निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
Question 11Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
उन्नति
B
उनति
C
उन्ती
D
उनती
Question 12Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
अनुशहरण
B
अनोसरण
C
अनुसरन
D
अनुसरण
Question 13Single Answer
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A
आदिकाल
B
रीतिकाल
C
भक्तिकाल
D
आधुनिक काल
Question 14Single Answer
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A
प्राकृत
B
संस्कृत
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी
Question 15Single Answer
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A
बी. जी. खरे
B
राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C
प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D
इंशाअल्ला खा
Question 16Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 17Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 18Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 19Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 20Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 21Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 22Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 23Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 24Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 25Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 26Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 27Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 28Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 29Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 30Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
General Studies
Question 31Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 32Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 33Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 34Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 35Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 36Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 37Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 38Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 39Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 40Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 41Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 42Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 43Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 44Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 45Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 46Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 47Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 48Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 49Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 50Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Important Questions Package
Bihar Secondary School Teacher Physical Education Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy Bihar Secondary School Teacher Physical Education Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in Bihar Secondary School Teacher Physical Education question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
Bihar Secondary School Teacher Physical Education Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Questions with Answers
₹101[₹500]
2.
Bihar Secondary School Teacher Physical Education Exam - Hindi
Description : 2000 Questions with Answers
₹151[₹500]
3.
Bihar Secondary School Teacher Physical Education Exam - Hindi
Description : 3000 Questions with Answers
₹181[₹500]
4.
Bihar Secondary School Teacher Physical Education Exam - English
Description : 1000 Questions with Answers
₹101[₹500]
5.
Bihar Secondary School Teacher Physical Education Exam - English
Description : 2000 Questions with Answers
₹151[₹500]
6.
Bihar Secondary School Teacher Physical Education Exam - English
Description : 3000 Questions with Answers
₹181[₹500]
7.
Bihar Secondary School Teacher Physical Education Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
8.
Bihar Secondary School Teacher Physical Education Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
9.
Bihar Secondary School Teacher Physical Education Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹450[₹800]
10.
Bihar Secondary School Teacher Physical Education Exam Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹600]
General Studies
Question 51Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 52Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 53Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 54Single Answer
The earlist manuscripts were written on
A
palm leaves
B
paper
C
wood
D
stones
Question 55Single Answer
What does BC and AD stands for?
A
Anno Domini and Before Common
B
Before Christ and Anno Domini
C
Anno Domini and Before Christ
D
None of the above
Question 56Single Answer
Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of a manuscript?
(A) It is written on a hard surface such as a stone or a metal.
(B) It is an old book written by hand.
(C) It is written on palm leaf or on specially prepared bark of the birch tree.
A
Only A
B
B and C
C
Only B
D
All of these
Question 57Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 58Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 59Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 60Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 61Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 62Single Answer
Who was the real founder of Turk rule in Bihar ?
A
Ibn Bakhtiyar Khilji
B
Ibrahim
C
Dariya Khan Noohani
D
Malik Husamuddin
E
None of the above / More than one of the above
Question 63Single Answer
Who was the first Indian Governor of Bihar ?
A
Dr. Shri krishna Singh
B
Brij Kishor Prasad
C
B.P. Mandal
D
Satyendra Prasanna Sinha
E
None of the above/More than one of the above
Question 64Single Answer
In which year the Chauri Revolt of Bihar took place ?
A
1842
B
1798
C
1784
D
1832
E
None of the above / More than one of the above
Question 65Single Answer
Who was the first European power to arrive in India?
A
The Dutch
B
The French
C
The English
D
The Portuguese
Question 66Single Answer
Vasco da Gama reached India in which year?
A
1498
B
1492
C
1500
D
1510
Question 67Single Answer
Which city did Vasco da Gama first land in India?
A
Goa
B
Cochin
C
Calicut
D
Surat
Question 68Single Answer
Which day is observed on 1 October every year as declared by the United Nations?
A
World Teachers’ Day
B
International Day of Non-Violence
C
World Food Day
D
International Day of Older Persons
Question 69Single Answer
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) completed 100 years of its establishment on which date in 2026?
A
26 January 2026
B
1 October 2026
C
15 August 2026
D
26 November 2026
Question 70Single Answer
The Union Cabinet raised the Minimum Support Price (MSP) of wheat for the 2027-28 Rabi season by how much?
A
₹25 per quintal
B
₹15 per quintal
C
₹50 per quintal
D
₹75 per quintal
Physical Education
Question 71Single Answer
The primary aim of physical education is to promote:
A
Only muscular strength
B
Only sports performance
C
Only recreational ability
D
Holistic development of an individual
Question 72Single Answer
Which of the following is an important objective of physical education?
A
Overall development of personality
B
Social development only
C
Mental development only
D
Physical development only
Question 73Single Answer
Physical education contributes most directly to the development of:
A
Literary skills
B
Industrial skills
C
Physical fitness and motor skills
D
Commercial skills
Question 74Single Answer
Which career is directly associated with physical education?
A
Chartered accountant
B
Sports coach
C
Architect
D
Pharmacist
Question 75Single Answer
A person who treats and rehabilitates sports-related physical problems may work as a:
A
Sports journalist
B
Sports physiotherapist
C
Referee
D
Commentator
Question 76Single Answer
Which profession mainly deals with improving the performance of athletes through systematic training?
A
Photographer
B
Coach
C
Lawyer
D
Librarian
Question 77Single Answer
A sports journalist mainly works in the field of:
A
Sports medicine
B
Sports media and communication
C
Sports nutrition
D
Sports biomechanics
Question 78Single Answer
Sports management mainly deals with:
A
Teaching mathematics
B
Treatment of fractures
C
Manufacturing medicines
D
Administration and organization of sports
Question 79Single Answer
Which qualification is commonly associated with teaching physical education in schools?
A
B.Pharm.
B
B.Com.
C
B.Arch.
D
B.P.Ed.
Question 80Single Answer
The abbreviation B.P.Ed. stands for:
A
Basic Physical Exercise Diploma
B
Bachelor of Professional Education
C
Bachelor of Physical Education
D
Bachelor of Physical Examination
Question 81Single Answer
M.P.Ed. stands for:
A
Management of Physical Education
B
Master of Physical Education
C
Medical Physical Education
D
Master of Professional Exercise
Question 82Single Answer
Which field studies the relationship between human movement and mechanical principles?
A
Biomechanics
B
Sociology
C
Geography
D
Economics
Question 83Single Answer
Sports psychology is primarily concerned with:
A
Construction of stadiums
B
Mental factors affecting sports performance
C
Manufacture of equipment
D
Sports accounting
Question 84Single Answer
Sports nutrition focuses mainly on:
A
Stadium management
B
Appropriate diet for physical performance and recovery
C
Sports laws
D
Media reporting
Question 85Single Answer
Which technological device is commonly used to monitor heart rate during exercise?
A
Fitness tracker
B
Microscope
C
Telescope
D
Barometer
Question 86Single Answer
Wearable technology in sports is mainly used to:
A
Monitor performance and physiological data
B
Replace coaches completely
C
Eliminate physical training
D
Conduct written examinations
Question 87Single Answer
Which technology helps in detailed analysis of player movement during competition?
A
Video analysis
B
Typewriter
C
Radio broadcasting only
D
Printing press
Question 88Single Answer
Artificial intelligence in sports can be used for:
A
Performance analysis
B
All of the above
C
Tactical analysis
D
Injury-risk assessment
Question 89Single Answer
A fitness trainer mainly helps individuals to:
A
Prepare legal documents
B
Learn accountancy
C
Study history
D
Improve physical fitness
Question 90Single Answer
A sports commentator primarily provides:
A
Nutritional therapy
B
Medical treatment
C
Coaching certification
D
Live description and analysis of sporting events
Question 91Single Answer
Which career involves ensuring that rules are followed during a match?
A
Groundsman
B
Physiotherapist
C
Sports journalist
D
Referee
Question 92Single Answer
The person responsible for maintaining a sports playing surface is generally called a:
A
Dietitian
B
Groundsman
C
Psychologist
D
Commentator
Question 93Single Answer
Which of the following is an emerging career in the sports sector?
A
Sports data analyst
B
All of the above
C
Strength and conditioning coach
D
Sports scientist
Question 94Single Answer
Physical education helps in developing social qualities such as:
A
All of the above
B
Team spirit
C
Leadership
D
Cooperation
Question 95Single Answer
Regular participation in physical education is generally associated with:
A
Improved health
B
Better fitness
C
Improved motor efficiency
D
All of the above
Question 96Single Answer
The use of computers to evaluate sports performance represents:
A
Ancient sports practice
B
Elimination of sports
C
Decline of physical education
D
Technological development in sports
Question 97Single Answer
Which professional prepares specific exercises for improving an athlete's strength and conditioning?
A
Sports photographer
B
Journalist
C
Referee
D
Strength and conditioning coach
Question 98Single Answer
Which field involves scientific study of exercise and its effects on the human body?
A
Linguistics
B
Archaeology
C
Political science
D
Exercise physiology
Question 99Single Answer
The main responsibility of a physical education teacher is to:
A
Provide surgical treatment
B
Promote physical activity and fitness education
C
Manufacture sports equipment
D
Publish newspapers
Question 100Single Answer
Which organization-related career involves planning tournaments and competitions?
A
Sports event manager
B
Physiologist
C
Surgeon
D
Laboratory technician
Question 101Single Answer
The modern Olympic Games were revived mainly through the efforts of:
A
Pierre de Coubertin
B
Jesse Owens
C
Thomas Bach
D
Avery Brundage
Question 102Single Answer
The first modern Olympic Games were held in:
A
London
B
Paris
C
Athens
D
Rome
Question 103Single Answer
The first modern Olympic Games were held in:
A
1912
B
1900
C
1896
D
1920
Question 104Single Answer
The ancient Olympic Games originated in:
A
Italy
B
Greece
C
France
D
Egypt
Question 105Single Answer
The ancient Olympic Games were traditionally held at:
A
Sparta
B
Athens
C
Olympia
D
Rome
Question 106Single Answer
The Olympic rings consist of how many interconnected rings?
A
5
B
4
C
3
D
6
Question 107Single Answer
The five Olympic rings symbolize:
A
Five host cities
B
Five specific sports
C
Five Olympic medals
D
The union of continents through sport
Question 108Single Answer
Which of the following is an Olympic value?
A
All of the above
B
Friendship
C
Respect
D
Excellence
Question 109Single Answer
The Olympic value of “Excellence” encourages athletes to:
A
Strive to do their best
B
Win by any means
C
Avoid competition
D
Ignore rules
Question 110Single Answer
The Olympic value of “Respect” includes respect for:
A
All of the above
B
Opponents
C
Rules
D
Oneself
Question 111Single Answer
The Olympic value of “Friendship” promotes:
A
Unfair competition
B
Hostility
C
Isolation
D
Mutual understanding through sport
Question 112Single Answer
The International Olympic Committee is abbreviated as:
A
IPC
B
IOA
C
IOC
D
FIFA
Question 113Single Answer
The Indian Olympic Association is abbreviated as:
A
IAAF
B
IOC
C
IOA
D
BCCI
Question 114Single Answer
The Olympic flag has a background that is:
A
White
B
Red
C
Blue
D
Green
Question 115Single Answer
Which color is NOT one of the five Olympic rings?
A
Blue
B
Yellow
C
Purple
D
Black
Question 116Single Answer
The Olympic flame represents:
A
Political power
B
Commercial competition
C
National rivalry only
D
Continuity between ancient and modern Olympic traditions
Question 117Single Answer
The Olympic torch relay ends at the:
A
Athlete's home
B
IOC office
C
Olympic host venue
D
National capital of every country
Question 118Single Answer
Fair play in sport means:
A
Cheating secretly
B
Winning at any cost
C
Following rules and respecting opponents
D
Avoiding competition
Question 119Single Answer
Which value discourages discrimination in sports?
A
Hatred
B
Respect
C
Aggression
D
Isolation
Question 120Single Answer
Olympic education seeks to combine sport with:
A
Military training
B
Commerce only
C
Politics only
D
Culture and education
Question 121Single Answer
The Olympic Movement promotes:
A
Violence
B
Doping
C
Peace through sport
D
Discrimination
Question 122Single Answer
The Olympic Games are ordinarily held once every:
A
4 years
B
3 years
C
2 years
D
5 years
Question 123Single Answer
The Paralympic Games are primarily organized for:
A
Athletes with disabilities
B
Only school children
C
Only coaches
D
Only referees
Question 124Single Answer
The Olympic oath emphasizes:
A
Political ideology
B
Commercial success
C
Fair and rule-abiding competition
D
Winning through any method
Question 125Single Answer
The Olympic motto encourages athletes to pursue:
A
Excellence and progress
B
Isolation
C
Inactivity
D
Dishonesty
Question 126Single Answer
The word “Yoga” is derived from the Sanskrit root:
A
Yuj
B
Yag
C
Yam
D
Yat
Question 127Single Answer
The literal meaning of Yoga is generally understood as:
A
Sleep
B
Conflict
C
Competition
D
Union
Question 128Single Answer
Maharshi Patanjali is closely associated with:
A
Ramayana
B
Arthashastra
C
Ayurveda only
D
Yoga Sutras
Question 129Single Answer
Ashtanga Yoga consists of:
A
8 limbs
B
6 limbs
C
7 limbs
D
5 limbs
Question 130Single Answer
The first limb of Ashtanga Yoga is:
A
Niyama
B
Yama
C
Asana
D
Pranayama
Question 131Single Answer
The second limb of Ashtanga Yoga is:
A
Dharana
B
Niyama
C
Dhyana
D
Samadhi
Question 132Single Answer
The third limb of Ashtanga Yoga is:
A
Pranayama
B
Asana
C
Pratyahara
D
Samadhi
Question 133Single Answer
The fourth limb of Ashtanga Yoga is:
A
Dharana
B
Pranayama
C
Samadhi
D
Yama
Question 134Single Answer
Pratyahara primarily refers to:
A
Withdrawal of the senses
B
Physical running
C
Weight lifting
D
Food preparation
Question 135Single Answer
Dharana means:
A
Relaxation only
B
Concentration
C
Sleep
D
Competition
Question 136Single Answer
Dhyana refers to:
A
Throwing
B
Jumping
C
Sprinting
D
Meditation
Question 137Single Answer
The final limb of Ashtanga Yoga is:
A
Pranayama
B
Niyama
C
Samadhi
D
Asana
Question 138Single Answer
Which asana is performed in a standing position and resembles a tree?
A
Shavasana
B
Bhujangasana
C
Vrikshasana
D
Makarasana
Question 139Single Answer
Which asana is commonly known as the Cobra Pose?
A
Vajrasana
B
Padmasana
C
Bhujangasana
D
Halasana
Question 140Single Answer
Which asana is commonly known as the Corpse Pose?
A
Shavasana
B
Tadasana
C
Dhanurasana
D
Chakrasana
Question 141Single Answer
Which asana resembles a bow?
A
Tadasana
B
Vajrasana
C
Gomukhasana
D
Dhanurasana
Question 142Single Answer
Which asana is traditionally performed by sitting on the heels?
A
Bhujangasana
B
Tadasana
C
Trikonasana
D
Vajrasana
Question 143Single Answer
Which asana is called the Mountain Pose?
A
Matsyasana
B
Halasana
C
Shalabhasana
D
Tadasana
Question 144Single Answer
Which asana is commonly called the Triangle Pose?
A
Padmasana
B
Trikonasana
C
Shavasana
D
Vajrasana
Question 145Single Answer
Which asana is known as the Lotus Pose?
A
Pavanamuktasana
B
Padmasana
C
Dhanurasana
D
Halasana
Question 146Single Answer
Pranayama is primarily associated with control of: