Latest Bihar Higher Secondary School Teacher Economics Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English and Hindi Language, General Studies - Primary Maths, Reasoning, General Awareness, General Science, Social Studies, Geography, EVS, Indian National Movement, Economics
Question Bank Bihar Higher Secondary School Teacher Economics Exam - English
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
Question 11Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
उन्नति
B
उनति
C
उन्ती
D
उनती
Question 12Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
अनुशहरण
B
अनोसरण
C
अनुसरन
D
अनुसरण
Question 13Single Answer
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A
आदिकाल
B
रीतिकाल
C
भक्तिकाल
D
आधुनिक काल
Question 14Single Answer
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A
प्राकृत
B
संस्कृत
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी
Question 15Single Answer
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A
बी. जी. खरे
B
राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C
प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D
इंशाअल्ला खा
Question 16Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 17Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 18Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 19Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 20Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 21Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 22Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 23Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 24Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 25Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 26Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To sleep with the fishes
A
Always be in a dream world
B
To make absurd excuses
C
To sleep peacefully
D
To be dead
Question 27Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
A
To exterminate
B
To expurgate
C
To intricate
D
To extricate
Question 28Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
A
Irascible
B
Crucible
C
Miscible
D
Risible
Question 29Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Shooting fish in a barrel
A
To do random acts of stupidity
B
To behave in a cruel manner
C
Ridiculously easy
D
To escape through a narrow opening
Question 30Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?
A
was bounded by
B
was limitless
C
was limited
D
was bound to
General Studies - Primary Maths, Reasoning, General Awareness, General Science, Social Studies, Geography, EVS, Indian National Movement
Question 31Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 32Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 33Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 34Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 35Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 36Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 37Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 38Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 39Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 40Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 41Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 42Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 43Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 44Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 45Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 46Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 47Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 48Single Answer
Choose the industrial cities that grew rapidly in Britain in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries:
A
Leeds and Manchester
B
Bristol and Manchester
C
Carlisle and Leeds
D
Chester and Leeds
Question 49Single Answer
Which were the three Presidency cities of Colonial India in late eighteenth century?
A
Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
B
Calcutta, Bombay and Surat
C
Bombay, Madras and Delhi
D
None of these
Question 50Single Answer
What is Urbanization?
A
Migration of population from rural to urban area
B
Migration of people from urban to rural
C
Migration of people from one country to another
D
Migration of population from one state to another one
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General Studies - Primary Maths, Reasoning, General Awareness, General Science, Social Studies, Geography, EVS, Indian National Movement
Question 51Single Answer
What is de urbanization in the colonial context?
A
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports emerged due to emergence of new cities.
B
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports declined due to emergence of new cities.
C
a and b both
D
None of these
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following Indian cities which were de-urbanized during the nineteenth century?
i. Machlipatnam
ii. Surat
iii. Seringapatam
iv. Bombay
A
i and ii
B
i, iv and ii
C
i, ii and iii
D
i, ii, iii and iv
Question 53Single Answer
Bihar is located in which part of India?
A
Western India
B
Northern India
C
Eastern India
D
Southern India
Question 54Single Answer
What is the capital of Bihar?
A
Gaya
B
Bhagalpur
C
Patna
D
Muzaffarpur
Question 55Single Answer
In which year was Bihar formed as a separate province?
A
1905
B
1947
C
1936
D
1912
Question 56Single Answer
Bihar was separated from which state in 1912?
A
Odisha
B
Bengal Presidency
C
Uttar Pradesh
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 57Single Answer
Which country lies to the north of Bihar?
A
Nepal
B
China
C
Bhutan
D
Bangladesh
Question 58Single Answer
Environmental Science is best defined as?
A
Study of interaction between physical, chemical and biological components of environment
B
Study of only plants
C
Study of only atmosphere
D
Study of only animals
Question 59Single Answer
The scope of Environmental Science includes?
A
Interdisciplinary study of environment and its components
B
Only chemistry
C
Only geology
D
Only physics
Question 60Single Answer
The main principle of Environmental Science is?
A
Isolation of ecosystem
B
Interdependence of living and non-living components
C
Human dominance over nature
D
Independent functioning of species
Question 61Single Answer
Environment includes?
A
Only biotic factors
B
Only abiotic factors
C
Only humans
D
Both biotic and abiotic factors
Question 62Single Answer
Which is NOT a component of environment?
A
Technology
B
Hydrosphere
C
Lithosphere
D
Atmosphere
Question 63Single Answer
Which of the following is a factor of 24?
A
9
B
5
C
7
D
2
Question 64Single Answer
Which statement is correct about 246?
A
A decimal number
B
An odd number
C
An even number
D
A fraction
Question 65Single Answer
Which of the following is a prime number?
A
41
B
123
C
42
D
82
Question 66Single Answer
What is the place value of digit 8 in 8723?
A
800
B
8000
C
80
D
8
Question 67Single Answer
What is the smallest whole number that must be added to 83 to make it divisible by 5?
A
3
B
2
C
4
D
0
Question 68Single Answer
What is the place value of digit 5 in 55?
A
50
B
42
C
5
D
82
Question 69Single Answer
Which day is observed on 1 October every year as declared by the United Nations?
A
World Teachers’ Day
B
International Day of Non-Violence
C
World Food Day
D
International Day of Older Persons
Question 70Single Answer
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) completed 100 years of its establishment on which date in 2026?
A
26 January 2026
B
1 October 2026
C
15 August 2026
D
26 November 2026
Economics
Question 71Single Answer
What is the primary source of economic data?
A
Census
B
Survey conducted by researcher
C
Government reports
D
Journals
Question 72Single Answer
Secondary data refers to?
A
Data that is unpublished
B
Data collected by researcher directly
C
Raw experimental data only
D
Data collected by someone else for another purpose
Question 73Single Answer
Which organisation conducts National Sample Surveys in India?
A
Census Bureau
B
NITI Aayog
C
RBI
D
NSO (National Sample Survey Organisation)
Question 74Single Answer
Primary data is usually collected through?
A
Annual reports
B
Newspapers
C
Questionnaire, Interview, Observation
D
Government publications
Question 75Single Answer
Which of the following is a method of data collection?
A
Memorization
B
Sampling
C
Lecture
D
Copying books
Question 76Single Answer
Census of India is an example of?
A
Experimental data
B
Primary data
C
Secondary data
D
Simulated data
Question 77Single Answer
Which method is used when data is collected from a subset of population?
A
Observation
B
Census
C
Sampling
D
Interview
Question 78Single Answer
Observation as a data collection method is?
A
Collecting data from reports
B
Recording behavior without direct questioning
C
Using only questionnaires
D
Reviewing previous research
Question 79Single Answer
Which of the following is considered secondary data source?
A
Field experiments
B
Household survey conducted by researcher
C
Census of India
D
Direct interviews
Question 80Single Answer
A questionnaire is primarily used to?
A
Summarize statistical reports
B
Analyze secondary data
C
Collect primary data systematically
D
Conduct sampling indirectly
Question 81Single Answer
Sampling helps in?
A
Collecting data from entire population
B
Reducing cost and time in data collection
C
Ignoring population variation
D
Copying existing data
Question 82Single Answer
Secondary data is useful for?
A
Experimental manipulations only
B
Replacing all primary data
C
Supporting primary data or historical analysis
D
Observational data only
Question 83Single Answer
Which of these is NOT a primary data source?
A
NSSO survey
B
Household interview
C
Experiment conducted by researcher
D
Direct observation
Question 84Single Answer
The Census of India is conducted every?
A
2 years
B
5 years
C
10 years
D
Annually
Question 85Single Answer
An interview as a method of collecting data is?
A
Reviewing documents
B
Indirect observation
C
Direct personal questioning
D
Online database extraction
Question 86Single Answer
Which data collection method is suitable for qualitative data?
A
Census reports
B
Questionnaire only
C
Numerical data only
D
Observation and interviews
Question 87Single Answer
Which type of data is collected specifically for the research study?
A
Published data
B
Secondary data
C
Historical data
D
Primary data
Question 88Single Answer
Important source of secondary data in India includes?
A
Census and NSSO reports
B
Direct household survey
C
Experiments by researcher
D
Field notes
Question 89Single Answer
In sampling, the main purpose is?
A
To represent population efficiently
B
To avoid all data analysis
C
To ignore variability
D
To collect partial data randomly
Question 90Single Answer
Advantages of secondary data include?
A
Eliminates need for research
B
Always accurate
C
Provides primary insights only
D
Saves time and cost
Question 91Single Answer
Utility maximization under budget constraint is achieved when?
A
MUx + MUy is maximum
B
Px + Py = Income
C
MUx/Px = MUy/Py
D
MUx × MUy = 0
Question 92Single Answer
Indifference curve is convex to origin because of?
A
Diminishing marginal rate of substitution
B
Increasing marginal utility
C
Law of demand
D
Perfect substitution
Question 93Single Answer
Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) is defined as?
A
Amount of Y sacrificed for one more unit of X
B
Slope of budget line
C
Ratio of prices
D
Total utility ratio
Question 94Single Answer
A Giffen good violates the?
A
Law of diminishing utility
B
Law of demand
C
Law of supply
D
Law of substitution
Question 95Single Answer
Budget line shifts outward when?
A
Price of goods increases
B
Demand decreases
C
Utility increases
D
Income increases
Question 96Single Answer
A consumer is in equilibrium when?
A
Total utility is zero
B
Marginal utility is maximum
C
Price is zero
D
Budget is exhausted with highest satisfaction
Question 97Single Answer
Law of diminishing marginal utility states that?
A
Total utility falls immediately
B
Marginal utility increases continuously
C
Marginal utility declines with consumption
D
Utility remains constant
Question 98Single Answer
Indifference curve cannot?
A
Be downward sloping
B
Be smooth
C
Be convex
D
Intersect each other
Question 99Single Answer
Perfect substitutes have indifference curves that are?
A
L-shaped
B
Straight lines
C
Convex
D
Circular
Question 100Single Answer
Perfect complements are represented by?
A
Straight lines
B
Parallel lines
C
Upward sloping curves
D
Right angle indifference curves
Question 101Single Answer
Consumer surplus is defined as?
A
Difference between income and expenditure
B
Total utility minus marginal utility
C
Difference between willingness to pay and actual price
D
Price minus cost
Question 102Single Answer
Engel curve shows relationship between?
A
Income and quantity demanded
B
Price and demand
C
Supply and price
D
Utility and cost
Question 103Single Answer
When income increases demand for inferior goods?
A
Increases
B
Decreases
C
Remains constant
D
Becomes zero
Question 104Single Answer
Substitution effect always leads to?
A
Decrease in demand
B
Fall in price only
C
Increase in demand
D
No change in demand
Question 105Single Answer
Income effect measures change in demand due to?
A
Price change only
B
Taste change
C
Income change only
D
Substitution effect
Question 106Single Answer
Slutsky equation decomposes price effect into?
A
Income and demand effect
B
Supply and demand effect
C
Income and substitution effect
D
Cost and revenue effect
Question 107Single Answer
A higher indifference curve indicates?
A
Lower utility
B
Same utility
C
Higher utility
D
Zero utility
Question 108Single Answer
The slope of budget line depends on?
A
Income only
B
Preferences
C
Utility
D
Price ratio
Question 109Single Answer
According to the completeness axiom of consumer preferences, a consumer must be able to?
A
Purchase every affordable bundle
B
Rank any two consumption bundles
C
Obtain positive utility from every good
D
Consume all available goods
Question 110Single Answer
Transitivity of preferences implies that if bundle X is preferred to Y and Y is preferred to Z, then?
A
Z must be preferred to X
B
X must be preferred to Z
C
X and Z must be indifferent
D
Y must be preferred to X
Question 111Single Answer
Strictly convex preferences imply that the consumer generally prefers?
A
Extreme bundles to averages
B
Goods in fixed proportions
C
Only corner solutions
D
Weighted averages to extreme bundles
Question 112Single Answer
If a utility function is subjected to a strictly increasing transformation, the consumer's?
A
Demand necessarily changes
B
Preference ordering remains unchanged
C
Budget constraint shifts
D
Marginal utility remains numerically unchanged
Question 113Single Answer
At an interior consumer equilibrium with differentiable preferences, which condition generally holds?
A
MRS = ratio of prices
B
MRS = income
C
MRS = total expenditure
D
Marginal utility equals zero
Question 114Single Answer
Hicksian demand minimizes?
A
Utility for given income
B
Expenditure for a given utility level
C
Income for given prices
D
Prices for a given consumption bundle
Question 115Single Answer
Marshallian demand is obtained from the problem of?
A
Expenditure minimization
B
Profit maximization
C
Utility maximization subject to a budget constraint
D
Cost minimization by firms
Question 116Single Answer
The expenditure function is homogeneous of degree one in?
A
Utility
B
Prices
C
Income
D
Quantities
Question 117Single Answer
The indirect utility function is homogeneous of degree zero in?
A
Prices alone
B
Income alone
C
Prices and income jointly
D
Quantities and utility jointly
Question 118Single Answer
Roy's identity derives Marshallian demand from the?
A
Production function
B
Social welfare function
C
Expenditure function
D
Indirect utility function
Question 119Single Answer
Shephard's lemma applied to the expenditure function yields?
A
Marshallian demand
B
Hicksian demand
C
Supply function
D
Indirect utility
Question 120Single Answer
The Slutsky equation decomposes the price effect into?
A
Scale and substitution effects
B
Wealth and production effects
C
Output and income effects
D
Income and substitution effects
Question 121Single Answer
For a normal good, a fall in its price causes the substitution and income effects to?
A
Work in opposite directions
B
Both equal zero
C
Work in the same direction
D
Become indeterminate
Question 122Single Answer
A Giffen good must necessarily be?
A
Normal
B
Inferior
C
A luxury
D
Perfectly complementary
Question 123Single Answer
For a Giffen good, when its own price rises, quantity demanded?
A
Falls
B
Remains constant
C
Rises
D
First falls and then becomes zero
Question 124Single Answer
The compensated law of demand states that compensated own-price demand generally has?
A
A positive slope
B
Infinite elasticity
C
Unit elasticity
D
A non-positive slope
Question 125Single Answer
Engel curves describe the relationship between demand and?
A
Own price
B
Income
C
Price of a substitute
D
Marginal cost
Question 126Single Answer
If the income elasticity of demand exceeds one, the good is generally classified as?
A
Inferior
B
Luxury
C
Necessity
D
Giffen good
Question 127Single Answer
Perfect substitutes are represented by indifference curves that are?
A
L-shaped
B
Vertical lines only
C
Strictly convex curves
D
Straight lines
Question 128Single Answer
Perfect complements generally have indifference curves that are?
A
L-shaped
B
Linear
C
Concave
D
Circular
Question 129Single Answer
Quasilinear preferences are important because the income effect for the non-numeraire good is often?
A
Positive and increasing
B
Always negative
C
Zero over an interior range
D
Infinite
Question 130Single Answer
The dual of the utility-maximization problem is the?
A
Revenue-maximization problem
B
Expenditure-minimization problem
C
Profit-maximization problem
D
Output-maximization problem
Question 131Single Answer
Compensating variation following a price increase measures the money required to?
A
Restore the original utility at new prices
B
Reach the new utility at old prices
C
Maximize producer surplus
D
Keep nominal expenditure unchanged
Question 132Single Answer
Equivalent variation for a price increase measures the amount of money that, at original prices, would cause?
A
The consumer to save all income
B
Zero substitution effect
C
An increase in utility
D
The same utility loss as the price increase
Question 133Single Answer
Consumer surplus is an exact welfare measure particularly when preferences are?
A
Leontief
B
Quasilinear
C
Lexicographic
D
Non-convex
Question 134Single Answer
The weak axiom of revealed preference rules out a situation in which?
A
Every good is normal
B
Income rises proportionately with prices
C
Prices remain constant
D
Direct revealed preference is contradicted by another choice
Question 135Single Answer
The strong axiom of revealed preference extends consistency requirements to?
A
Only two bundles
B
Production possibilities
C
Chains of revealed preferences
D
Market supply
Question 136Single Answer
Homothetic preferences imply that income expansion paths are generally?
A
Parallel to the budget line
B
Backward bending
C
Horizontal
D
Rays from the origin
Question 137Single Answer
Under homothetic preferences, income elasticities of demands are generally?
A
One
B
Zero
C
Negative
D
Infinite
Question 138Single Answer
A price-consumption curve traces optimal bundles as?
A
One price varies
B
Income varies
C
Utility remains zero
D
All prices vary proportionately
Question 139Single Answer
The income-consumption curve traces optimal bundles as?
A
Income changes with prices fixed
B
Own price changes with income fixed
C
Technology changes
D
Factor prices change
Question 140Single Answer
If preferences are locally nonsatiated, an optimizing consumer generally?
A
Leaves part of income unspent
B
Chooses zero consumption
C
Exhausts the budget
D
Has zero marginal utility
Question 141Single Answer
A corner solution occurs when?
A
Tangency is necessarily satisfied
B
Both goods are perfect complements only
C
Income equals zero
D
The optimum contains zero consumption of at least one good
Question 142Single Answer
The Slutsky substitution effect holds purchasing power constant so that?
A
Real income becomes zero
B
Original utility is necessarily maintained exactly
C
New bundle remains unaffordable
D
Original bundle remains affordable
Question 143Single Answer
Hicks substitution effect holds constant the consumer's?
A
Nominal income
B
Quantity of every good
C
Utility level
D
Marginal income
Question 144Single Answer
An inferior good has, over the relevant range, an income elasticity that is?
A
Negative
B
Positive
C
Exactly one
D
Infinite
Question 145Single Answer
The substitution matrix associated with compensated demand is generally?
A
Positive semidefinite
B
Asymmetric by necessity
C
Strictly positive
D
Negative semidefinite
Question 146Single Answer
Symmetry of the Slutsky matrix follows from?
A
Equality of mixed partial derivatives of the expenditure function
B
Increasing marginal utility
C
Constant returns to scale
D
Profit maximization
Question 147Single Answer
Walras' law for consumer demand implies that the value of excess demand is?
A
Always positive
B
Zero
C
Always negative
D
Equal to utility
Question 148Single Answer
A monotonic transformation of a utility function preserves?
A
Cardinal utility differences
B
Marginal utility values
C
Ordinal preference rankings
D
Utility units
Question 149Single Answer
If preferences are strictly convex, the utility-maximizing bundle on a convex budget set is generally?
A
Unique
B
Infinite in number
C
Necessarily a corner
D
Independent of prices
Question 150Single Answer
Lexicographic preferences violate which standard assumption required for representation by a continuous utility function?