Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
A
0.8 Ω
B
1.4 Ω
C
2 Ω
D
2.8 Ω
Question 2Single Answer
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
A
7.0 × 1012 m-3
B
7.0 × 10-12 m-3
C
7.0 × 10-12 m3
D
7.0 × 1012 m3
Question 3Single Answer
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
A
9.2 × 105/m3
B
2.77 × 103/m3
C
2.43 × 1019/m3
D
8.9 × 1012/m3
Question 4Single Answer
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
A
By the mobility of the carriers
B
Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
C
By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
D
By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
Question 5Single Answer
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
A
Parallel polarized
B
Perpendicularly polarized
C
Normally polarized
D
None of the above
Question 6Single Answer
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
A
Forward voltage increases up to the rating
B
Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
C
Forward voltage decreases below the rating
D
Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
Question 7Single Answer
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
A
Very difficult to form, machine or case
B
The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
C
The poor strength-to-weight ratio
D
The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
Question 8Single Answer
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
A
High stiffness and strengths
B
Low densities
C
Unusual electrical property
D
Non-ductile
Question 9Single Answer
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
A
Meissner effect
B
Josephson effect
C
Isotope effect
D
x quantization experiments
Question 10Single Answer
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
A
Phenol formaldehyde
B
Polytetrafluoroethylene
C
Polyvinyl chloride
D
Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
Question 11Single Answer
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is
A
Ferrite
B
Piezoelectric
C
Pyroelectric
D
Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Question 12Single Answer
The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called
A
Peak temperature
B
Neel temperatur
C
Critical temperature
D
Weiss temperature
Question 13Single Answer
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
A
Seeback effect
B
Thomson effect
C
Hall effect
D
Joule effect
Question 14Single Answer
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
A
Soft magnetic materials
B
Hard magnetic materials
C
High eddy current loss materials
D
High hysteresis loss materials
Question 15Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Both 1 and 2
B
Neither 1 nor 2
C
1 only
D
2 only
Question 16Single Answer
The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse process of
A
Radiative recombination
B
Auger recombination
C
Surface recombination
D
Shockley-Read-Hall recombination
Question 17Single Answer
Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of
A
GeO2
B
B2O3
C
P2O5x
D
Al2O3
Question 18Single Answer
If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage same, then the drift velocity will
A
Become twice
B
Become half
C
ecome four times
D
Remain unchanged
Question 19Single Answer
In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux.
Which of the above are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 20Single Answer
If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?
A
MCHTX
B
MXHTC
C
XMHCT
D
XMHTC
Question 21Single Answer
Consider the following statements associated with the basic electrostatic properties of ideal conductors:
1.The resultant field inside is zero.
2.The net charge density in the interior is zero.
3.Any net charges reside on the surface.
4.The surface is always equipotential.
5.The field just outside is zero.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
3, 4 and 5 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 22Single Answer
A semiconductor device made out of a material having very high temperature coefficient of resistance is
A
Transistor
B
Varistor
C
Thyristor
D
Thermistor
Question 23Single Answer
The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature because
A
The carrier concentration increases
B
The mobility of carrier increases
C
Both carrier concentration and mobility increases
D
The band gap decreases
Question 24Single Answer
Which of the following are associated with soft superconductors?
1.Silsbee’s rule
2.Meissner effect
3.Faraday rotation
4.Curie-Weiss law
A
2, 3 and 4
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 25Single Answer
In a two-channel oscilloscope operating in x-y mode, two in-phase 50 Hz sinusoidal waveforms of equal amplitude are fed to the two channels. What will be the resultant pattern on the screen?
A
An ellipse
B
A parabola
C
Straight line inclined at 45 with respect to x-axis
D
A circle
Question 26Single Answer
Materials, whose resistivity at very low temperature plunges from a finite value to zero and remains there upon further cooling, are known as
A
Ferromagnetic materials
B
High-energy hard magnetic materials
C
Superconductors
D
Ferromagnetic materials
Question 27Single Answer
In a superconductor, is the temperature is decreased below its critical temperature, the value of critical magnetic field will
A
Increase
B
Decrease
C
Not change
D
Increase or decrease depending on the superconductor material
Question 28Single Answer
The imaginary part of dielectric constant determines
A
Component of current which is in phase with the applied field
B
Component of energy absorbed per m3
C
Amount of applied field
D
Component of voltage which is in phase with the applied field
Question 29Single Answer
Direction:Each of the items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
A
Statement (I):Hard magnetic materials are used for making permanent magnets. Statement (II):
Hard magnetic materials have relatively small and narrow hysteresis loop.
B
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
C
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is NOT the correct explanation of Statement (I)
D
Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
E
Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
Question 30Single Answer
In 8085A microprocessor, the operation performed by the instruction LHLD 2100 H is
A
(H) ← 21 H, (L) ←00
B
(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2101H)
C
(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2100H)
D
(H) ← 00H, (L) ←21H
Question 31Single Answer
If the magnetic susceptibility of a specimen is small and positive, the specimen is
A
Diamagnetic
B
Paramagnetic
C
Ferromagnetic
D
Non-magnetic
Question 32Single Answer
Manganese ferrite is a 1 : 1 mixture of
A
Manganese nitride and iron oxide
B
Manganese oxide and iron nitride
C
Manganese nitride and iron sulphide
D
Manganese oxide and iron sulphide
Question 33Single Answer
When a ferromagnetic substance is magnetized, small changes in dimensions occur. Such a phenomenon is known as
A
Magnetic hysteresis
B
Magnetic expansion
C
Magnetostriction
D
Magneto-calorisation
Question 34Single Answer
In ferromagnetic , anti-ferromagnetic and ferromagnetic materials, the atomic thermal motions counteract the coupling forces between the adjacent atomic dipole moments, thereby causing
A
Some dipole misalignment regardless of whether an external field is present
B
Increase in dipole alignment regardless of whether an external field is present
C
No effect on dipole alignment
D
Atoms tend to de-randomize the direction of moments
Question 35Single Answer
The Hall effect voltage in intrinsic silicon
A
Is positive
B
Is zero
C
Is negative
D
Changes its sign based on application of magnetic field
Question 36Single Answer
Most outstanding property of indium antimonide is
A
A very wide range gap
B
High resistivity at room temperature
C
High carrier mobility
D
Very low conductivity at room temperature
Question 37Single Answer
Which of the following semiconducting compounds is used in photoconductive devices?
A
Caesium antimonide
B
Barium oxide
C
Lead sulphide
D
Zinc oxide
Question 38Single Answer
Consider the following transducers:
1.LVDT
2.Piezoelectric
3.Thermocouple
4.Photovoltaic cell
Which of the above are active transducers?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2 and 3 only
D
2, 3 and 4
Question 39Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding magnetic materials:
1.A diamagnetic material has no permanent dipole
2.Paramagnetic material has anti-parallel orientation of equal moments with neighboring dipoles
3.Ferrimagnetic material has anti parallel orientation of unequal moments between neighboring dipoles
4.Anti-ferromagnetic material has negligible interaction between neighboring dipoles
Which of these statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 4
D
1 and 3
Question 40Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding hysteresis loops of hard and soft magnetic materials:
1.Hysteresis loss of hard magnetic material will be less than that of soft material
2.Coercivity of hard materials will be greater than that of soft material
3.Retentivity of the two materials will always be equal
Which of these statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1 and 3 only
General Awareness
Question 41Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 42Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 43Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 44Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 45Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 46Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 47Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 48Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 49Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 50Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
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General Awareness
Question 51Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 52Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 53Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 54Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 55Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 56Single Answer
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Question 57Single Answer
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee
Question 58Single Answer
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A
1975
B
1981
C
1991
D
2000
Question 59Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A
1,2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4
Question 60Single Answer
When was first human development report of India issued
A
April 2001
B
March 2000
C
June 2002
D
April 2002
Question 61Single Answer
’National Health Authority’s Scan and Share Service’ was launched as part of which scheme ?
A
Swachh Bharat Mission
B
Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
C
Mission Indradhanush
D
Janani Suraksha Yojana
Question 62Single Answer
Kaziranga National Park is located in which state ?
A
West Bengal
B
Assam
C
Odisha
D
Sikkim
Question 63Single Answer
Which country launched the ‘National Green Fiscal Incentives Policy Framework’ ?
A
USA
B
UAE
C
Australia
D
Kenya
Question 64Single Answer
Which state was ranked the top performer in the ‘Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Index 2022’ ?
A
West Bengal
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Karnataka
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 65Single Answer
A mix of Fentanyl and animal tranquilizer called Xylazine, known as ‘Tranq Dope’ is causing concerns in which country ?
A
India
B
Sri Lanka
C
USA
D
China
Question 66Single Answer
49th Pre-Retirement Counselling Workshop held in which city ?
A
Dehradun
B
Delhi
C
Chandigarh
D
Lucknow
Question 67Single Answer
For which movie Sam Elliott won Outstanding Performance by a Male Actor in a Television Movie in Screen Actors Guild Awards 2023 ?
A
George & Tammy
B
The Whale
C
1883
D
Ozark
Question 68Single Answer
Where did Prime Minister Narendra Modi get the 13th instalment of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sammaan Yojana ?
A
Kalaburgi
B
Vijayawada
C
Palakkad
D
Belagavi
Question 69Single Answer
Unique Identification Authority of India works under which ministry ?
A
Ministry of Home Affairs
B
Ministry of Education
C
Ministry of Finance
D
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Question 70Single Answer
Molasses Control Amendment Bill 2023 was passed by which state ?
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Rajasthan
D
Odisha
Question 71Single Answer
Which city is the host of ‘International Bio resource Conclave & Ethno-pharmacology Congress 2023’ ?
A
Mumbai
B
Imphal
C
Kolkata
D
Bengaluru
Question 72Single Answer
Which city is the host of the W20 Inception Meeting under India’s G-20 Presidency ?
A
Chennai
B
Kochi
C
Aurangabad
D
Bhubaneswar
Question 73Single Answer
Which city has been renamed as ‘Chatrapati Sambhajinagar’ ?
A
Pune
B
Aurangabad
C
Nashik
D
Ahmed Nagar
Question 74Single Answer
Which institution launched India’s first municipal bond index ?
A
RBI
B
SEBI
C
BSE
D
NSE
Question 75Single Answer
Which is the first platform to launch ‘UPI LITE payments’ ?
A
Google Pay
B
Mi Pay
C
Paytm Payments Bank
D
Airtel Payments Bank
Question 76Single Answer
The G 20 Foreign Ministers meeting will be held in which city from 1st to 2nd March 2023 ?
A
Surat
B
Imphal
C
Agra
D
New Delhi
Question 77Single Answer
Which of the following successfully conducted the flight acceptance hot test of the CE-20 cryogenic engine, in February 2023 ?
A
ISRO
B
NASA
C
JAXA
D
ESA
Question 78Single Answer
Which city will host the 2nd of 4 B20 India events scheduled in the northeast from 1-3 March 2023 ?
A
Shillong
B
Kohima
C
Aizawl
D
Itanagar
Question 79Single Answer
GSM Association (GSMA) has conferred Government Leadership Award 2023 to which country for implementing best practices in telecom policy and regulation ?
A
USA
B
India
C
Japan
D
Australia
Question 80Single Answer
What is the theme of Zero Discrimination Day 2023 ?
A
Remove laws that harm, create laws that empower
B
End Inequalities
C
Act to change laws that Discriminate
D
Save lives: Decriminalise
English Language
Question 81Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 82Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 83Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 84Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 85Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 86Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 87Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 88Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 89Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 90Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 91Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 92Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 93Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 94Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 95Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 96Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 97Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 98Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 99Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 100Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Question 101Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error
Question 102Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error
Question 103Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error
Question 104Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna
Question 105Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error
Question 106Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My neighbor along with his children
B
is going tonight to see a Taj Mahal
C
At Agra
D
No error
Question 107Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Kabir an Rahim are great poets
B
but the former is
C
greater than latter
D
No error
Question 108Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He has abandoned
B
the criminal activities
C
after returning from jail
D
No error
Question 109Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
We must have
B
sympathy for
C
needy and the poor
D
No error
Question 110Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Chinese is a very
B
difficult language to understand for those
C
who have never been to China
D
No error
Question 111Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The old women placed
B
kettle on fire
C
come back to the bedroom
D
No error
Question 112Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The singing is both
B
my vocation and avocation because it is a
C
source of joy and bread to me
D
No error
Question 113Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Snake we saw was
B
very deadly thought
C
it left the kitchen quietly
D
No error
Question 114Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Being M.A. only he
B
could not be appointed
C
to the post of a lecturer
D
No error
Question 115Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Our first trip was the most interesting one
B
but our second one
C
was even more interesting
D
No error
Question 116Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mahatma Gandhi did not solve
B
all the problems of future
C
but he did solve problems of
D
No error
Question 117Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Having finished his breakfast
B
he started working on the problem
C
that had been awaiting disposal for the long time
D
No error
Question 118Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The new railway line will
B
greatly improve transport and communication
C
in eastern part of the country
D
No error
Question 119Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It being rainy day most of
B
the people out on the street
C
were carrying umbrellas
D
No error
Question 120Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
More you
B
think of it
C
the worse it becomes
D
No error
Logical Reasoning
Question 121Single Answer
Passage :
Direction:Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A
To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B
To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C
To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D
To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E
None of these
Question 122Single Answer
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy
Question 123Single Answer
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 124Single Answer
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger
Question 125Single Answer
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 126Single Answer
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these
Question 128Single Answer
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these
Question 129Single Answer
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice
Question 130Single Answer
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these
Question 131Single Answer
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A
20
B
14
C
56
D
26
E
None of these
Question 132Single Answer
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A
GIJK
B
DFGH
C
CEFG
D
ABCD
E
None of these
Question 133Single Answer
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A
71
B
73
C
77
D
67
E
None of these
Question 134Single Answer
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A
UMRSME
B
EIWNTR
C
PIGRSN
D
LCUOD
E
None of these
Question 135Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A
4
B
2
C
6
D
8
E
5
Question 136Single Answer
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A
UW483
B
ZA26
C
TU420
D
ST380
E
None of these
Question 137Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A
U
B
T
C
A
D
G
E
None of these
Question 138Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A
E
B
G
C
F
D
B
E
None of these
Question 139Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A
M
B
K
C
H
D
J
E
None of these
Question 140Single Answer
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
E
None of these
Question 141Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A
P
B
K
C
J
D
I
E
None of these
Question 142Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A
8
B
1
C
9
D
2
E
None of these
Question 143Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
7
E
None of these
Question 144Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A
A
B
G
C
H
D
B
E
None of these
Question 145Single Answer
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A
S 3 H *
B
T#H*
C
T*#H
D
S*H5
E
SH*1
Question 146Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?9 7 5 3 1 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5
A
1
B
8
C
3
D
5
E
None of these
Question 147Single Answer
What should come next in the place of question mark(?) in the following letter sequence?AZB, CYD, EXF,?,IVJ, KUL
A
FYH
B
GWG
C
HWH
D
GUF
E
None of these
Question 148Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
215
B
143
C
247
D
91
E
65
Question 149Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
78
B
48
C
72
D
54
E
42
Question 150Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
45
B
51
C
39
D
93
E
85
Question 151Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
39
B
27
C
48
D
42
E
24
Question 152Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
187
B
323
C
119
D
221
E
289
Question 153Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
35
B
80
C
45
D
60
E
75
Question 154Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
31
B
39
C
47
D
41
E
43
Question 155Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
27
B
64
C
125
D
216
E
384
Question 156Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
25
B
64
C
189
D
225
E
121
Question 157Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
23
B
29
C
37
D
39
E
31
Question 158Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
115
B
145
C
95
D
155
E
75
Question 159Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
126
B
217
C
345
D
513
E
730
Question 160Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
144
B
169
C
256
D
288
E
324
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 161Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 162Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 163Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 164Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 165Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 166Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 167Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 168Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 169Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 170Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 171Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 172Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 173Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 174Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 175Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 176Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 177Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 178Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 179Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 180Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 181Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 182Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 183Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 184Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 185Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 186Single Answer
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None
Question 187Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213
Question 188Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 189Single Answer
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32
Question 190Single Answer
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Question 191Single Answer
Which of the following is composite ?
A
17
B
19
C
21
D
23
Question 192Single Answer
What is √0.0009 ?
A
0.003
B
0.03
C
0.3
D
0.09
Question 193Single Answer
What is √1156 ?
A
32
B
34
C
36
D
38
Question 194Single Answer
What is √2025 ?
A
35
B
40
C
45
D
50
Question 195Single Answer
What is (51^2) ?
A
2601
B
2501
C
2551
D
2651
Question 196Single Answer
7 8 18 57 ?
A
244
B
174
C
186
D
none of these
Question 197Single Answer
Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number. What is my Present age ?
A
25 years
B
27 years
C
26 years
D
24 years
Question 198Single Answer
If a + b = 5, a2 + b2 = 13, the value of a – b (where a > b) is