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Latest BHEL Tiruchirappalli Trade Apprentice Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Professional Knowledge, Reasoning, Numerical Ability, English, General Awareness
Question Bank BHEL Tiruchirappalli Trade Apprentice Exam (Electrical) - English
Professional Knowledge
Q 1 :
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
A.0.8 Ω
B.1.4 Ω
C.2 Ω
D.2.8 Ω
Q 2 :
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
A.7.0 × 1012 m-3
B.7.0 × 10-12 m-3
C.7.0 × 10-12 m3
D.7.0 × 1012 m3
Q 3 :
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
A.9.2 × 105/m3
B.2.77 × 103/m3
C.2.43 × 1019/m3
D.8.9 × 1012/m3
Q 4 :
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
A.By the mobility of the carriers
B.Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
C.By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
D.By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
Q 5 :
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
A.Parallel polarized
B.Perpendicularly polarized
C.Normally polarized
D.None of the above
Q 6 :
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
A.Forward voltage increases up to the rating
B.Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
C.Forward voltage decreases below the rating
D.Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
Q 7 :
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
A.Very difficult to form, machine or case
B.The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
C.The poor strength-to-weight ratio
D.The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
Q 8 :
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
A.High stiffness and strengths
B.Low densities
C.Unusual electrical property
D.Non-ductile
Q 9 :
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
A.Meissner effect
B.Josephson effect
C.Isotope effect
D.x quantization experiments
Q 10 :
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
A.Phenol formaldehyde
B.Polytetrafluoroethylene
C.Polyvinyl chloride
D.Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
Q 11 :
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is
A.Ferrite
B.Piezoelectric
C.Pyroelectric
D.Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Q 12 :
The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called
A.Peak temperature
B.Neel temperatur
C.Critical temperature
D.Weiss temperature
Q 13 :
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
A.Seeback effect
B.Thomson effect
C.Hall effect
D.Joule effect
Q 14 :
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
A.Soft magnetic materials
B.Hard magnetic materials
C.High eddy current loss materials
D.High hysteresis loss materials
Q 15 :
Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.Both 1 and 2
B.Neither 1 nor 2
C.1 only
D.2 only
Q 16 :
The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse process of
A.Radiative recombination
B.Auger recombination
C.Surface recombination
D.Shockley-Read-Hall recombination
Q 17 :
Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of
A.GeO2
B.B2O3
C.P2O5x
D.Al2O3
Q 18 :
If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage same, then the drift velocity will
A.Become twice
B.Become half
C.ecome four times
D.Remain unchanged
Q 19 :
In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux.
Which of the above are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 20 :
If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?
A.MCHTX
B.MXHTC
C.XMHCT
D.XMHTC
Q 21 :
Consider the following statements associated with the basic electrostatic properties of ideal conductors:
1.The resultant field inside is zero.
2.The net charge density in the interior is zero.
3.Any net charges reside on the surface.
4.The surface is always equipotential.
5.The field just outside is zero.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.3, 4 and 5 only
C.1, 2 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 22 :
A semiconductor device made out of a material having very high temperature coefficient of resistance is
A.Transistor
B.Varistor
C.Thyristor
D.Thermistor
Q 23 :
The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature because
A.The carrier concentration increases
B.The mobility of carrier increases
C.Both carrier concentration and mobility increases
D.The band gap decreases
Q 24 :
Which of the following are associated with soft superconductors?
1.Silsbee’s rule
2.Meissner effect
3.Faraday rotation
4.Curie-Weiss law
A.2, 3 and 4
B.1 and 3 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 25 :
In a two-channel oscilloscope operating in x-y mode, two in-phase 50 Hz sinusoidal waveforms of equal amplitude are fed to the two channels. What will be the resultant pattern on the screen?
A.An ellipse
B.A parabola
C.Straight line inclined at 45 with respect to x-axis
D.A circle
Q 26 :
Materials, whose resistivity at very low temperature plunges from a finite value to zero and remains there upon further cooling, are known as
A.
Ferromagnetic materials
B.
High-energy hard magnetic materials
C.
Superconductors
D.
Ferromagnetic materials
Q 27 :
In a superconductor, is the temperature is decreased below its critical temperature, the value of critical magnetic field will
A.
Increase
B.
Decrease
C.
Not change
D.
Increase or decrease depending on the superconductor material
Q 28 :
The imaginary part of dielectric constant determines
A.
Component of current which is in phase with the applied field
B.
Component of energy absorbed per m3
C.
Amount of applied field
D.
Component of voltage which is in phase with the applied field
Q 29 :
Direction:Each of the items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
A.Statement (I):Hard magnetic materials are used for making permanent magnets. Statement (II):
Hard magnetic materials have relatively small and narrow hysteresis loop.
B.Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
C.
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is NOT the correct explanation of Statement (I)
D.
Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
E.
Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
Q 30 :
In 8085A microprocessor, the operation performed by the instruction LHLD 2100 H is
A.(H) ← 21 H, (L) ←00
B.(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2101H)
C.(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2100H)
D.(H) ← 00H, (L) ←21H
Reasoning
Q 31 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 32 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 33 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 34 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 35 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 36 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 37 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 38 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 39 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 40 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 41 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 42 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 43 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 44 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 45 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 46 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 47 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 48 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 49 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 50 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
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Reasoning
Q 51 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 52 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 53 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 54 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A.P
B.Q
C.B
D.K
E.None of these
Q 55 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A.None
B.One
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than Four
Q 56 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 57 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 58 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 59 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 60 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Numerical Ability
Q 61 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A.2 hours
B.3 hours
C.4 hours
D.5 hours
Q 62 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A.69
B.96
C.78
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 63 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.10
E.None of these
Q 64 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
Q 65 :
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A.42
B.38
C.32
D.72
E.None of these
Q 66 :
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A.18
B.16
C.19
D.17
E.None of these
Q 67 :
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A.45
B.35
C.40
D.30
E.None of these
Q 68 :
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A.2024
B.2104
C.2004
D.2014
E.None of these
Q 69 :
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A.38
B.42
C.44
D.34
E.None of these
Q 70 :
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A.20
B.22
C.21
D.23
E.None of these
Q 71 :
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A.50
B.75
C.57
D.60
E.None of these
Q 72 :
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A.52
B.54
C.56
D.48
E.None of these
Q 73 :
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
Q 74 :
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A.118
B.95
C.110
D.100
E.None of these
Q 75 :
What is 234 time 167 ?
A.48768
B.41184
C.40581
D.39078
E.None of these
Q 76 :
The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
A.62
B.71
C.66
D.65
E.None of these
Q 77 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
Q 78 :
What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
A.47
B.38
C.28
D.25
E.None of these
Q 79 :
What is 147 times 329 ?
A.48069
B.48363
C.49021
D.48723
E.None of these
Q 80 :
The sum of 5 consecutive even number A, B, C, D and E is 410. What is the product of A and E ?
A.6708
B.6880
C.6552
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 81 :
The product of two consecutive odd number is 6399. What is the smaller number ?
A.83
B.79
C.81
D.77
E.None of these
Q 82 :
If the fractions are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
E.None of these
Q 83 :
What is 394 times 113 ?
A.44402
B.44632
C.44802
D.44522
E.None of these
Q 84 :
What is the least number to be added to 7700 to make it a perfect square ?
A.131
B.221
C.77
D.98
E.None of these
Q 85 :
What least number should be added to 8602 to make if a perfect square ?
A.234
B.47
C.128
D.36
E.None of these
Q 86 :
What is 846 times 323 ?
A.280872
B.276488
C.273258
D.272412
E.None of these
Q 87 :
The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 15 and the difference between the two digits of the two digit number is 3 . What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number ?
A.72
B.56
C.54
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 88 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, Which fraction will be the fifth ?
E.None of these
Q 89 :
The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 4623. What is the product of the next two consecutive odd numbers ?
A.4899
B.4891
C.5037
D.5183
E.None of these
Q 90 :
What is the least number to be added to 2600 to make it a perfect square ?
A.1
B.5
C.3
D.9
E.None of these
English
Q 91 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 92 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 93 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 94 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 95 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 96 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 97 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 98 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 99 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 100 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 101 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 102 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 103 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 104 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 105 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 106 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 107 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 108 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 109 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 110 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
Q 111 :
My father generously donated money to the church.
A.Money is generously being donated to te church by my father.
B.Money has been generously donated to the church by my father.
C.Money had been generously donated to the church by my father.
D.Money was generously donated to the church by my father.
Q 112 :
We will send you your laboratory reports as soon as they are ready
A.you would be sent your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.
B.Your laboratory reports will be sent to you as soon as they are ready.
C.You would be send your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.
D.Your laboratory reports should be sent to you as soon as they will be ready.
Q 113 :
I saw the master conducting the orchestra.
A.I saw that the orchestra was being conducted by the master.
B.I saw the orchestra being conducted by te master
C.The master was seen conducting the orchestra by me.
D.The master was conducting the orchestra and I saw that.
Q 114 :
The dog is being fed by us.
A.We fed the dog.
B.We have had been feeding the dog.
C.We are feeding the dog
D.We had been feeding the dog
Q 115 :
When did Rohit return my bike?
A.When was my bike returned by Rohit?
B.When was it that Rohit returned my bike?
C.Rohit returned my bike when?
D.When did my bike come back from Rohit?
Q 116 :
They are going to watch a drama tomorrow.
A.A drama is going to be watched by them tomorrow.
B.A drama will be watched by them tomorrow.
C.A drama will be watched by them tomorrow.
D.A drama was going to be watched by them tomorrow.
Tomorrow the drama is going to be watched by them.
Q 117 :
The event manager is making all the reservations.
A.All the reservations would be made by the event manager.
B.All the reservations are being made by the event manager.
C.All the reservations would have been made by the event manager.
D.All the reservations will have been made by the event manager.
Q 118 :
The Marathas surrendered their fort to the Mughals after the war.
A.After the war the Marathas had to surrender their fort to the Mughals.
B.The Mughals after the war took fort surrendered by the Marathas.
C.Their fort was surrendered by the Marathas to the Mughals after the war
D.the Marathas after the war surrendered their fort to the Mughals.
Q 119 :
Mother filled dark filtered coffee in the cup.
A.The cup was filled with dark filtered coffee by mother.
B.Mother filled in the cup coffee which was dark and filtered coffee.
C.The cup was being by mother with dark filtered coffee.
D.The filtered coffee which was dark was filled into the cup by mother.
Q 120 :
The most useful gift of my wedding was given to me by my aunt.
A.My aunt gave me the most useful gift of my wedding.
B.My aunt had given me the most useful gift of my wedding.
C.The gift which has been most useful has been given to me by my aunt.
D.My aunt has given me the most useful gift of my wedding.
General Awareness
Q 121 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 122 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 123 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 124 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 125 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 126 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 127 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 128 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 129 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 130 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 131 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 132 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 133 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 134 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 135 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 136 :
As of 2022, which country is the top steel producer in the world?
A.India
B.China
C.USA
D.Australia
Q 137 :
Indian Women’s Hockey Team won which position in the Asia Cup 2022?
A.First
B.Second
C.Third
D.Fourth
Q 138 :
Which country launched the Hwasong-12 mid-range ballistic missile ?
A.China
B.Japan
C.North Korea
D.South Korea
Q 139 :
Geological Survey of India (GSI) has approved to set up India’s first Geo-park in which state ?
A.Maharashtra
B.Goa
C.Madhya Pradesh
D.Telangana
Q 140 :
Which Institution released the ‘Death Penalty in India’s Report ?
A.National Crime Records Bureau
B.National Law University
C.NITI Aayog
D.Supreme Court
Q 141 :
Who among the following has won the Australian Open Women’s Singles title in January 2022 ?
A.Ashleigh Barty
B.Danielle Collins
C.Naomi Osaka
D.Serana Williams
Q 142 :
Which day, in January 2022, has been celebrated as world Leprosy Day ?
A.28 January
B.24 January
C.25 January
D.30 January
Q 143 :
Padma Shri Awardee Baba Iqbal Singh has passed away in January 2022. He was a …………..
A.Social Worker
B.Politician
C.Poet
D.Director
Q 144 :
To mark the culmination of the 73rd Republic Day celebrations, Beating the Retreat ceremony was held in New Delhi on ……. 2022 .
A.30 January
B.28 January
C.29 January
D.27 January
Q 145 :
Who among the followings has won the Australian Open Men’s Singles final in January 2022 ?
A.Rafael Nadal
B.Daniil Medvedev
C.Roger Federer
D.Novak Djokovic
Q 146 :
As per the report released by National Statistical Office in February 2022, how much percent India’s GDP has contracted in 2020-21?
A.6.6 Percent
B.26 Percent
C.6 Percent
D.16 Percent
Q 147 :
Which of the following companies has acquired 5 percent stake in Power Exchange of India in February 2022 ?
A.Power Grid Corporation India Ltd.
B.Reliance Power Ltd (ADAG)
C.Adani Green Energy Ltd
D.NTPC Vidyut Vyapar Nigam Ltd
Q 148 :
Which of the following banks and Patanjali Ayurved Limited (PAL) have launched co-branched cards in partnership with the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) ?
A.Punjab National Bank
B.State Bank of India
C.ICICI Bank
D.Kotak Mahindra Bank
Q 149 :
Which of the following banks has launched a dedicated centralized processing cell, ‘Surya Shakti Cell” to process all the loan applications for Solar Projects ?
A.Yes Bank
B.Punjab National Bank
C.Axis Bank
D.State Bank of India
Q 150 :
What is the Initial authorized share capital of National Land Monetisation Corporation, set up by government of India in February 2022 ?
th of 
th of a number and 
of 
th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
are arranged in ascending order of their values, Which fraction will be the fifth ?