निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
Question 11Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
उन्नति
B
उनति
C
उन्ती
D
उनती
Question 12Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
अनुशहरण
B
अनोसरण
C
अनुसरन
D
अनुसरण
Question 13Single Answer
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A
आदिकाल
B
रीतिकाल
C
भक्तिकाल
D
आधुनिक काल
Question 14Single Answer
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A
प्राकृत
B
संस्कृत
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी
Question 15Single Answer
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A
बी. जी. खरे
B
राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C
प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D
इंशाअल्ला खा
Question 16Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 17Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 18Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 19Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 20Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 21Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 22Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 23Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 24Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 25Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 26Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 27Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 28Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 29Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 30Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
General Studies
Question 31Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 32Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 33Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 34Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 35Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 36Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 37Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 38Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 39Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 40Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 41Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 42Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 43Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 44Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 45Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 46Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 47Single Answer
The earlist manuscripts were written on
A
palm leaves
B
paper
C
wood
D
stones
Question 48Single Answer
What does BC and AD stands for?
A
Anno Domini and Before Common
B
Before Christ and Anno Domini
C
Anno Domini and Before Christ
D
None of the above
Question 49Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 50Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
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General Studies
Question 51Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 52Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 53Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 54Single Answer
The grain size (USDA) of silt in soil ranges between :
A
0.2 mm to 0.5 mm
B
0.5 mm to 0.1 mm
C
0.1 mm to 0.05 mm
D
0.05 mm to 0.002 mm
Question 55Single Answer
What will be BOD, for a wastewater sample when 21 ml of sample is diluted to 300 ml in BOD bottle to determine dissolved oxygen .
[Given: Initial DO, = 10 mg/l; Five days later DO5 = 5 mg/l]
A
~ 5 mg/l
B
~ 25 mg/l
C
~ 71.4 mg/l
D
~75 mg/l
Question 56Single Answer
Who was the real founder of Turk rule in Bihar ?
A
Ibn Bakhtiyar Khilji
B
Ibrahim
C
Dariya Khan Noohani
D
Malik Husamuddin
E
None of the above / More than one of the above
Question 57Single Answer
Who was the first Indian Governor of Bihar ?
A
Dr. Shri krishna Singh
B
Brij Kishor Prasad
C
B.P. Mandal
D
Satyendra Prasanna Sinha
E
None of the above/More than one of the above
Question 58Single Answer
In which year the Chauri Revolt of Bihar took place ?
A
1842
B
1798
C
1784
D
1832
E
None of the above / More than one of the above
Question 59Single Answer
In which year was Orissa separated from Bihar ?
A
1936
B
1956
C
2000
D
1912
E
None of the above/ More than one of the above
Question 60Single Answer
During which movement 'Azad Dasta' was active in Bihar ?
A
Non-Cooperation Movement
B
Civil Disobedience Movement
C
Quit India Movement
D
Champaran Satyagraha
E
None of the above / More than one of the above
Question 61Single Answer
Who established a branch of Anushilan Samiti in Patna in 1913 AD ?
A
Ramanada Sinha
B
Satish Jha
C
Sachindra Nath Sanyal
D
Bipin Jha
E
None of the above / More than one of the above
Question 62Single Answer
In which year was Bihar divided to create Jharkhand ?
A
2000
B
2001
C
2004
D
2005
E
None of the above More than one of the above
Question 63Single Answer
Who invited Gandhiji to come Champaran ?
A
Raj Kumar Shukla
B
Rajendra Prasad
C
Jayaprakash Narayan
D
Krishna Sahay
E
None of the above / More than one of the above
Question 64Single Answer
Who had formed the Bihar Socialist Party in 1931 AD ?
A
Phulan Chand Tiwari and Rajendra Prasad
B
Phulan Prasad Varma and Jayaprakash Narayan
C
Raj Kumar Shukla and Swami Agnivesh
D
Swami Sahajananda and Swami Yogananda
E
None of the above More than one of the above
Question 65Single Answer
Who formed the 'Bihar Socialist Party' in 1931 ?
A
Phulan Prasad Varma
B
Swami Yoganand
C
Narhari Parikh
D
Dadabhai Naoroji
E
None of the above / More than one of the above
Question 66Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 67Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 68Single Answer
Which is the longest river in India?
A
Yamuna
B
Ganges
C
Brahmaputra
D
Godavari
Question 69Single Answer
What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?
A
New planet in solar system
B
Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C
Black hole merger
D
Exoplanet with life signs
Question 70Single Answer
On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become India’s longest-serving head of government?
A
15 March
B
20 March
C
22 March
D
25 March
Home Science
Question 71Single Answer
This is not the normal constituent of jelly:
A
Pectin
B
Acid
C
Sugar
D
Fruit pulp
Question 72Single Answer
Blanching is a method of preservation of foods which is:
A
removal of microorganisms from the food
B
killing the microorganisms present in food
C
inactivation of food enzymes
D
delay of purely chemical reaction
Question 73Single Answer
RDA of Vitamin A for 10 year old boy as per ICMR, 2010 is ……. .
A
400 g retinol
B
350 g retinol
C
600 g retinol
D
950 g retinol
Question 74Single Answer
Crystallization of sugar occurs in:
A
Chenna Murki
B
Peanut Brittle
C
Guava Jelly
D
Lemon Squash
Question 75Single Answer
Protein urea is a major symptom in the following diseases:
A
Typhoid
B
Renal disease
C
Atherosclerosis
D
Ulcers
Question 76Single Answer
Following is not a method of dietary survey:
A
Food frequency questionnaire
B
24 hours recall
C
BMI
D
Food weighment
Question 77Single Answer
Following is not a method of diet survey:
A
Food frequency questionnaire
B
24 hrs recall method
C
Food weighment
D
BMI
Question 78Single Answer
Normal Blood Pressure is:
A
SBP < 210 mm Hg and DBP < 80 mm Hg
B
SBP < 120 mm Hg and DBP < 90 mm Hg
C
SBP < 80 mm Hg and DBP < 120 mm Hg
D
SBP < 130 mm Hg and DBP < 80 mm Hg
Question 79Single Answer
An Adult heavy worker male requires.........calories per day ?
A
2000
B
2875
C
3800
D
1900
Question 80Single Answer
Which of the following is not a method of Nutritional Status Assessment by anthropometry?
A
MUAC
B
Blood Pressure
C
Height
D
Waist Circumference
Question 81Single Answer
BARS is a tool used for:
A
Checking quality of food
B
Designing layout plan
C
Performance Appraisal
D
Feedback requirement communication
Question 82Single Answer
Daily Zinc requirement of an adult man is:
A
12 mg
B
8 mg
C
350 mg
D
600 mg
Question 83Single Answer
Full form of FSSAI is:
A
Food Security and Standards Association of India
B
Food Security and Safety Authority of India
C
Food Safety and Standards Association of India
D
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
Question 84Single Answer
The conversions factor for estimating crude protein content of food from its nitrogen content is:
A
6.25
B
16.0
C
5.5
D
4.0
Question 85Single Answer
The Emulsifier used in mayonnaise is:
A
Myoglobin
B
ellulose
C
Soya protein
D
Lecithin
Question 86Single Answer
Following food is a rich source of retinol:
A
Milk
B
Carrot
C
Spinach
D
Soyabean
Question 87Single Answer
Anaemia caused by Vitamin B-12 deficiency is:
A
Megaloblastic
B
Pernicious
C
Sickle cell
D
All the above
Question 88Single Answer
Test to assess PEM in children in early stages is by:
A
Biochemical tests
B
Anthropometry
C
Pathological tests
D
None of the above
Question 89Single Answer
Normal BMI for adult Asians as suggested by WHO is
A
18-23 kg/m2
B
19-24 kg/m2
C
20-25 kg/m2
D
21-26 kg/m
Question 90Single Answer
Generally visually impaired persons have visual acuity of:
A
2/200
B
20/100
C
20/70
D
20/200
Question 91Single Answer
Haemoglobin level below which a pregnant woman is considered anaemic:
A
12 g/dl of blood
B
11 g/dl of blood
C
11.5 g/dl of blood
D
10 g/dl of blood
Question 92Single Answer
The degree of unsaturation in fats is estimated by which method?
A
Acid value
B
Saponification
C
Benedict's method
D
Iodine value
Question 93Single Answer
The pigment in beetroot is:
A
Lycopene
B
Carotene
C
Betalin
D
Anthocyanins
Question 94Single Answer
An emulsifier used in food is:
A
Sorbitol
B
Aspartane
C
Lecithin
D
Saccharine
Question 95Single Answer
An inhibitor found in pulse is:
A
Trypsin
B
Pepsin
C
Biotin
D
Avadin
Question 96Single Answer
An enzyme activitated during sprouting:
A
Papain
B
Bromolein
C
Amylase
D
Renin
Question 97Single Answer
Absorption of carotene requires the following nutrients in the diet.
A
Fat
B
Protein
C
Carbohydrate
D
Vitamin D
Question 98Single Answer
Recommended dietary allowances for 0-6 months old infant for protein is:
A
1 g/kg body weight
B
1.5 g/kg body weight
C
1.65 g/kg body weight
D
2.05 g/kg body weight
Question 99Single Answer
The following is not used as an emulsifier:
A
Methyl Cellulose
B
Butylated Hydroxy Toluene
C
Calcium Steamyl Lactate
D
Hydroxy Propyl Cellulose
Question 100Single Answer
Loss of thiamine during cooking occurs due to:
A
Cutting of vegetables
B
Addition of sodium bicarbonate
C
Exposure to sun light
D
Addition of Tamrind during preparation
Question 101Single Answer
The protective covering on the egg shell is called:
A
Pericarp
B
Rennin
C
Cuticle
D
Epimyosin
Question 102Single Answer
The active component in clove is:
A
Allicin
B
Eugenol
C
Currcumin
D
Theaflavin
Question 103Single Answer
The S.N.F. of standard milk should be as follows:
A
8.5%
B
7.2%
C
6.5%
D
5.2%
Question 104Single Answer
The period of human embryo is:
A
2-4 weeks
B
1-8 weeks
C
2-8 weeks
D
2-6 weeks
Question 105Single Answer
Level of Intelligent Quotient of educable mentally challenged child is:
A
0-25
B
50-75
C
25-50
D
75-100
Question 106Single Answer
Conversation is a:
A
Listening skill
B
Intellectual skill
C
Expressive skill
D
Receptive skill
Question 107Single Answer
Degree of polymerization for polyester ranges between:
A
50-70
B
90-115
C
115-140
D
140-165
Question 108Single Answer
Which of the following can finish hundreds of garments at one time by a single operator?
A
Carousel jeans finisher
B
Steam dolly
C
Tunnel dolly
D
Suction counter table
Question 109Single Answer
When was the POSHAN abhiyaan launched ?
A
March 8, 2018
B
January 26, 2018
C
May 1, 2018
D
April 30, 2018
Question 110Single Answer
What are Sequestrates ?
A
They are added to keep the food stable
B
Form a complex ion with metals like copper, iron etc
C
Added for colour
D
They keep the food oxidized
Question 111Single Answer
Vitamin D3 is also known as :
A
Retinol
B
Cholecalciferol
C
Tocopherol
D
Ergocalciferol
Question 112Single Answer
When the food is directly given in the veins, it is called ?
A
Parenteral nutrition
B
Enteral nutrition
C
Nasogastric nutrition
D
Saline nutrition
Question 113Single Answer
The time and temperature used for the pasteurisation of milk is :
A
72° C/15 min
B
72° C/15 sec
C
72° C/30 min
D
72° C/30 sec
Question 114Single Answer
In order to pursue the research, which of the following is pre - required ?
A
Developing a research design
B
Formulating a research question
C
Deciding about the data analysis procedure
D
Formulating a research hypothesis
Question 115Single Answer
Any two immiscible liquid when mixed together form an :
A
Aerosol
B
Emulsion
C
Gel
D
Sol
Question 116Single Answer
Symptoms of thiamine deficiency are :
(a) Peripheral neuropathy
(b) Photophobia
(c) Cardiomegaly
(d) Koilonychias
(e) Tachycardia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (d) only
B
(c), (d) and (e) only
C
(a), (c) and (e) only
D
(b), (d) and (e) only
Question 117Single Answer
Proteins present in milk are :
(a) Lactalbumins
(b) Lacto globulins
(c) Casein
(d) Ovalbumin
(e) Myosin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(a), (c) and (e) only
C
(b), (c) and (d) only
D
(c), (d) and (e) only
Question 118Single Answer
Identify the names of essential fatty acids :
(a) Linoleic
(b) Butyric
(c) Linoleic
(d) Meristic
(e) Arachidonic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (c) and (d) only
B
(c), (d) and (e) only
C
(a), (c) and (e) only
D
(b), (d) and (e) only
Question 119Single Answer
Major symptoms of diabetes are :
(a) Polyuria
(b) Glossitis
(c) Acidosis
(d) Techycardia
(e) Nocturia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (d) only
B
(a), (c) and (e) only
C
(a), (b) and (e) only
D
(a), (c) and (d) only
Question 120Single Answer
Match the food additives given in List - I with their functions in List - II .
List - 1 List - II
(Food additives) (Functions)
(a) Yeast (i) Emulsifier
(b) Soy lecithin (ii) Antioxidant
(c) Butyrate hydroxyl toluene (iii) Bleaching Agent
(d) Benzoyl peroxide (iv) Preservative
(e) Calcium sorbet (v) Leavening
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (v)
B
(v) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
C
(v) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D
(v) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Question 121Single Answer
Match biochemical tests in List - I with nutritional deficiency disease in List - II .
List - I List - II
(Biochemical test) (Nutritional deficiency disease)
(a) Serum albumin (i) Vitamin A deficiency
(b) Haemoglobin (ii) Goitre
(c) Urinary iodine (iii) Kwashiorkor
(d) Serum retinol (iv) Anaemia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
B
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
C
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Question 122Single Answer
Match vitamins given in List - I with their functions in List - II .
List - I List - II
(Vitamins) (Functions)
(a) Vitamin B12 (i) Protection of PUFA from oxidative damage
(b) Vitamin A (ii) Role in carbohydrate metabolism
(c) Vitamin E (iii) Role in formation of normal RBC
(d) Thiamine (iv) Integrity of epithelial tissues
Choose the correct given below: answer from the options
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
B
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
C
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
D
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Question 123Single Answer
Arrange the stages of new food product development :
(a) Idea generation
(b) Product development
(c) Screening
(d) Commercialization
(e) Concept development
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (c), (d), (b), (e)
B
(a), (c), (b), (d), (e)
C
(a), (c), (e), (b), (d)
D
(a), (b), (e), (c), (d)
Question 124Single Answer
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : Calcium requirements during lactation are higher than during pregnancy .
Reason (R) : As lactating women lose bone mass during breast feeding because less oestrogen hormone is produced .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 125Single Answer
By mistake you have over blued your clothes. Which of the following reagents you would use to rectify the fault ?
A
Acetic acid
B
Borax
C
Sodium chloride
D
Oxalic acid
Question 126Single Answer
Which of the following apparel production systems is based on teamwork and shared responsibility for quantity and quality of output ?
A
Progressive bundle system
B
Unit production system
C
Modular production system
D
Customized production system
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following is a knit fabric that uses fine worsted yarns ?
A
Inlay
B
Zephyr
C
Intarsia
D
Shaker
Question 128Single Answer
For making a dress with kasuti embroidery, which of the following motifs will you use ?
A
Gopuram
B
Tulsi Vrindavan
C
Nandi
D
Chokla
Question 129Single Answer
Reactive dyes form the following bonds with the fiber :
A
Ionic
B
Hydrogen
C
Van - der - Waals forces
D
Covalent
Question 130Single Answer
Which of the following is not an advantage of plasma technology ?
A
Increases abrasion resistance
B
Increases dyeing speed
C
Assists bio - scouring
D
Gives liquid repellency
Question 131Single Answer
Shifting of darts from one place to other changes the :
(a) Fit of the garment
(b) Amount of dart control
(c) Shape of the pattern
(d) Design of the garment
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) and (b) only
B
(b) and (c) only
C
(c) and (d) only
D
(a) and (d) only
Question 132Single Answer
For making a dress for yourself in a plain - woven fabric, which of the following fabrics will you use ?
(a) Percale
(b) Flannel
(c) Burlap
(d) Chino
(e) Moleskin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (c) only
B
(b), (c), (d) only
C
(c), (d), (e) only
D
(a), (b), (d) only
Question 133Single Answer
Which of the following factors favour fashion ?
(a) Advertising
(b) Transportation and communication
(c) Political Instability
(d) Sumptuary laws
(e) An economy of abundance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (c) only
B
(b), (c), (d) only
C
(c), (d), (e) only
D
(a), (b), (e) only
Question 134Single Answer
Which of the following are examples of condensation polymer ?
(a) Acrylic
(b) Mod acrylic
(c) Polyester
(d) Nylon
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) only
B
(b), (c) only
C
(c), (d) only
D
(a), (d) only
Question 135Single Answer
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : Overweight people look heavier in stiff fabrics .
Reason (R) : These fabrics stand away from the body creating an illusion of additional thickness .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
C
(A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
D
(A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
Question 136Single Answer
Match the hip types given in List - I with their description given in List - II .
List - I List - II
(Figure Types) (Description)
(a) Ideal Type (i) Curves diagonally outwards from waist to hip
(b) Square Shaped (ii) Curves outward abruptly from waist and rounds sharply inwards
(c) Heart Shaped (iii) Curves outward gradually from waist and round over hip bone
(d) Diamond Shaped (iv) Curves outward abruptly from waist and Falls straight to hips
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
B
(i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
C
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
D
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Question 137Single Answer
Match the colour problems given in List - I with their description given in List - II .
List - I List - II
(Colour Problems) (Description)
(a) Frosting (i) Weak areas in a fabric resulting from chemical damage
(b) Tendering (ii) Horizontal off shade band across fabric
(c) Barre' (iii) Same colour appears different under different light sources
(d) Metamerism (iv) Change of colour due to localized abrasive wear
(v) Unintentional shade variation within a piece of fabric
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
B
(i) (v) (ii) (iii)
C
(iii) (ii) (i) (v)
D
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Question 138Single Answer
Give the correct sequence of cotton spinning system .
(a) Drawing
(b) Carding
(c) Blending
(d) Roving
(e) Spinning
(f) Picking
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (d), (e), (c), (f)
B
(c), (a), (d), (b), (f), (e)
C
(c), (f), (b), (a), (d), (e)
D
(c), (a), (b), (d), (f), (e)
Question 139Single Answer
Give the correct sequence of converting the waist dart of the bodice into two French darts .
(a) Trace the front bodice
(b) Locate the position and draw the lines for the number of French darts required
(c) Cut on the French dart lines
(d) Close the waist dart
(e) Shorten the darts and connect the end of the dart lines to the apex
(f) Draw the line for the French dart
(g) Distribute the dart control equally
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (d), (e), (g), (c), (f)
B
(c), (a), (d), (b), (f), (g), (e)
C
(b), (a), (d), (e), (f), (g), (c)
D
(a), (f), (b), (e), (c), (d), (g)
Question 140Single Answer
A comorbid means :
A
a disorder or condition that may co-occur with another disorder or condition
B
absence of diseases or medical conditions
C
a cognitive impairment can shorten lifespan
D
a condition can appear independently and have a detrimental effect on performance
Question 141Single Answer
A fifth - grade student with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) attends a general education class full time with support from a special education teacher. Which of the following would be the most effective way for the Individualized Education Program (IEP) team to integrate social skills training into the general academic curriculum for this student ?
A
Incorporate individual counselling services into the student's IEP
B
Establish clear expectations for appropriate classroom behaviour
C
Assign the student a one - on - one aide to model appropriate behaviour
D
Include peer - to - peer supports in the general education class as part of the student's IEP.
Question 142Single Answer
Ethological theory of attachment was proposed by :
A
Jean Piaget
B
Pavlov
C
Erik Erikson
D
Bowl by
Question 143Single Answer
Special education teacher is participating in a three - year re - evaluation of a high school student with an intellectual disability. As part of an assessment, the teacher accompanies the student to a store and asks the student to locate and purchase an item. This is an example of which of the following types of assessments ?
A
Ecological
B
Portfolio
C
Authentic
D
Interview
Question 144Single Answer
One of the reasons for using drugs by the Adolescents is :
A
Pleasurable feelings
B
Thrill of doing something illegal
C
Parental Pressure
D
Escape from everyday life
Question 145Single Answer
Compared to younger adults, middle aged adults who lose their jobs :
A
Tend to stay unemployed longer and have fewer opportunities for gratifying work as they age
B
Tend to find jobs quickly because of their skills but find it difficult to stay employed
C
Find it difficult to get new jobs, but once employed have a stable work history
D
Are less likely to become depressed, which makes it easier for them to obtain employment
Question 146Single Answer
What is the focus of younger pre - schoolers and older pre - schoolers respectively when they indulge in play ?
A
Shared activities; trust and shared interest
B
Trust and shared interest; Shared activities
C
Parallel play, Solitary play
D
Communicative play, nonverbal play
Question 147Single Answer
One of the reading readiness skills is the development of comprehension that includes
(a) Ability to arrange a picture story with events in the correct sequence
(b) Ability to tell some personal experience
(c) Ability to write his or her name
(d) Ability to answer questions about a story which has been read and tell it in simple words
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (c) and (d) only
B
(b), (c) and (d) only
C
(a), (b) and (d) only
D
(b), (c) and (a) only
Question 148Single Answer
Egocentric thoughts can involve .
(a) The lack of awareness that others see things from a different physical perspective
(b) The inability to present their own perspectives to others
(c) Failure to realize that others may hold thoughts, feelings, and points of view that differ from theirs
(d) Being intentionally selfish and inconsiderate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :