit Cards – ‘Lumine’ Platinum Credit Card & ‘Eclat’ Select Credit Card?
A.IDBI Bank
B.ICICI Bank
C.Canara Bank
D.Axis Bank
Q 108 :
In July 2021, NASSCOM partnered with the Department for International Trade (DIT) of _____ to address its Digital Skill Gap
A.Afghanistan
B.United Kingdom
C.Bangladesh
D.Brazil
Q 109 :
Which Indian state partnered (in July’21) with Afghanistan Chamber of Commerce and Investment (ACCI) to boost trade with the country?
A.West Bengal
B.Karnataka
C.Telangana
D.Gujarat
Q 110 :
As per the Banking Regulation Act – 1949, All Banks in India shall maintain a Reserve Fund/Statutory Reserve equivalent to _______ of their annual net profit.
A.5%
B.25%
C.10%
D.20%
Q 111 :
As a boost to the disinvestment of _______, Central government (in July’21) allowed 100% FDI under automatic route in _______ PSUs.
A.Cement Corporation of India; Construction Sector
B.Indian Oil Corporation; Oil Refinery Sector
C.General Insurance Corporation of India; Insurance Sector
D.Bharat Petroleum; Oil Refinery Sector
Q 112 :
In July 2021, Union Cabinet approved the amendment of General Insurance Business Nationalisation Act (GIBNA), 1972, to facilitate privatization of ____ General Insurance Company from the total _____ in public sector.
A.2;4
B.1;4
C.2;6
D.1;5
Q 113 :
In July 2021, India & Russia conducted the 12th edition of Naval exercise ‘INDRA’ in _____, where Indian side was represented by ______.
A.Baltic Sea; INS Tabar
B.Baltic Sea; INS Trishul
C.Andaman Sea; INS Tabar
D.Andaman Sea; INS Trishul
Q 114 :
AS per the “Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)” report released by ________ unemployment rate among Indian Women is at ____ in 2019-20
A.NITI Aayog; 5.1%
B.National Statistical Office; 5.1%
C.NITI Aayog; 4.2%
D.National Statistical Office; 4.2%
Q 115 :
In July 2021, Ministry of Ports set-up a committee to plan on the proposed ferry service between India’s _____ and Kankesanthurai Port in _______.
A.Karaikal; Sri Lanka
B.Kolkata; Bangladesh
C.Visakhapatnam; Bangladesh
D.Karaikal; Myanmar
Q 116 :
Mike Hendrick passed away in July 2021. He was related to which of the following fields?
A.Acting
B.Medicine
C.Cricket
D.Politics
Q 117 :
When is World Ranger Day celebrated every year?
A.28 July
B.29 July
C.30 July
D.31 July
Q 118 :
Which of the following will set up 10 mobile refueling units (MRUs) in 2022?
A.Adani Gas Ltd
B.Mahanagar Gas Ltd
C.Sabarmati Gas Limited
D.Gail Gas Limited
Q 119 :
In July 2021, which of the following has entered into an agreement with the Serum Institute of India?
A.NASSCOM
B.ASSOCHAM
C.CII
D.FICCI
Q 120 :
Who chaired a review meeting with the National Medical Commission, NMC, in July 2021?
A.Narendra Modi
B.Amit Shah
C.Mansukh Mandaviya
D.Kiren Rijiju
Q 121 :
Who is the national record holder in the men’s 3000m steeplechase?
A.Gulzara Singh Mann
B.Avinash Sable
C.Gopak Saini
D.Madan Singh
Q 122 :
On which date, “International Friendship Day” is celebrated by the United Nations?
A.August 8
B.August 1
C.July 30
D.July 28
Q 123 :
What was the theme of the “World Day against Trafficking 2021”?
A.Save lives
B.The future we want, the UN we need
C.Human Trafficking: Call Your Government to Action
D.Victims voices lead the way
Q 124 :
Which two space agencies collaborated to launch the mission called “NISAR”?
A.ISRO and NASA
B.ISRO and ROSCOSMOS
C.NASA and CNSA
D.ROSCOSMOS and NASA
Q 125 :
What is the venue of INDRA-21, the Joint Military Exercise of Indian Army and Russian Army?
A.New Delhi
B.Moscow
C.Volgograd
D.Ghaziabad
English
Q 126 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 127 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 128 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 129 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 130 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 131 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 132 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 133 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 134 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 135 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 136 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 137 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 138 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 139 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 140 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 141 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 142 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 143 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 144 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 145 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
Q 146 :
My father generously donated money to the church.
A.Money is generously being donated to te church by my father.
B.Money has been generously donated to the church by my father.
C.Money had been generously donated to the church by my father.
D.Money was generously donated to the church by my father.
Q 147 :
We will send you your laboratory reports as soon as they are ready
A.you would be sent your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.
B.Your laboratory reports will be sent to you as soon as they are ready.
C.You would be send your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.
D.Your laboratory reports should be sent to you as soon as they will be ready.
Q 148 :
I saw the master conducting the orchestra.
A.I saw that the orchestra was being conducted by the master.
B.I saw the orchestra being conducted by te master
C.The master was seen conducting the orchestra by me.
D.The master was conducting the orchestra and I saw that.
th of 
th of a number and 
of 
th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?