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BHEL Supervisor Trainee (Mechanical) Exam - English

Duration: 120 ยท Questions: 150 ยท Max Marks: 150 ยท Language: 1

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Mechanical Engineering

1
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
  1. A.Greater than 1
  2. B.Equal to 1
  3. C.Between 1 and 3
                   4        4
  4. D.Less than 1
2
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
  1. A.1
  2. B.2
  3. C.3
  4. D.4
3
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
  1. A.Newtonian fluid 
  2. B.Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
  3. C.Pseudo-plastic fluids
  4. D.Dilatent fluids
4
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
  1. A.8
  2. B.6
  3. C.4
  4. D.2
5
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
  1. A.0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
  2. B.4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
  3. C.0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
  4. D.4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
6
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force 
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
  1. A.Both 1 and 2
  2. B.1 only 
  3. C.2 only
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2 
7
State whether following flow field is physically possible? 
  1. A.Possible for steady, incompressible flow
  2. B.Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
  3. C.Possible for steady, compressible flow 
  4. D.Not Possible 
8
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
  1. A.0.25
  2. B.0.26
  3. C.2
  4. D.4
9
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
  1. A.10 kW 
  2. B.20 kW
  3. C.30 kW
  4. D.50 kW
10
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
  1. A.man power
  2. B.profit
  3. C.inventory
  4. D.manufacturing
11
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
  1. A.3 m/s2
  2. B.6 m/s2
  3. C.9 m/s2
  4. D.15 m/s2
12
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
  1. A.9
  2. B.-6
  3. C.117
  4. D.10.8
13
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
  1. A.More for lighter fluid
  2. B.More for denser fluid
  3. C.Less for denser fluid
  4. D.Less for lighter fluid
14
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
  1. A.Linearly with fluid density
  2. B.Inversely with pressure drop
  3. C.Directly as square of pipe radius
  4. D.Inversely with fluid velocity
15
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
  1. A.1.5mm
  2. B.2.5mm
  3. C.4.0mm
  4. D.5.0mm
16
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
  1. A.0.05m 
  2. B.0.07m
  3. C.0.08m
  4. D.0.09m
17
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
 
  1. A.8 kW     
  2. B.4 kW
  3. C.2 kW    
  4. D. 1 kW
18
In a hydraulic coupling
  1. A.The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
  2. B.The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
  3. C.The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
  4. D.The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque 
19
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
  1. A.1,2 and 3 only
  2. B.1,2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1,2, 3 and 4 
20
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
  1. A.150 N
  2. B.1470 N
  3. C.340 N
  4. D.900 N
21
Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n2.
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
  1. A.1,2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
22
Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?
  1. A.Energy 
  2. B.Mass
  3. C.Momentum
  4. D.Angle
23
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in
  1. A.Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
  2. B.Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
  3. C.Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
  4. D.Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid 
24
Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 105. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be
  1. A.2Q
  2. B.A little more than 2Q
  3. C.A little less than 2Q
  4. D.4Q
25
 Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
  1. A. 7.5 W/m2K      
  2. B.15 W/m2K
  3. C.25 W/m2K      
  4. D. 35 W/m2K
26
For laminar flow through a round pipe, the shear stress
  1. A.Remains constant over the cross-section
  2. B.Varies linearly with the radial distance
  3. C.Must be zero at all point 
  4. D.Varies parabolically with radial distance
27
Percentage clongation during tensile test is indicative of
  1. A.Creep
  2. B.Malleability
  3. C.Ductility
  4. D.Elasticity in the metal
28
Which of the above statements is not correct in the context of laminar flow through a pipeline?
  1. A.Shear stress is zero at the center and varies linearly with pipe radius
  2. B.Head loss is proportional to square of the average flow velocity
  3. C.The friction factor varies inversely with flow Reynolds number
  4. D.No dispersion of die injected into the flow stream
29
Laminar flow between closely spaced parallel plates is governed by the consideration of which one of the following pair of forces?
  1. A.Pressure and inertial forces
  2. B.Gravity and inertial forces
  3. C.Viscous and inertial forces
  4. D.Pressure and inertial forces
30
Formation and collapse of vapour bubbles are believed to be the root cause for cavitation in hydraulic turbines. Most favorable condition for the formation of bubbles is set in the turbine at
  1. A.Penstock/nozzl
  2. B.Guide vanes/Inlet of the runner
  3. C.Vanes receiving impact of jet
  4. D.Outlet of the runner/Entrance of the draft tube 
31
For fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with Reynolds number Rethe friction factor is
  1. A.Inversely proportional to Re
  2. B.Proportional to Re 
  3. C.Proportional to square of Re
  4. D.Independent of Re 
32
The ratio of power outlet of the pump to the power input to the pump is known as
  1. A.Mechanical efficiency
  2. B.Static efficiency
  3. C.Overall efficiency
  4. D.Manometric efficiency
33
A pump is defined as a device which converts
  1. A.Hydraulic energy into Mechanical energy
  2. B.Mechanical energy into Hydraulic energy
  3. C.Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
  4. D.None of the above
34
The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of the unit of such a size that is
  1. A.Delivers the unit discharge at unit head
  2. B.Requires unit power to develop unit head
  3. C.Delivers the unit discharge at unit power
  4. D.Produces unit power with unit head available
35
Negative slip occurs  in reciprocating pumps, when delivery pipe is
  1. A.Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running atlow speed
  2. B.Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running at high speed
  3. C.Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at low speed
  4. D.Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at high speed 
36
The pressure inside a soap bubble of 50 mm diameter is 25 N/m2 above the atmospheric pressure. The surface tension in soap film would be
  1. A.0.156 N/m
  2. B.0.313 N/m
  3. C.0.624 N/m 
  4. D.0.078 N/m
37
A Newtonian fluid is one which
  1. A.Is viscous but incompressible
  2. B.Has a linear relationship between the shear stress and the rate of angular deflection
  3. C.Exhibits an increase in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
  4. D.Exhibits a decrease in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
38
Unlike the viscosity of fluids, the viscosity of gases increases with increasing temperature. This is due to
  1. A.Increased cohesive force between the molecule
  2. B.Increased momentum transfer in the molecules
  3. C.Decreased momentum transfer in the molecules
  4. D.Increase in both cohesive force and momentum transfer
39
Manometer is a device used for measuring
  1. A.Velocity at a point in a fluid
  2. B.Pressure at a point in a fluid
  3. C.Discharge of a fluid
  4. D.None of the above
40
When a dolphin glides through air, it experiences an external pressure of 0.75 m of mercury. The absolute pressure on dolphin when it is 5m below the free surface of the water is
  1. A.0.10 N/m2
  2. B.0.5 N/m2
  3. C.1.0 N/m2
  4. D.0.15 N/m2
41
Which of the above statements is correct?
  1. A.For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
  2. B.For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains lower than the center of gravity of the body
  3. C.For a floating body, the neutral equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
  4. D.For a floating body, the unstable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
42
A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of 1.5 m2 and is made up of material of thermal conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C, the thermal resistance of the wall is
  1. A. 1.8 K/W         
  2. B. 1.8 W/K
  3. C.1 K/W           
  4. D. 1 W/K
43
A flownet is a graphical representation of streamlines and euqipotnetial lines such as these lines
  1. A.Intersect each other at various different angles forming irregular shaped nets
  2. B.Intersect each other orthogonally forming curvilinearsquares
  3. C.Indicate the direction but not magnitude of vector
  4. D.Indicate the direction and magnitude of vector
44
Which of the above statements is correct for the velocity of potential?
  1. A.Existence of velocity potential is an indication of irrotational nature of the flow
  2. B.The velocity potential automatically satisfies the continuity equation
  3. C.Velocity potential can be defined only for 2-dimensional flow
  4. D.All of the above
45
Angle of diverging portion of the venturimeter is limited to 7°, because:
1.Flow decelerates in the diverging portion and pressure increases in the downstream direction. Hence, the fluid experience an adverse pressure gradient, if the divergence angle is large.
2 .Flow separation takes place due to adverse pressure gradient when divergence angle is large.
3 .If the divergence angle is large, a negative pressure is created at the throat which obstructs the flow of fluid. 
Which of the above reasons are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only 
46
A gas is flowing through an insulated nozzle. If the inlet velocity of gas is negligible and there is an enthalpy drop of 45kJ/kg, the velocity of gas leaving the nozzle is 
  1. A.100m/s
  2. B.200m/s
  3. C.300m/s
  4. D.350m/s 
47
Which of the above statements are correct for turbo-prop powered aircrafts?
1 .The propulsion efficiency of turbo-prop is higher than that of turbo-jet and rockets for low speeds up to about 800km/hr.
2.For the same thrust the turbine in the turbo prop aircraft is smaller than in the turbo-jet aircraft.
3.For the turbo-prop the flight velocity cannot exceed the jet velocity. 
  1. A.1,2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only 
48
If absolute jet exit velocity from a jet engine is 2800m/s and forward flight velocity is 1400m/s then propulsive efficiency is
  1. A.33.33%
  2. B.40%
  3. C.66.66%
  4. D.90%
49
An air-breathing aircraft is flying at an altitude where the air density is half the value at ground level. With reference to the ground level, the air fuel ratio at this altitude will be
  1. A.1
    2
  2. B.1
  3. C.2
  4. D.4
50
Which of the above statements are correct for rockets?
1.Unlike the turbo-jet aircraft, in rockets the flight velocity can exceed the jet velocity.
2.In rockets gases having lower molecular weight increase the specific thrust.
3.In rockets the gases are expanded in the nozzle up to the atmospheric pressure. 
  1. A.1,2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only 
51
In a differential manometer a head of 0.6m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3m of fluid B in limb 2. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
  1. A.2
  2. B.0.5
  3. C.0.3
  4. D.0.18
52
At x = 0, the function f (x) = |x| will be
  1. A.minimum
  2. B.maximum
  3. C.point of inflection
  4. D.neither minimum nor maximum
53
The center of pressure of a plane submerged surface
  1. A.Is a point on the submerged area at which the resultant hydrostatic force is supposed to act
  2. B.Should always coincide within the center of submerged area
  3. C.Should be at the center of gravity of the plane surface
  4. D.Is always below the centroid of area 
54
A furnace is provided with an insulating refractory lining. The overall thermal conductivity of the material is 0.03 W/mK. The thickness of the lining is 100 mm. The inner and outer temperatures are 250°C and 50°C, respectively. The heat loss to the surroundings will be 
  1. A.30 J/m2/s 
  2. B. 60 J/m2/s
  3. C. 60 J/s              
  4. D.30 J/s
55
A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of its volume is under mercury?
  1. A.0.5
  2. B.0.4
  3. C.0.515
  4. D.Fully immersed
56
A right circular cylinder, open at the top, is filled with a liquid of specific gravity 1.2, and rotated about its vertical axis at such a speed that half of the liquid spills out. The pressure at the center of the bottom is
  1. A.Zero
  2. B.One-fourth its value when the cylinder was full
  3. C.One-third its value when the cylinder was full
  4. D.three-fourth its value when the cylinder was full 
57
Consider the following statements about velocity potential:
1.Velocity potential is a vector function similar to stream function
2.It is a fully three dimensional function and not limited to two
coordinates
3.Velocity potential does not exist at stagnation points
4.Velocity potential exists only if the flow is irrotational 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1, 2 and 4
  3. C.1, 3 and 4
  4. D.2, 3 and 4 
58
During a constant pressure expansion of a gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of work, W is
  1. A.8%      
  2. B. 10%
  3. C. 12%       
  4. D.15%
59
Principle mechanism of material removal in ECM?
  1. A.Chemical corrosion
  2. B.Ionic dissolution
  3. C.Both (a) and (b)
  4. D.Non of the above
60
The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow is 800?
  1. A. 2 m/s 
  2. B.1.5 m/s
  3. C.1 m/s 
  4. D.0.5 m/s
61
In flow through a pipe, the transition from laminar to turbulent flow does not depend on
  1. A.Density of fluid
  2. B.Length of pipe
  3. C.Diameter of pipe
  4. D.Velocity of the fluid 
62
A 0.20m diameter pipe 20m long transports oil at a flow rate of0.01m3/s. Calculate power required to maintain flow if dynamic viscosity and density of oil is 0.08 Pas and 900 kg/m3 respectively
  1. A.4.064 kW
  2. B.3.074 kW
  3. C.5.064 kW
  4. D.4.074 kW 
63
Pressure loss for laminar flow through pipeline is dependent
  1. A.Inversely on flow of velocity
  2. B.Directly on square of pipe radius
  3. C.Directly on length of pipe
  4. D.Inversely on viscosity of flowing medium
64
Fanno line is a flow in a constant area duct 
  1. A.With friction and heat transfer but in the absence of work 
  2. B.With friction and heat transfer accompanied by work 
  3. C.With friction but in the absence of heat transfer or work
  4. D.Without friction but accompanied by heat transfer and work 
65
In an adiabatic flow with friction through a constant area duct, the following phenomenon are predicted:
1.The flow downstream tends to be sonic irrespective of the Mach-number upstream
2.In the case of initially supersonic flow, any increase in duct length beyond choked flow would make the exit flow subsonic
3.In the case of initially subsonic flow, any increase in duct length will not change sonic flow at the exit
4.The optimum pipe length for sonic outlet in supersonic flow is considerably longer than that of subsonic flow for the same flow rate 
Which of these are correct? 
  1. A.1,2,3 and 4
  2. B.1,2 and 3 only 
  3. C.1,3 and 4 only
  4. D.2,3 and 4 only 
66
In a reciprocating pump, air vessels are used to
  1. A.Smoothen the flow
  2. B.Reduce suction head
  3. C.Increase delivery head
  4. D.Reduce acceleration head 
67
Consider the following statements pertaining to centrifugal pumps:
1.The inlet to the impeller of a centrifugal pump is always axial, while the outlet may be radial or inclined.
2.The impeller may be shrouded on both sides with an eye at the centre and vanes curved backwards.
3.Impeller of double entry type has a balanced radial thrust.
4.Un-shrouded and part shrouded impeller are used only where high efficiency is unimportant. 
Which of these statements are correct? 
  1. A.1,2,3 and 4
  2. B.1,2 and 3 only
  3. C.1,2 and 4 only
  4. D.2,3 and 4 only 
68
A centrifugal pump is fully primed, but on starting it fails to deliver fluid. Thr probable reasons are listed below:
1.Leaky foot valve or suction line
2.Suction head is very slow
3.Insufficient motor speed
4.Damaged or closed delivery valve 
Which of these reasons are correct? 
  1. A.1,2,3 and 4 
  2. B.1,2 and 3 only 
  3. C.2,3 and 4 only
  4. D.1,3 and 4 only 
69
A centrifugal pump is to discharge 0.118 m3/s at speed of 1450 rpm against a head of 25m. The impeller diameter is 25cm, its width at outlet is 5cm and manometric efficiency is 75%. The vane angle at outer periphery of impeller is
  1. A.56.77°C
  2. B.59.77°C
  3. C.61.77°C
  4. D.48.77°C 
70
A turbine is working under a head of 200m. The power developed by the turbine is 100kW and discharge through the turbine is 0.125 m3/s. In such case, the ratio of unit power to unit discharge for the turbine will be
  1. A.4000
  2. B.16000
  3. C.160 × 103
  4. D.None of the above
71
Two geometrical similar pumps are running at 1000 rpm speed (both). If one pump has impeller diameter of 0.3m and discharges 20Ips against 20m head, and the other pump gives half of this discharge rate; calculate head and diameter of second pump
  1. A.12.5m and 0.12m
  2. B.10.5m and 0.12m
  3. C.10.5m and 0.23m
  4. D.12.5m and 0.23m 
72
In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head loss is proportional to
  1. A.D–1            
  2. B.D–2 
  3. C.D–3           
  4. D. D–4
73
Frictional losses in the nozzle
  1. A.Reduces the enthalpy of the fluid
  2. B.increases the enthalpy of the fluid
  3. C.no effect on the enthalpy of the fluid 
  4. D.None of the above 
74
In a nozzle designed for maximum discharge conditions, the flow velocity in the convergent section of the nozzle is
  1. A.Subsonic
  2. B.Sonic
  3. C.Supersonic
  4. D.Depends on initial pressure and condition of the steam 
75
In the centrifugal compressor, the work input is equal to the sum of
  1. A.Pressure head, relative head and dynamic head
  2. B.dynamic head, centrifugal head and relative head
  3. C.Pressure head, centrifugal head and dynamic head
  4. D.Pressure head, centrifugal head and relative head 
76
For a centrifugal compressor with radial vanes, slip factor is the ratio of
  1. A.Isentropic work to Euler work
  2. B.Whirl velocity to the blade velocity at the impeller exit
  3. C.Stagnation pressure to static pressure
  4. D.Isentropic temperature rise to actual temperature rise 
77
The specific speed of a centrifugal compressor is generally
  1. A.Less than that of reciprocating compressor
  2. B.Independent of compressor type, but depends only on size of compressor
  3. C.Higher than that of axial compressor
  4. D.More than specific speed of reciprocating compressor but less than axial compressor 
78
In a centrifugal compressor, the highest Mach number leading to shock wave in the fluid flow occurs at
  1. A.Diffuser inlet radius
  2. B.Diffuser outlet radius
  3. C.impeller inlet radius
  4. D.impeller outlet radius 
79
The rating of the fuse wire is always expressed in
  1. A.Ampere-hours
  2. B.Ampere-volts
  3. C.KWH
  4. D.Ampere
80
In an axial flow compressor, the ratio of pressure rise in the rotor blades to the pressure rise in the compressor in one stage is known as
  1. A.Pressure coefficient
  2. B.Work factor
  3. C.Degree of reaction
  4. D.Slip factor
81
CNC machine interpolator controls
  1. A.spindle speed  
  2. B.feed to tool
  3. C.motion of tools
  4. D.None of these
82
If a row interchanged in the matrix, then the  determinant of matrix is
  1. A.magnitude remains same, sign changes
  2. B.magnitude changes, sign remains same
  3. C.both magnitude and sign changes
  4. D.both magnitude and sign remains same 
83
Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow, constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and neglecting curvature and surface tension effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below the tap opening is nearly
 
  1. A.11.7 mm
  2. B.14.6 mm
  3. C.17.5 mm 
  4. D.20.4 mm
84
A body of mass 20kg falls freely in vacuum. It has fallen through a vertical distance of 50m. The gravitational acceleration may be assumed as 10m/s2. What is the thermodynamic work done by the body?
  1. A.1000Nm 
  2. B.10kJ
  3. C.zero
  4. D.1kNm
85
A closed gaseous system undergoes a reversible constant pressure process at 2bar in which 100 kJ of heat is rejected and the volume changes from 0.2m3 to 0.1m3. The change in the internal energy of the system is
  1. A.- 100kJ
  2. B.-80kJ
  3. C.-60kJ
  4. D.-40kJ
86
A Carnot engines receives 100kJ of heat at 600K. Heat is rejected at 300K. The displacement volume is 0.2 m3. The mean effective pressure is
  1. A.2 bar
  2. B.2.5 bar  
  3. C.3 bar
  4. D.3.5 bar
87
The ratio of static enthalpy rise in the rotor to the static enthalpy rise in the stage of an axial flow compressor is defined as:
  1. A.Power input factor
  2. B.Flow coefficient
  3. C.Temperature coefficient
  4. D.Degree of reaction
88
The eigen values of a symmetric matrix are all
  1. A.complex with non-zero position imaginary part
  2. B.complex with non-zero negative imaginary part
  3. C.real
  4. D.pure imaginary
89
During a thermodynamic process, 100kJ of heat is transferred from a reservoir at 800K to a sink at 400K. The ambient temperature is 300K. the loss of available energy is
  1. A.27.5 kJ
  2. B.32.5 kJ
  3. C.37.5 kJ
  4. D.62.5 kJ
90
The vapor pressure of a liquid at any arbitrary temperature can be estimated approximately with the help of
  1. A.Gibbs equation
  2. B.Joule-Kelvin equation
  3. C.Clausius-Clapeyron equation
  4. D.Gibbs-Duhem equation
91
In order to determine the quality of wet steam by a separating and throttling calorimeter, the steam should be first separated and then throttled such that the final state is
  1. A.Saturated vapor only
  2. B.Superheated vapor only
  3. C.At a pressure higher than the original pressure
  4. D.A mixture of saturated liquid and vapor 
92
A rotor weighing 2 kN is supported on bearings A and B which are 1 m apart. The centre of mass of the rotor is at a distance 0.4 m from bearing A. It is observed that there is an unbalanced couple of magnitude 300 N-m which *leaves the shaft balanced statically. The dynamic reactions at the supports will be
  1. A.800 N and 800 N
  2. B.300 N and 800 N
  3. C.800 N and –300 N
  4. D.300 N and –300 N
93
A cam is a mechanical member used to impart a desired motion to a follower by direct contact. Which one of the under-listed follower motion types will produce the least jerk to the system?
  1. A.Simple harmonic
  2. B.Constant acceleration and deceleration
  3. C.Constant velocity
  4. D.Cycloidal
94
The tendency of detonation is high in engines of larger cylinder diameter because of
  1. A.Higher intake pressure in larger cylinder
  2. B.Higher fuel/air ration in larger cylinder
  3. C.Flame having to travel longer distance in larger cylinder
  4. D.Sparks are advanced more in larger cylinder
95
An open cycle pressure gas turbine uses a fuel of calorific value 40,000 kJ/kg with airfuel ratio of 80 : 1 and develops a net output of 80kJ/kg of air. The thermal efficiency of the cycle is
  1. A.12%
  2. B.16%
  3. C.20%
  4. D.18%
  5. E.25 %
96
Consider the following statements regarding cycles:
1.Stirling cycle consists of two isothermal and two adiabatic processes.
2.In vapor compression cycle, the refrigerant is in form of dry saturated vapor before entering compressor.
3.Diesel cycle consists of one constant pressure; one constant volume and two isentropic processes 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
97
The efficiency of vapor power Rankine cycle can be increased by
1 .Increasing the temperature of the working fluid at which heat is added
2.Increasing the pressure of the working fluid at which heat is added
3.Decreasing the temperature of the working fluid at which heat is rejected 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
98
The velocity of a gas flowing through a duct is 300 m/s; its temperature is 127°C; Gas constant R = 0.25 kJ/kg K, the ratio of specific heat is Cp/CV = รฐยโ€บยพ = 1.6. What is the value of Mach number?
  1. A.0.70
  2. B.0.72
  3. C.0.75
  4. D.0.77
99
When a system is taken from state ‘x’ to state ‘y’, 30kJ of heat flows into the system and the system does 10kJ of work. When the system is returned from ‘y’ to ‘x’ along another path, work done on the system is 8kJ. What is the amount of heat liberated or absorbed?
  1. A.12 kJ of heat liberated 
  2. B.28 kJ of heat liberated
  3. C.12 kJ of heat absorbed 
  4. D.28 kJ of heat absorbed 
100
The values of heat transfer and work transfer for the processes of a thermodynamic cycle are given below:
Process                         Heat transfer                          Worktransfer
                                                (kJ)                                      (kJ) 
1                                        300                                          300
2                                         0                                             250
3                                      -100                                           -100
4                                       0                                               -250
The thermal efficiency of the cycle and the work ratio will be respectively
  1. A.33% and 0.66 
  2. B.66% and 0.36
  3. C.36% and 0.66
  4. D.33% and 0.36 

General Knowledge

1
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
2
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
3
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
4
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
  1. A.Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
  2. B.Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
  3. C.Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
  4. D.Dr. Satish Dhawan
5
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
  1. A.BARC
  2. B.ISRO
  3. C.DRDO
  4. D.HAL
6
Who won the 2024 FIFA Ballon d'Or award?
  1. A.Lionel Messi
  2. B.Cristiano Ronaldo
  3. C.Kylian Mbappรฉ
  4. D.Robert Lewandowski
7
The 'One Sun, One World, One Grid' initiative was launched by which organization?
  1. A.United Nations
  2. B.International Solar Alliance
  3. C.World Bank
  4. D.European Union
8
Who became the first female President of Brazil in?
  1. A.Dilma Rousseff
  2. B.Marina Silva
  3. C.Marta Suplicy
  4. D.Gleisi Hoffmann
9
Which Indian cricketer was appointed as the captain of Cricket Australia's team in?
  1. A.Virat Kohli
  2. B.Rohit Sharma
  3. C.Jasprit Bumrah
  4. D.Yashasvi Jaiswal
10
What is the name of NASA's new mission to study the Earth's thermosphere launched in?
  1. A.ThermoX
  2. B.AuroraScope
  3. C.TEMPO
  4. D.HelioFocus

English

1
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
  1. A.a
  2. B.an
  3. C.some
  4. D.the
2
Have the car stolen!
  1. A.Steal the car
  2. B.You should have the stolen car
  3. C.Get someone to steal the car
  4. D.They have stolen the car
3
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
  1. A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
  2. B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
  3. C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
  4. D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
4
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
  1. A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
  2. B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
  3. C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
  4. D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
5
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
  1. A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
  2. B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
  3. C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
  4. D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them. 
6
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
  1. A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
  2. B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
  3. C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
  4. D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
7
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
  1. A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
  2. B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
  3. C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
  4. D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
8
We shall invite Suresh.
  1. A.Suresh would be invited by us
  2. B.Suresh would have been invited by us
  3. C.Suresh will be invited by us
  4. D.Suresh will have been invited by us
9
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
  1. A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
  2. B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
  3. C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
  4. D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
10
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow. 
  1. A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
  2. B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
  3. C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
  4. D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
11
Why did break the vase?
  1. A.why is the vase broken by him
  2. B.why was the vase broken by him
  3. C.why had been the vase broken by him
  4. D.why has been the vase broken by him
12
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
  1. A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
  2. B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
  3. C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
  4. D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
13
The baby really enjoys that music.
  1. A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
  2. B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
  3. C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
  4. D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
14
The weather disrupted the final match.
  1. A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
  2. B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
  3. C.The final match was disrupted by the weather. 
  4. D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
15
The management committee is required to publish a report every year. 
  1. A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
  2. B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
  3. C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
  4. D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
16
Preeti ran the race in record time.
  1. A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
  2. B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
  3. C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
  4. D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
17
I shall have written the full thesis by December
  1. A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
  2. B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
  3. C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
  4. D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
18
One must keep one’s promises.
  1. A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
  2. B.One’s promises had to be kept.
  3. C.Promises must be kept.
  4. D.Promises have to be kept by one.
19
I read the story in one night.
  1. A.The story had been read by me in one night.
  2. B.The story has been read by me in one night
  3. C.n one night the story has been read by me.
  4. D.the story was read by me in one night
20
We must take care of the old.
  1. A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
  2. B.The old must be taken care of by us. 
  3. C.Those who are old need care by us
  4. D.The old should be taken care of by us.

Reasoning

1
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
2
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
3
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
4
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
5
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
6
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
7
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
8
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
9
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
10
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
11
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
  1. A.N
  2. B.Q
  3. C.J
  4. D.M
  5. E.None of these
12
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
13
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
  1. A.The only argument I is strong
  2. B.Only argument II is strong
  3. C.Either I or II is strong
  4. D.Neither I nor II is strong
14
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
  1. A.P
  2. B.L
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
15
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
16
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.One
  2. B.Two
  3. C.Three
  4. D.Four
  5. E.More than four
17
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can  be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
  1. A.I
  2. B.A
  3. C.L
  4. D.M
  5. E.N
18
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
19
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
  1. A.26
  2. B.28
  3. C.30
  4. D.32
  5. E.None of these
20
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Question for BHEL Supervisor Trainee (Mechanical) 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam