The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}
Question 2Single Answer
A
B
C
D
None of these
Question 3Single Answer
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Question 4Single Answer
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}
Question 5Single Answer
If A B and A B, then
A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A
Question 6Single Answer
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17
Question 7Single Answer
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
A
2m – 1
B
m
C
m2
D
2m
Question 8Single Answer
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these
Question 9Single Answer
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these
Question 10Single Answer
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint
Question 11Single Answer
Which of the following is/are empty set?
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z} B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}
A
A
B
B
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above
Question 12Single Answer
The set {x : x4 = 1 and x R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
A
empty
B
finite
C
infinite
D
singleton
Question 13Single Answer
The universal set for the sets
A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and
B = {x : x2 – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is
A
{1, 2}
B
{1, 3}
C
{1, 2, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}
Question 14Single Answer
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0},
C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and
D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are
A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A, B and C
D
A, C and D
Question 15Single Answer
If A = (–3, 5) and B = [–7, 9], then
A
A = B
B
A B
C
B A
D
None of these
Question 16Single Answer
Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are
A
7, 6
B
5, 1
C
6, 3
D
8, 7
Question 17Single Answer
Combine terms: 12a + 26b - 4b – 16a .
A
4a + 22b
B
-28a + 30b
C
-4a + 22b
D
28a + 30b
Question 18Single Answer
The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .
A
25.30
B
25.5
C
25.00
D
12.25
Question 19Single Answer
60 Times of 8 Equals to
A
480
B
300
C
250
D
400
Question 20Single Answer
Consider the sets
A = {x : x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0}
B = {x : x is a real number and x2 – 16 = 0}
C = {x : x is a real number and x2 = x + 2}
Which of the following is are null set ?
A
A
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
A, B and C
Question 21Single Answer
If X = {4n – 3n – 1: n Î N} and Y = {9(n – 1): n Î N}; where N is the set of natural numbers, then X È Y is equal to
A
N
B
Y – X
C
X
D
Y
Question 22Single Answer
Which of the following is / are correct?
I. {2, 3, 4} {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
II. {a, b, c} {b, c, d}
III. {x : x is an equilateral triangle in a plane} Ì {x : x is a triangle in the same plane}
IV. {x : x is an even natural number} {x : x is an integer}
A
I and III are correct
B
II and III are correct
C
Only IV is correct
D
All above are correct
Question 23Single Answer
A
B
C
D
Question 24Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The set of all irrational numbers between √2 and √5 is an infinite set .
2. The set of all odd integers less than 100 is a finite set .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 25Single Answer
What is the Next Prime Number after 7 ?
A
13
B
12
C
14
D
11
Question 26Single Answer
If A and B are two given sets, then A (A B)C is equal to
A
A
B
B
C
D
Question 27Single Answer
121 Divided by 11 is
A
11
B
10
C
19
D
18
Question 28Single Answer
Let X be the universal set for sets A and B, if n(A) = 200, n(B) = 300 and n = 100, then n is equal to 300 provided n(X) is equal to
A
600
B
700
C
800
D
900
Question 29Single Answer
A
{3, 4, 10}
B
{2, 8, 10}
C
{4, 5, 6}
D
{3, 5, 14}
Question 30Single Answer
Let A = {x : x is a prime factor of 240} B = {x : x is the sum of any two prime factors of 240}, then
A
B
C
D
Question 31Single Answer
In a college part girls and part boys attended a social camp. How many parts in the collegs students attended the camp ?
A
B
C
D
E
None of the above
Question 32Single Answer
The sum of two number is 16 and their difference is 2. What is the product to both numbers ?
A
35
B
56
C
56
D
72
Question 33Single Answer
What are the positive factors of 160 .
A
6
B
8
C
5
D
12
Question 34Single Answer
What is the value of (51 + 52 + 53 ........100) ?
A
1325
B
5050
C
3775
D
3325
Question 35Single Answer
What is the sum of all natural numbers that come in the between 1 to 100, which a multiple of 7 ?
A
735
B
745
C
675
D
705
Question 36Single Answer
What is the unit digit of 279 + 167 × 342 ?
A
1
B
3
C
5
D
8
Question 37Single Answer
Which of the given values is completely divisible by 15 ?
A
2365
B
1375
C
4365
D
2275
Question 38Single Answer
For which value of M, the divisor 34M fully divisible by 12 ?
A
2
B
0
C
8
D
6
Question 39Single Answer
If 432p1 is completely divisiable 34M fully divisiable by 12 ?
A
1
B
8
C
7
D
2
Question 40Single Answer
Which is the smallest number to be added to 100, so that the resulting number is completely divisible by 6 ?
A
2
B
3
C
5
D
4
Question 41Single Answer
When a number is divided by 80, the remainded is 20. When the same number is divided by 16, what will be the remainder ?
A
2
B
4
C
6
D
8
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the fractions is the largest among and ?
A
B
C
D
All are equal
Question 43Single Answer
What is the two digits largest prime number ?
A
91
B
93
C
97
D
99
Question 44Single Answer
What is the sum of first 15 odd natural numbers ?
A
255
B
225
C
235
D
215
Question 45Single Answer
What will be the sum of all natural numbers from 75 to 97 ?
A
1598
B
1978
C
1798
D
1958
Question 46Single Answer
If the quotient of is positive, which of the following would be true ?
A
a > 0
B
b > 0
C
ab > 0
D
a + b > 0
Question 47Single Answer
If the last two digits of a three-digit number is multiple of 6, then the original integer will always be divisible by ?
A
6
B
3
C
2
D
12
Question 48Single Answer
Find three consecutive numbers, in which sum of the two times of the first, three of second and four time of the third number os 191 ?
A
19, 20, 21
B
21, 22, 23
C
20, 21, 22
D
22, 23, 24
Question 49Single Answer
An office has 108 table and 132 chairs. If tables and of the chairs are broken, then how many people can work in the office, if required 1 table and 1 chair ?
A
86
B
90
C
90
D
99
Question 50Single Answer
If the sum of two numbers is a and the product is b, then what will be the sum of their reciprocal ?
A
B
C
D
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General Science
Question 51Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 52Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 53Single Answer
The one which decreases with dilution is
A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance
Question 54Single Answer
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm
Question 55Single Answer
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A
1 M solution of glucose
B
0.05 M solution of glucose
C
6% solution of glucose
D
25% solution of glucose
Question 56Single Answer
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A
to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B
to minimise the snow fall
C
to minimise pollution
D
to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Question 57Single Answer
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A
AB2
B
A2B
C
AB
D
AB3
Question 58Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 59Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 60Single Answer
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%
Question 61Single Answer
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish
Question 62Single Answer
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A
Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B
Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C
shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D
Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Question 63Single Answer
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B
Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C
Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Question 64Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 65Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 66Single Answer
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m
Question 67Single Answer
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront
Question 68Single Answer
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A
0.75 A
B
1 A
C
2 A
D
1.5 A
Question 69Single Answer
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
A
anywhere
B
emitter-collector
C
collector-base
D
base-emitter
Question 70Single Answer
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
A
2 and 4
B
1 only
C
3 and 4
D
4 only
Question 71Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 72Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 73Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 74Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 75Single Answer
One Nanometer is equal to
A
10–9m
B
10–6m
C
10–10m
D
10–3m
Question 76Single Answer
Maxwell is the unit of
A
magnetic susceptibility
B
intensity of Magnetisation
C
magnetic Flux
D
magnetic Permeability
Question 77Single Answer
Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
A
Mass
B
Velocity
C
Length
D
Time
Question 78Single Answer
What are the units of magnetic permeability ?
A
Wb A–1 m–1
B
Wb–1 Am
C
Wb A m–1
D
Wb A–1 m
Question 79Single Answer
The dimensions of pressure gradient are
A
[ML–2 T–2]
B
[ML–2 T–1]
C
[ML–1 T–1]
D
[ML–1 T–2]
Question 80Single Answer
The dimensions of Rydberg's constant are
A
[M0L–1T]
B
[MLT–1]
C
[M0 L–1T0]
D
[ML0 T2]
Question 81Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 82Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 83Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 84Single Answer
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus
Question 85Single Answer
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate
Question 86Single Answer
What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
A
Glass
B
Cement
C
paint
D
Gun powder
Question 87Single Answer
Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
A
Sulphur based
B
Phosphorus based
C
Silicon based
D
Iron based
Question 88Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Magnesium carbonate
C
Magnesium chloride
D
Magnesium sulphate
Question 89Single Answer
Which one of the following substances is used in the manufacture of safety matches ?
A
Red phosphorus
B
White phosphorus
C
Phosphorus trioxide (P2O3)
D
Black phosphorus
Question 90Single Answer
Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket ?
A
Nylon –6, 6
B
Rayon
C
Kevlar
D
Dacron
Question 91Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 92Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 93Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium
Question 94Single Answer
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
A
Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
B
Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
C
Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
D
Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
Question 95Single Answer
For which among the following is not a true fruit ?
A
Apple
B
Date
C
Grape
D
Plum
Question 96Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane ?
A
Cholesterol
B
Glycoplids
C
Proline
D
Phospholipids
Question 97Single Answer
The replication of DNA is a pre-requisite for a eukaryotic cell to undergo division. During the cell cycle, the DNA replicates in
A
S–phase
B
G1–phase
C
G2–phase
D
M-phase
Question 98Single Answer
During which stage of mitosis does cytokinesis usually occur in animals ?
A
Phophase
B
Metaphase
C
Anaphase
D
Telophase
Question 99Single Answer
Lysosome arises from
A
endoplasmic reticulum
B
golgi apparatus
C
nucleus
D
mitochondria
Question 100Single Answer
The correct sequence of cell cycle is
A
S, G1, G2, M
B
S, M, G1, G2
C
G1, S, G2, M
D
M, G1, G2, S
General Knowledge
Question 101Single Answer
Who was the real founder of Turk rule in Bihar ?
A
Ibn Bakhtiyar Khilji
B
Ibrahim
C
Dariya Khan Noohani
D
Malik Husamuddin
E
None of the above / More than one of the above
Question 102Single Answer
Who was the first Indian Governor of Bihar ?
A
Dr. Shri krishna Singh
B
Brij Kishor Prasad
C
B.P. Mandal
D
Satyendra Prasanna Sinha
E
None of the above/More than one of the above
Question 103Single Answer
In which year the Chauri Revolt of Bihar took place ?
A
1842
B
1798
C
1784
D
1832
E
None of the above / More than one of the above
Question 104Single Answer
In which year was Orissa separated from Bihar ?
A
1936
B
1956
C
2000
D
1912
E
None of the above/ More than one of the above
Question 105Single Answer
During which movement 'Azad Dasta' was active in Bihar ?
A
Non-Cooperation Movement
B
Civil Disobedience Movement
C
Quit India Movement
D
Champaran Satyagraha
E
None of the above / More than one of the above
Question 106Single Answer
Who established a branch of Anushilan Samiti in Patna in 1913 AD ?
A
Ramanada Sinha
B
Satish Jha
C
Sachindra Nath Sanyal
D
Bipin Jha
E
None of the above / More than one of the above
Question 107Single Answer
In which year was Bihar divided to create Jharkhand ?
A
2000
B
2001
C
2004
D
2005
E
None of the above More than one of the above
Question 108Single Answer
Who invited Gandhiji to come Champaran ?
A
Raj Kumar Shukla
B
Rajendra Prasad
C
Jayaprakash Narayan
D
Krishna Sahay
E
None of the above / More than one of the above
Question 109Single Answer
Who had formed the Bihar Socialist Party in 1931 AD ?
A
Phulan Chand Tiwari and Rajendra Prasad
B
Phulan Prasad Varma and Jayaprakash Narayan
C
Raj Kumar Shukla and Swami Agnivesh
D
Swami Sahajananda and Swami Yogananda
E
None of the above More than one of the above
Question 110Single Answer
Who formed the 'Bihar Socialist Party' in 1931 ?
A
Phulan Prasad Varma
B
Swami Yoganand
C
Narhari Parikh
D
Dadabhai Naoroji
E
None of the above / More than one of the above
Question 111Single Answer
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 112Single Answer
Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.
A
Only Statement II is true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
D
Only Statement I is true
Question 113Single Answer
Padma Bhushan, Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam is renowned for having trained hundreds of students in which of the following dance forms ?
A
Kuchipudi
B
Odissi
C
Bharatnatyam
D
Kathak
Question 114Single Answer
As an exponent of Khayal, Pandit Bhimsen Joshi belonged to which music Gharana ?
A
Agra
B
Benaras
C
Kirana
D
Gwalior
Question 115Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 116Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 117Single Answer
Who is considered the founder of the Sufi movement in India?
A
Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Aunty
B
Nizamuddin Awliya
C
muinuddin Chishti
D
Naseeruddin Mahmud
Question 118Single Answer
Education has given consciousness.
A
Devotion of
B
Knowledge of
C
recidivism of
D
Sufi Don't of
Question 119Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 120Single Answer
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball
Question 121Single Answer
What is considered the national game of India ?
A
Field hockey
B
cricket
C
Chess
D
Kabaddi
Question 122Single Answer
The national game of Türkiye is….
A
horse racing
B
wrestling
C
Handball
D
basketball
Question 123Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 124Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 125Single Answer
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 126Single Answer
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A
1942
B
1945
C
1946
D
1947
Question 127Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 128Single Answer
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi
Question 129Single Answer
Which of the following is a famous festival of Kerala ?
A
Pongal
B
Onam
C
Baisakhi
D
Makar Sankranti
Question 130Single Answer
Who wrote the Indian national anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' ?
A
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
B
Sarojini Naidu
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Subramania Bharati
Question 131Single Answer
What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?
A
Economic behavior
B
Human values and moral principles
C
Physical health
D
Political systems
Question 132Single Answer
Which of the following is a branch of ethics that deals with the philosophical study of morality ?
A
Metaphysics
B
Aesthetics
C
Normative ethics
D
Epistemology
Question 133Single Answer
Which ethical theory focuses on the consequences of actions to determine right from wrong ?
A
Deontology
B
Virtue ethics
C
Utilitarianism
D
Ethical egoism
Question 134Single Answer
Who is the philosopher known for the development of deontological ethics ?
A
Aristotle
B
John Stuart Mill
C
Immanuel Kant
D
Jeremy Bentham
Question 135Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 136Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
Question 137Single Answer
In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
A
1975
B
1965
C
1980
D
1990
Question 138Single Answer
What is the name of India's first indigenously developed satellite launched by ISRO?
A
INSAT-1A
B
Aryabhata
C
Rohini
D
Bhaskara
Question 139Single Answer
What is the name of India's first nuclear reactor?
A
Dhruva
B
Kamini
C
Apsara
D
Kalpakkam
Question 140Single Answer
Which is the longest river in India?
A
Yamuna
B
Ganges
C
Brahmaputra
D
Godavari
Question 141Single Answer
The Western Ghats are also known as:
A
Sahyadris
B
Vindhyas
C
Satpuras
D
Aravallis
Question 142Single Answer
Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’?
A
Ganges
B
Kosi
C
Son
D
Gandak
Question 143Single Answer
Who among the following was associated with Enlightenment philosophy?
A
Voltaire
B
Shakespeare
C
Erasmus
D
All of the above
Question 144Single Answer
When did World War II end?
A
1918
B
1939
C
1946
D
1945
Question 145Single Answer
Saint Simon, Charles Fourier and Robert Owen were:
A
Early Socialist
B
Renaissance
C
Portuguese sailor
D
Activities in the American War of Independence
Question 146Single Answer
The Indian Navy recently received its second indigenous Diving Support Vessel (DSV). What is its name?
A
Nistar
B
Nipun
C
INS Vikrant
D
INS Arihant
Question 147Single Answer
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which date?
A
27 July 2026
B
29 July 2026
C
31 July 2026
D
30 July 2026
Question 148Single Answer
Who won the silver medal in the men’s javelin throw at the Commonwealth Games 2026 held in Glasgow?
A
Yash Vir Singh
B
Neeraj Chopra
C
Kishore Jena
D
Rohit Yadav
Question 149Single Answer
India became which numbered WTO member to accept the Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (as per recent updates)?
A
120th
B
121st
C
123rd
D
125th
Question 150Single Answer
Which organisation released the Global Tiger Recovery Report 2026?