Latest Bihar Police SI Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Studies & Current Affairs, Mathematics and Quantitive Aptitude, Reasoning and Analytical Ability, English Language, Hindi Language, Bihar General Knowedge
Question Bank Bihar Police SI Main (Paper-1) Exam - English
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 11Single Answer
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 12Single Answer
Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.
A
Only Statement II is true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
D
Only Statement I is true
Question 13Single Answer
Padma Bhushan, Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam is renowned for having trained hundreds of students in which of the following dance forms ?
A
Kuchipudi
B
Odissi
C
Bharatnatyam
D
Kathak
Question 14Single Answer
As an exponent of Khayal, Pandit Bhimsen Joshi belonged to which music Gharana ?
A
Agra
B
Benaras
C
Kirana
D
Gwalior
Question 15Single Answer
Which state gives the annual award Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra ?
A
Karnataka
B
Odisha
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Manipur
Question 16Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 17Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 18Single Answer
Who is considered the founder of the Sufi movement in India?
A
Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Aunty
B
Nizamuddin Awliya
C
muinuddin Chishti
D
Naseeruddin Mahmud
Question 19Single Answer
Education has given consciousness.
A
Devotion of
B
Knowledge of
C
recidivism of
D
Sufi Don't of
Question 20Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 21Single Answer
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball
Question 22Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 23Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 24Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 25Single Answer
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi
Question 26Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 27Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
Question 28Single Answer
In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
A
1975
B
1965
C
1980
D
1990
Question 29Single Answer
What is the name of India's first indigenously developed satellite launched by ISRO?
A
INSAT-1A
B
Aryabhata
C
Rohini
D
Bhaskara
Question 30Single Answer
What is the name of India's first nuclear reactor?
A
Dhruva
B
Kamini
C
Apsara
D
Kalpakkam
Question 31Single Answer
Which country holds the BRICS Chairmanship in 2026?
A
Brazil
B
Russia
C
China
D
India
Question 32Single Answer
What is the theme of India’s BRICS Chairmanship 2026?
A
Inclusive Growth for All
B
Sustainable Global Economy
C
One Earth One Future
D
Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability
Question 33Single Answer
Where was the BRICS Foreign Ministers' Meeting held in May 2026?
A
Mumbai
B
Hyderabad
C
Bengaluru
D
New Delhi
Question 34Single Answer
Which summit on Artificial Intelligence was hosted by India in February 2026?
A
World AI Congress
B
AI Action Summit
C
India AI Impact Summit 2026
D
Global AI Forum
Question 35Single Answer
Where was the India AI Impact Summit 2026 organized?
A
Pragati Maidan, Delhi
B
Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
C
Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
D
Hyderabad International Convention Centre
Question 36Single Answer
Which ministry organized the India AI Impact Summit 2026?
A
Ministry of Science and Technology
B
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
C
Ministry of Commerce
D
Ministry of Education
Question 37Single Answer
Which city is expected to host the G20 Summit 2026?
A
New York
B
Washington D.C.
C
Miami
D
Los Angeles
Question 38Single Answer
Which country is scheduled to host the BRICS Summit 2026?
A
China
B
India
C
South Africa
D
Brazil
Question 39Single Answer
Which country is expected to host COP31 Climate Summit 2026?
A
France
B
UAE
C
Germany
D
Turkey
Question 40Single Answer
Which city hosted the Regional AI Impact Conference 2026?
A
Chennai
B
Jaipur
C
Pune
D
Kochi
Question 41Single Answer
The Rajasthan AI-ML Policy 2026 was launched during which conference?
A
Digital India Summit
B
AI Action Summit
C
Regional AI Impact Conference 2026
D
India AI Impact Summit
Question 42Single Answer
Which city hosted the 23rd BioAsia International Summit 2026?
A
Mumbai
B
Chennai
C
Bengaluru
D
Hyderabad
Question 43Single Answer
What was the theme of BioAsia International Summit 2026?
A
AI for Humanity
B
Future of Biotechnology
C
TechBio Unleashed: AI, Automation & the Biology Revolution
D
Digital Health Revolution
Question 44Single Answer
Which city hosted the 9th IONS Conclave of Chiefs 2026?
A
Kochi
B
Mumbai
C
Visakhapatnam
D
Goa
Question 45Single Answer
What was the theme of the 9th IONS Conclave of Chiefs 2026?
A
Maritime Security First
B
Indo-Pacific Cooperation
C
Maritime Cooperation for Humanitarian Support
D
Blue Economy Growth
Question 46Single Answer
Which organization publishes the World Economic Outlook report?
A
OECD
B
WTO
C
IMF
D
World Bank
Question 47Single Answer
National Technology Day is observed in India on which date?
A
10 May
B
11 May
C
12 May
D
15 May
Question 48Single Answer
Mission Mausam was launched by which ministry?
A
Ministry of Earth Sciences
B
Ministry of Environment
C
Ministry of Science and Technology
D
Ministry of Agriculture
Question 49Single Answer
India's first green methanol project is located in which state?
A
Gujarat
B
Rajasthan
C
Maharashtra
D
Odisha
Question 50Single Answer
Which ministry introduced the Swasth Bharat Portal?
A
Ministry of Women and Child Development
B
Ministry of Education
C
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
D
Ministry of AYUSH
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Mathematics and Quantitive Aptitude
Question 51Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 53Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 54Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 55Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 56Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 57Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 58Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 59Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 60Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 61Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 62Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 63Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 64Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 65Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 66Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 67Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 68Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 69Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 70Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 71Single Answer
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}
Question 72Single Answer
A
B
C
D
None of these
Question 73Single Answer
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Question 74Single Answer
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}
Question 75Single Answer
If A B and A B, then
A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A
Question 76Single Answer
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17
Question 77Single Answer
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
A
2m – 1
B
m
C
m2
D
2m
Question 78Single Answer
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these
Question 79Single Answer
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these
Question 80Single Answer
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint
Question 81Single Answer
Which of the following is/are empty set?
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z} B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}
A
A
B
B
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above
Question 82Single Answer
The set {x : x4 = 1 and x R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
A
empty
B
finite
C
infinite
D
singleton
Question 83Single Answer
The universal set for the sets
A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and
B = {x : x2 – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is
A
{1, 2}
B
{1, 3}
C
{1, 2, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}
Question 84Single Answer
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0},
C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and
D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are
A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A, B and C
D
A, C and D
Question 85Single Answer
If A = (–3, 5) and B = [–7, 9], then
A
A = B
B
A B
C
B A
D
None of these
Question 86Single Answer
Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are
A
7, 6
B
5, 1
C
6, 3
D
8, 7
Question 87Single Answer
Combine terms: 12a + 26b - 4b – 16a .
A
4a + 22b
B
-28a + 30b
C
-4a + 22b
D
28a + 30b
Question 88Single Answer
The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .
A
25.30
B
25.5
C
25.00
D
12.25
Question 89Single Answer
60 Times of 8 Equals to
A
480
B
300
C
250
D
400
Question 90Single Answer
Consider the sets
A = {x : x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0}
B = {x : x is a real number and x2 – 16 = 0}
C = {x : x is a real number and x2 = x + 2}
Which of the following is are null set ?
A
A
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
A, B and C
Reasoning and Analytical Ability
Question 91Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 92Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 93Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 94Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 95Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 96Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 97Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 98Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 99Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 100Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 101Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 102Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 103Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 104Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 105Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 106Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 107Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 108Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 109Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 110Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 111Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 112Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 113Single Answer
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these
Question 114Single Answer
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four
Question 115Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 116Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 117Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 118Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 119Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 120Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 121Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, BONDING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 122Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARGES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 123Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EDSU using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 124Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RTOU using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 125Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ENGULFED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 126Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CORPORATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 127Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, fifth and sixth letters of the word ‘EDUCATION’, which would be the last letter of the word? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A
T
B
X
C
A
D
E
E
K
Question 128Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 129Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFIRM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 130Single Answer
If JOSEPH is coded as FKOALD, then GEORGE will be coded as
A
CAKNCA
B
CADMNO
C
CAKNIT
D
JAKINS
English Language
Question 131Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 132Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 133Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 134Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 135Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 136Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 137Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 138Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 139Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 140Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 141Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 142Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 143Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 144Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 145Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 146Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 147Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 148Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 149Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 150Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Hindi Language
Question 151Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
अधम्र
B
अध्रम
C
अधर्म
D
अध्रिम
Question 152Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
स्थायि
B
स्थायी
C
स्थाई
D
स्थाइ
Question 153Single Answer
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A
महत्व
B
महतव
C
महत्तव
D
महतत्व
Question 154Single Answer
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
A
आयुष्मान
B
आयुश्मान
C
आयुशमान
D
आयुश्यमान
Question 155Single Answer
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
A
कवियत्री
B
कौसल्या
C
एश्वर्य
D
श्रृंगार
Question 156Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
पूज
B
पुजय
C
पूज्य
D
पुज्य
Question 157Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
अनुसरण
B
अनूशरणन
C
अनुशरण
D
अणुशर
Question 158Single Answer
किस क्रमांक में सभी शुद्ध हैं?
A
एक्य,साप्ताहिक
B
आजीविका,आशीर्वाद
C
आर्शिवाद ,अनूकूल
D
निरिक्षण ,कृपालु
Question 159Single Answer
'उज्वल' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है ?
A
उज्जव
B
उज्ज्ल
C
उज्ज्वल
D
उजवल
Question 160Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
Question 161Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
उन्नति
B
उनति
C
उन्ती
D
उनती
Question 162Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
अनुशहरण
B
अनोसरण
C
अनुसरन
D
अनुसरण
Question 163Single Answer
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A
आदिकाल
B
रीतिकाल
C
भक्तिकाल
D
आधुनिक काल
Question 164Single Answer
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A
प्राकृत
B
संस्कृत
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी
Question 165Single Answer
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A
बी. जी. खरे
B
राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C
प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D
इंशाअल्ला खा
Question 166Single Answer
निम्नलिखित बोलियों में से कौन - सी बोली उत्तर प्रदेश में नहीं बाली जाती?
A
मैथिली
B
अवधी
C
ब्रज
D
खड़ी बोली
Question 167Single Answer
भारत की प्रथम देशज भाषा कौन-सी है?
A
पालि
B
प्राकृत
C
संस्कृत
D
इसमें से कोई नहीं
Question 168Single Answer
भारतेन्दु ने किस पत्रिका का संपादन किया?
A
हिन्दी प्रदीप
B
इन्दु
C
कविवचन सुधा
D
भारतबन्धु
Question 169Single Answer
पूर्वी हिन्दी विकसित हुई है?
A
पैशाची अपभ्रंश
B
अर्धमागधी अपभ्रंश
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी अपभ्रंश
Question 170Single Answer
मानक हिन्दी का आधार क्या है?
A
खड़ी बोली
B
अपभ्रंश
C
पूर्वी हिन्दी
D
परिनिष्ठ हिन्दी
Bihar General Knowedge
Question 171Single Answer
Bihar is located in which part of India?
A
Western India
B
Northern India
C
Eastern India
D
Southern India
Question 172Single Answer
What is the capital of Bihar?
A
Gaya
B
Bhagalpur
C
Patna
D
Muzaffarpur
Question 173Single Answer
In which year was Bihar formed as a separate province?
A
1905
B
1947
C
1936
D
1912
Question 174Single Answer
Bihar was separated from which state in 1912?
A
Odisha
B
Bengal Presidency
C
Uttar Pradesh
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 175Single Answer
Which country lies to the north of Bihar?
A
Nepal
B
China
C
Bhutan
D
Bangladesh
Question 176Single Answer
Which state lies to the south of Bihar?
A
West Bengal
B
Odisha
C
Chhattisgarh
D
Jharkhand
Question 177Single Answer
Which river is known as the lifeline of Bihar?
A
Yamuna
B
Narmada
C
Godavari
D
Ganga
Question 178Single Answer
What is the official language of Bihar?
A
Urdu
B
Bhojpuri
C
Hindi
D
Maithili
Question 179Single Answer
Which language is the second official language of Bihar?
A
Urdu
B
Magahi
C
Bhojpuri
D
Angika
Question 180Single Answer
How many districts are there in Bihar?
A
38
B
37
C
36
D
39
Question 181Single Answer
How many divisions are there in Bihar?
A
7
B
8
C
9
D
10
Question 182Single Answer
Which city is known as the “Silk City” of Bihar?
A
Patna
B
Bhagalpur
C
Gaya
D
Darbhanga
Question 183Single Answer
Which ancient university was located in Bihar?
A
Takshashila
B
Vikramshila
C
Nalanda
D
Vallabhi
Question 184Single Answer
Bihar shares its western boundary with which state?
A
West Bengal
B
Jharkhand
C
Odisha
D
Uttar Pradesh
Question 185Single Answer
Which state lies to the east of Bihar?
A
Odisha
B
West Bengal
C
Assam
D
Sikkim
Question 186Single Answer
What is the area of Bihar approximately?
A
74,000 sq km
B
94,163 sq km
C
84,000 sq km
D
1,04,000 sq km
Question 187Single Answer
Which is the state animal of Bihar?
A
Tiger
B
Elephant
C
Deer
D
Rhinoceros
Question 188Single Answer
Which is the state bird of Bihar?
A
Peacock
B
Pigeon
C
Parrot
D
Sparrow
Question 189Single Answer
Which is the state flower of Bihar?
A
Rose
B
Jasmine
C
Lotus
D
Lily
Question 190Single Answer
Which is the state tree of Bihar?
A
Neem
B
Banyan
C
Peepal
D
Mango
Question 191Single Answer
Bihar Day is celebrated on which date?
A
22 March
B
15 March
C
26 January
D
1 April
Question 192Single Answer
Which regional language is widely spoken in western Bihar?
A
Maithili
B
Angika
C
Magahi
D
Bhojpuri
Question 193Single Answer
Which regional language is mainly spoken in north Bihar?
A
Angika
B
Bhojpuri
C
Maithili
D
Urdu
Question 194Single Answer
Which regional language is mainly spoken in central Bihar?
A
Gujarati
B
Punjabi
C
Bengali
D
Magahi
Question 195Single Answer
What was the ancient name of Patna?
A
Pataliputra
B
Rajgir
C
Vaishali
D
Champa
Question 196Single Answer
Bihar is famous for which agricultural crop?
A
Tea
B
Coffee
C
Rice
D
Rubber
Question 197Single Answer
Which city is known as the gateway of Mithila region?
A
Darbhanga
B
Patna
C
Gaya
D
Ara
Question 198Single Answer
Which religion attained enlightenment in Bodh Gaya?
A
Jainism
B
Buddhism
C
Sikhism
D
Islam
Question 199Single Answer
What is the literacy rate of Bihar according to Census 2011 approximately?
A
70.5%
B
61.8%
C
75.2%
D
80.4%
Question 200Single Answer
Which city is known as the “Temple City” of Bihar?
B and A
B, then
R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
B 
A