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Latest Bihar SLET Law Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : LAW
Question Bank Bihar SLET Law Exam - English
LAW
Q 1 :
In the Constitution of India, the principle of rule of law is mainly embodied in
A.Article 14
B.Article 32
C.Article 226
D.Article 227
Q 2 :
In case of theft under IPC, the following ingredients are necessary .
I. Dishonest intention to take the property
II. The property can be movable or immovable
III. Property should be taken without the consent of the person
IV. There must be some removal of the property
V. The property must be movable property
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.I, II, III and IV
B.II, III, IV and V
C.I, III, IV and V
D.I, II, III and V
Q 3 :
Which of the following are true with regard to the desertion of spouse under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
I. Factum of separation
II. Animus deserendi
III. Prescribed period of two years must have passed before presentation of petition
IV. With reasonable cause
V. Without the consent of the petitioner
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.I, III, IV and V
B.II, III and IV
C.I, II, III and V
D.I, II and IV
Q 4 :
Choose the correct chronological order of the jurists from the earliest to the latest .
I. Austin, Bentham, Pound, Holmes
II. Bentham, Holmes, Austin, Pound
III. Bentham, Austin, Pound, Holmes
IV. Holmes, Austin, Bentham, Pound
V. Bentham, Holmes, Pound, Austing
Codes :
A.Only II
B.Either I or II
C.Only III
D.Only V
Q 5 :
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : The power of legislation carries with it the power to delegate and unless the legislature has completely adbicated or effaced itself, there is no restriction on delegation of legislative powers .
Statement II : Paraliament can abdicate or efface itself by creating a parallel legislative body .
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A.Both statement I and statement II are correct
B.Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C.Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D.Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Q 6 :
Consider the following statements .
I. An agreement without consideration is a void contract
II. An agreement in restraint of marriage is a voidable contract
III. An unmeaning agreement is a void contract
IV. An agreement to do imossible acts is a voidable contract
V. An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is a void contract
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.I and III
B.II and IV
C.I, III and V
D.Only V
Q 7 :
Arrange the following cases chronologically (starting from the earliest to the latest) .
I. National Legal Service Authority v/s UOI
II. Naz Foundation v/s Govt of NCT
III. Navtej Singh Johar v/s UOI
IV. Suresh Kaushal v/s Naz foundation
V. The cases of Navtej Singh Johar and Suresh Kaushal were decided in the same year
Codes :
A.III, V, II, IV
B.IV, II, I, III
C.II, IV, I, III
D.V, IV, I, II
Q 8 :
When an unmarried woman adopts a child and subsequently marries the person who she subsequently marries, shall be the
A.adoptive father of the child
B.stepfather of the child
C.natural father of the child
D.Either 1 or 2
Q 9 :
Choose the correct chronological order of the emergence of the Schools of Jurisprudence (earliest to the latest) .
I. Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism, Realist
II. Historical, Natural, Realist, Analytical Positivism
III. Analytical Positivism, Historical, Realist, Natural
IV. Realist, Hostorical, Analytical positivism, Natural
V. Realist, Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.Only I
B.Only II
C.Only III
D.Only IV
Q 10 :
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 talks about direct selling, e-commerce and electronic service provider .
A.True
B.False
C.Consumer Protection Act, 1986 did not provide about this
D.Both (a) and (c)
Q 11 :
'General principles of law' recognised by civilised states as a source of international law has been applied in following case .
A.Corfu Channel Case
B.Asylum Case
C.Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case
D.Reparations Case
Q 12 :
Match List I with List II .
List – I List – II
(a) Theory of Justice (i) David Hume
(b) Idea of Justice (ii) John Rawls
(c) Nicomachean Ethics (iii) Amartya Sen
(d) An Enquiry Concerning the Principles of Morals (iv) Aristotle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B.(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
C.(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D.(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Q 13 :
.......... has to provide by making regulations for any class of class of companies which may file a shelf-prospectus with the Registrar at the stage of first offer of securities .
A.NCLT
B.SEBI
C.IBBI
D.Director of a company
Q 14 :
The following is/are the exceptions to the principle of strict liability .
I. Act of God
II. Consent of the plaintiff
III. Intention of the defendant
IV. Act of third party
V. Minority
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.I and II
B.I, II and IV
C.I, III and IV
D.II and V
Q 15 :
Restitution of conjugal rights has its genesis under the
A.English law
B.Indian law
C.Jewish law
D.Swedish law
Q 16 :
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of right of private defence
Reason (R) : Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing that the shot may kill Z. His shot gives Z a mortal wound. A has not committed any offence
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 17 :
The Hicklin test under Article 19(2) is related to
A.Defamation
B.Decency and Morality
C.Integrity of India
D.Negligence
Q 18 :
Consider the following statements .
I. Courts cannot review the question as to what 'aid and advice' is given by the council of Ministers to the President
II. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a justifiable issue
III. Article 14 cannot be worked against discrimination made by consitutional provisions
IV. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a non-justifiable issue
V. Article 14 can be worked against discrimination made by Constiutional provisions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.I, II and III
B.I, III and IV
C.II, III and IV
D.III, IV and V
Q 19 :
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : A bigamous marriage is void under Hindu Law
Reason (R) : A child born out of void marriage is legitimate child of his parents
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 20 :
Which of the following doctrines is called as 'Doctrine of Non-regonition' ?
A.Estrada Doctrine
B.Hallestein Doctrine
C.Franco Doctrine
D.Stimson Doctrine
Q 21 :
Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall require it to be taken at a meeting .
A.by a majority of not less than two-third of the weighted votes of the members present
B.by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present
C.by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the weighted votes of all the mebers of the council
D.by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of all the members of the council
Q 22 :
Match List – I with List II
List I List – II
(a) Mersey Docke v/s proctor I. statutory Authority
(b) Metropolitan Asylum District v/s Hill II. Vicarious Liability
(c) Nichols v/s Marsland III. Invevitable Accident
(d) Holmes v/s Mather IV. Act of God
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (v) (ii) (iii)
B.(v) (iv) (i) (ii)
C.(i) (iii) (ii) (v)
D.(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Q 23 :
The doctrine, res-ipsa loquitur was applied by the Supreme court in
A.Alka v/s Union of India
B.Asa Ram v/s Municipal Corporation of Delhi
C.Municipal Corporation of Delhi V/s Subhagwanti
D.Jasbir kaur V/s State of Punjab
Q 24 :
The Institution of Ombudsman was first developed in
A.India
B.UK
C.France
D.Sweden
Q 25 :
Trade secrets do not cover the following information .
A.commercially valuable
B.production methods
C.business plans
D.information discovered by reverse engineering
Q 26 :
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Post-modernism I. Grund norm
(b) Source of Law II. Ratio decidendi
(c) Authority of a decision as a precedent III. Critical legal studies
(d) Analytical school IV. Volkgeist
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
B.(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
C.(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
D.(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Q 27 :
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid I. 354-A, IPC
(b) Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid II. 326-B IPC
(c) Sexual harassment and punishment for sexual harassment III. 354-D IPC
(d) Stalking IV. 326-A, IPC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
B.(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
C.(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
D.(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Q 28 :
Ordinarly, a delegated legislation can be given
A.prospective effect only
B.retrospective effect only
C.Both propsective and retrospective effect
D.effect as the court may decide
Q 29 :
Read the following principles of the Rio-Declaration on Environment and Devleopment (1992) and select the correct answer from the given options .
I. Principle 1 – Human beings are at the centre of concern for sustainable development
II. Principle 16 – In order to protect the environment, the precautionary approach shall be widely applied by states according to their capabilities
III. Principle 14 – Environmental impact assessment shall be undertaken for proposed activities that are liekly to have a significant adverse impact on the environment
IV. Principle 20 – Women have a vital role in environmental management and development
V. Principle 24 – Peace, development and environmental protection are interdependent and indivisible
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.I and IV
B.II and III
C.III and V
D.II and V
Q 30 :
Among the Muslims, Sariri is the stage
A.When the boy or the girl is below 10 years of age
B.When the boy or the girl is above seven years but below fifteen years
C.When the boy or the girl is above fifteen years of age
D.when the boy of the girl is above 10 years of age
Q 31 :
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(Provision) (Section)
(a) Void marriage I. Section 27, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(b) Divorce by mutual consent II. Section 24, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(c) Maintenance pendente lite III. Section 13 B, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(d) Disposal of property IV. Section 11, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
B.(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
C.(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
D.(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Q 32 :
A car was sold on 'as is' basis and without any warranty or guarantee whetever. After 5 days of the contract, the engine of the car blew up. Discuss the liability of the seller .
A.He is liable for the damages due to the doctrine of fundamental breach of standard from of contract
B.The seller is not liable because the car was sold on 'as is' basis and without any warranty of gurantee
C.The buyer should take care if he buys a second-hand car
D.Under standard from contract, in this case, contributory negligence is applicable
Q 33 :
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Doctrine of Pith and Substance I. What cannot be done directly, cannot be done indirectly
(b) Doctrine of Indcidental Encroachment II. The part of statute which is bad cannot be severed from the rest
(c) Doctrine of Severability III. A law is not invalid even though trenched incidentally to another list
(d) Doctrine of colourable Legislation IV. True nature and character of the legislation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (v) (ii) (iii)
B.(v) (iv) (i) (ii)
C.(i) (iii) (ii) (v)
D.(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Q 34 :
Who defined ownership as 'plenary control over an object' ?
A.Roscoe Pound
B.Holmes
C.Holland
D.Paton
Q 35 :
Under which article of the constitution of India, it is the duty of the union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every state is carried on, in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India ?
A.Article 353
B.Article 354
C.Article 355
D.Article 356
Q 36 :
Who said, "A legal person, is any subject matter other than a human being to which law attributes personality" ?
A.Salmond
B.Holmes
C.Jerome Frank
D.Pound
Q 37 :
Who said that there are two elements of possession, (a) Corpus possessionis and (b) animus domini ?
A.Ihering
B.Paton
C.Savigny
D.Salmond
Q 38 :
Which of the following is incorrect ?
A.An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be voidable
B.An agreement enforeable by law is a contract
C.Every promise and every set of promises forming the consideration for each other is an agreement
D.An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void
Q 39 :
The National green Tribunal Act, 2010 came into force on
A.10th May, 2010
B.18th August, 2010
C.10th December, 2010
D.18th October, 2010
Q 40 :
The Competition Act, 2002, provides for which of the following ?
I. Establishment of a commission to prevent practices having effect on competition
II. To promote and sustain competition in markets
III. To protect the interests of consumers
IV. To ensure freedom of trade carried on by the other participants in the markets
V. To establish NCLT and NCLAT to decide various matters
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.I, II, III, IV and V
B.II, III and IV
C.III, IV and V
D.I, II, III and IV
Q 41 :
Arrange in chronological order the case laws pertaining to cruelty under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (year wise from beginning till the latest) .
I. Durga Prasanna Tripathy v/s Arundhati Tripathy
II. Bhagwat v/s Bhagwat
III. Parveen Mehtra v/s Inderjeet mehta
IV. Swapan Kumar Das v/s Maya Rani Dutta
V. Satendra Kumar Gupta v/s Kanchan Gupta and Others
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.II, III, I, IV, V
B.I, III, II, IV, V
C.III, IV, I, II, V
D.IV, III, II, I, V
Q 42 :
National Commission for Backward Classes has been created through which Amendement to the constitution of India ?
A.100th Amendment
B.101st Amendment
C.102nd Amendment
D.103rd Amendment
Q 43 :
Consider the following statements .
I. Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse is covered in Article 301
II. Restrictions on legislative powers of the union and states with regard to trade and commerce are covered in Article 302
III. Power of Parliament to impose restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse is covered in Article 302
IV. Restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse among states are covered in Article 304
V. Appointment of authority for carrying out the purposes of Article 301-304 is enshrined in Article 306
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.I, II and III
B.II, III and IV
C.I, III and IV
D.II, IV and V
Q 44 :
Every state and every local authority within the state is required to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to liguistic minority groups under .
A.Article 350
B.Article 350 A
C.Article 350 B
D.Article 351
Q 45 :
Given below are two statements .
Statement I "All human beings are not loegal persons"
Statement II " State is a juristic person"
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A.Both statements I and II are correct
B.Both statements I and II are incorrect
C.Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D.Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Q 46 :
Which of the following is false ?
A.A contract is frustrated where the actual and specific subject matter of the contract has ceased to exist
B.A contract will frustrate where circumstances arise which make the performance of the contract impossible in the manner contemplated
C.A contract which required personal performance by promisor is frustrated on the death of the promisor
D.Ceasing of subject matter of contract does not frustrate the contract
Q 47 :
Which of the following is/are not administrative actions ?
A.Internment, Externment and Deportation
B.Functions of Selection Committee
C.Fact-finding Action
D.Forming Optinion on Objective Satisfaction
Q 48 :
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : An appeal shall lie in the Supreme Court from any judgement, final order of sentence in a criminal proceedng of a high Court in the territory of India, if the High Court has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death
Statement II : An appeal shall lie in the Supreme Court from any judgement final order or sentence in a criminal proceeding of a High Court in the territory of India, if the High Court has withdrawn from trial before itself any case from any court subordinate to its authority and has in such a trial convicted the accused person and sentenced him to death
In light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A.Both statements I and II are correct
B.Both statements I and II are incorrect
C.Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D.Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Q 49 :
Pacta Terties Nec Noecent Nec Prosunt Means
A.Multilaeral treatties prevail over bilateral treaties
B.Treaties are no binding in case of situations of emergency
C.Only parties to an international treaty are bound by it
D.The right of innocent passage cannot be thwarted by bilateral treaties
Q 50 :
Greenhouse effect means increase in atmospheric temperature due to the concentration of greenhouse
A.gases in the atmosphere
B.growing vegetables and flowers in increased temperature
C.growing food crops in glass houses
D.photosynthesis in plants grown in sunlight received in the glass house
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A.A public company can be formed with a minimum of nine persons
B.A private company can be formed with two or more persons
C.Memorandum of association is not required or registration of a company
D.Articles of Association is not required for registration of a company
Q 52 :
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : The ex post-facto laws are law which voided and punished an act that had been lawful when done
Reason (R) : Imposing or increasing a penalty with retrospective effect for violation of a taxing statute does not infringe Article 20(1)
In light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 53 :
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Bonn convention I. Protection of the ozone layer
(b) Vienna Convention II. Control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal
(c) Basel convention III. Conservation of migratory species of wild animals
(d) Rotterdam Convention IV. Prior informed consent procedure for certain hazarduous chemicals and pesticides in international trade
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
B.(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
C.(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
D.(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Q 54 :
Arranges the following in chronological order starting from earlier to later years .
I. The Trade Marks Act
II. The Petents Act
III. The Design Act
IV. The Copyright Act
V. The Protection of Plat Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.I, II, III, IV, V
B.II, IV, I, V, III
C.IV, II, I, III, V
D.I, II, III, V, IV
Q 55 :
'Voluntarily' has been defined as an effect caused by means whereby a person intended to cause it or by means at the time of employing those means, to know or had reason to believe to be likely to cause it under
A.Section 35, IPC
B.Section 36, IPC
C.Section 39, IPC
D.Section 40, IPC
Q 56 :
The law relating to armed conflicts of non-international character is governed by
A.Common Article 3 of the Geneva Convention, 1949, or The Additional Protocol I, 1977
B.Common Article 3 of the Geneva Convention, 1949 or the Additional Protocol II, 1977
C.Additional Protocols I and II, 1977
D.Only Additional Protocol I, 1977
Q 57 :
Select the right answer from the given options .
I. COP 26 – Glasgow Climate Change Conference
II. COP 25 – Lima Climate Change Conference
III. COP 24 – Marrakesh Climate Change Conference
IV. COP 22 – Katowice Climate Change Conference
V. COP 21 – Paris Climate Change Conference
Choose the correct answer from the options gien below .
A.I and V
B.II and III
C.II and IV
D.III and IV
Q 58 :
Who amongst the following can be appointed as the Chairperson of the National Human Rights commission (NHRC) ?
A.Only a person who has been the chief Justice of the Supreme Court
B.A person who has been the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court or a Judge of the Supreme Court
C.A person who has been the Chief Justice of a High Court
D.A person who has been a Judge of the High court
Q 59 :
Which of the following can be registered as a trade mark ?
A.Mark devoid of distinctive character
B.A distinctive mark
C.A mark causing confusion
D.Oval shape of medicinal tablet
Q 60 :
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Solomon v/s Solomon I. Voting rights
(b) Royal Britisih Bank v/s Turquand II. Corporate personality
(c) Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron v/s Riche (Ashbury) III. Doctrine of Ultra Vires
(d) Vodafone International Holdings v/s UOI IV. Doctrine of Indoor management
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
B.(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C.(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
D.(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Q 61 :
Which of the following is not correct under the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 ?
A.Producer, in case of agricultural goods, includes the persons who produces the goods
B.Producer, in case of agricultural goods, includes the person who packages such goods
C.Producer, in case of natural goods, includes the person who exploits such goods
D.Producer in case of handicrafts, includes the person who packages such goods
Q 62 :
Match List – I with List II
List I List – II
(a) Application of the act to electronic cheque and truncated cheque I. Section 3A
(b) Electron signature II. Section 81 A
(c) Secure electronic record III. Section 15
(d) Validity of contracts formed through electronic means IV. Section 10A
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (v) (ii) (iii)
B.(v) (iv) (i) (ii)
C.(i) (iii) (ii) (v)
D.(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Q 63 :
The test of reasonable foresight in determining remoteness of damages was first applied in
A.Re: Polemis
B.wagon Mound Case
C.Doughty v/s Turner manufacturing Co Ltd
D.SCM (United Kingdowm) Ltd v/s WJ whittal and sons
Q 64 :
Given below are two statements .
Statements I Hart deals with primary rules of obligtion and secondary rules of recognition
Statements II Hart has nothing to do with the reformulation of analytical positivism
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A.Both statement I and statement II are correct
B.Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C.Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D.Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Q 65 :
Every partner of a partnership firm is liable for all the acts of the firm done while he is a partner. This doctrine is called
A.the doctrince of holding out
B.the doctrine of restitution
C.the doctrine of estoppel
D.the doctrine of proportionality
Q 66 :
Nottebohm's case deals with nationality by
A.naturalisation
B.birth
C.resumption
D.subjugation
Q 67 :
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : Every public company shall have at least three directors and every private company shall have at least two directors
Statement II : There can be a maximum of 15 directors and for having more than 15 directors, the company may pass a special resolution
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A.Both statement I and statement II are correct
B.Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C.Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D.Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Q 68 :
Give below are two statements .
Statement I : A contract which ceases to be enforceable by law becomes void when it ceases to be enforceable
Statement II : An agreement in restraint of trade is voidable
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.Both statement I and statement II are true
B.Both statement I and statement II are false
C.Statement I is true, but statement II is false
D.Statement I is false, but statement II is true
Q 69 :
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : Personal rights are inheritable
Statement II : Legal rights are recognised and enforced by law
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A.Both statement I and statement II are correct
B.Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C.Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D.Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Q 70 :
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Judicial review I. Indira Gandhi v/s Raj Narayan
(b) Free and fair election II. Keshavananda Bharati v/s State of Kerala
(c) Balance between part III and Part IV of the Constitution III. SR Bommai v/s Union of India
(d) Secularism IV. Minerva Mills Ltd v/s Union of India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
B.(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
C.(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
D.(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Q 71 :
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R .
Assertion (A) : The President of India is a mere constitutional head
Reason (R) : In the parliamentary form of government, the Prime Minister is the head of government
In light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 72 :
Which of the following is not a ground of divorce available to wife under section 13(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
A.Pre-Act Bigamaous marriage of the husband
B.Repudiation of marriage
C.Cruelty by husband
D.Husband guilty of rape, sodomy and bestiality
Q 73 :
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : A master is liable for all tortious acts of his servants done in the course of employment
Reason (R) : The representatives of the dead person are in certain cases liable for the acts of the deceased
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C.(A) is false, but (R) is true
D.(A) is true, but (R) is false
Q 74 :
In which one of the following cases, legal aid was held as a Fundamental Right ?
A.Sunil Batra case
B.MH Hoskot case
C.Prem Shankar Shukla case
D.Kesavananda Bharati case
Q 75 :
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all deicisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislations.
Statement II : It is the duty of the Prime Minister to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals or legislation as the President may call for.
In light of the above statements, chose the correct answer from the options given below .