Question for Bihar STET Chemistry 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest Bihar STET Chemistry Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Specific Subject (Chemistry), Art of Teaching, General Knowledge, Environmental Science, Mathematical aptitude, Logical Reasoning

Question Bank Bihar STET Chemistry Exam Paper 2 - English

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Specific Subject (Chemistry)

Question 1Single Answer

The root mean square velocity of a gas is given by:

A
√(3RT/M)
B
√(2RT/M)
C
√(RT/M)
D
√(8RT/πM)

Question 2Single Answer

The most probable velocity of gas molecules is:

A
√(RT/M)
B
√(2RT/M)
C
√(3RT/M)
D
√(8RT/πM)

Question 3Single Answer

The average velocity of gas molecules is:

A
√(2RT/M)
B
√(8RT/πM)
C
√(3RT/M)
D
√(RT/2M)

Question 4Single Answer

For a gas at a given temperature, the correct order of molecular speeds is:

A
uₘₚ > uavg > urms
B
uavg > urms > uₘₚ
C
urms > uavg > uₘₚ
D
urms > uₘₚ > uavg

Question 5Single Answer

The ratio of RMS velocity to most probable velocity is:

A
√(2/3)
B
√(3/2)
C
√(8/3π)
D
√2

Question 6Single Answer

At constant temperature, RMS velocity is inversely proportional to:

A
Molar mass
B
Square of molar mass
C
Square root of molar mass
D
Pressure

Question 7Single Answer

If the absolute temperature of a gas becomes four times, its RMS velocity becomes:

A
Four times
B
Half
C
Twice
D
Unchanged

Question 8Single Answer

Mean free path is the average distance travelled by a molecule:

A
During one second
B
Before striking the vessel wall
C
Between two successive collisions
D
During liquefaction

Question 9Single Answer

The mean free path of gas molecules is inversely proportional to:

A
Temperature
B
Pressure
C
Volume
D
Molecular speed

Question 10Single Answer

Mean free path λ is inversely proportional to the:

A
Collision diameter
B
Cube of collision diameter
C
Square of collision diameter
D
Square root of collision diameter

Question 11Single Answer

The expression for mean free path in terms of number density n and molecular diameter d is:

A
1/(πd²n)
B
√2/(πdn)
C
1/(√2πd²n)
D
1/(2πd³n)

Question 12Single Answer

At constant pressure, the mean free path of an ideal gas is directly proportional to:

A
T
B
1/T
C
T²
D
√T

Question 13Single Answer

Collision diameter represents the:

A
Actual nuclear diameter
B
Effective diameter for molecular collision
C
Diameter of gas container
D
Mean free path

Question 14Single Answer

Real gases show maximum deviation from ideal behavior at:

A
High temperature and low pressure
B
Very low pressure only
C
High temperature and high vacuum
D
Low temperature and high pressure

Question 15Single Answer

An ideal gas obeys the gas equation:

A
PV = RT²
B
PV = nRT
C
P/V = nRT
D
PT = nRV

Question 16Single Answer

For one mole of a van der Waals gas, the equation is:

A
(P + a/V²)(V −
B
= RT

Question 17Single Answer

In the van der Waals equation, constant a accounts for:

A
Molecular volume
B
Intermolecular attraction
C
Molecular mass
D
Temperature correction

Question 18Single Answer

The van der Waals constant b is associated with:

A
Attractive forces
B
Ionization energy
C
Excluded molecular volume
D
Molecular velocity

Question 19Single Answer

A gas having a large value of van der Waals constant a has:

A
Weak intermolecular forces
B
Strong intermolecular attractive forces
C
Very small molecular size only
D
Ideal behavior at all pressures

Question 20Single Answer

For a van der Waals gas, the critical molar volume is:

A
b
B
3b
C
2b
D
4b

Question 21Single Answer

Critical pressure for a van der Waals gas is:

A
a/3b²
B
8a/27Rb
C
a/27b²
D
27a/b²

Question 22Single Answer

Critical temperature for a van der Waals gas is:

A
8a/27Rb
B
a/27Rb
C
27a/8Rb
D
a/Rb

Question 23Single Answer

The critical compressibility factor predicted by the van der Waals equation is:

A
1
B
3/8
C
1/2
D
8/3

Question 24Single Answer

At the critical point of a van der Waals gas:

A
(∂P/∂V)T = 0 only
B
Both first and second derivatives of P with respect to V are zero
C
(∂²P/∂V²)T = 0 only
D
Pressure is zero

Question 25Single Answer

The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied by pressure alone is called:

A
Boyle temperature
B
Inversion temperature
C
Critical temperature
D
Triple-point temperature

Question 26Single Answer

According to the law of corresponding states, gases behave similarly when compared at equal:

A
Reduced variables
B
Temperature and volume
C
Molecular masses
D
Collision diameters

Question 27Single Answer

Reduced temperature is defined as:

A
T/Tc
B
Tc/T
C
T − Tc
D
T + Tc

Question 28Single Answer

Reduced pressure is:

A
Pc/P
B
P/Pc
C
P − Pc
D
PPc

Question 29Single Answer

The Joule–Thomson coefficient is defined as:

A
(∂T/∂P)H
B
(∂P/∂T)V
C
(∂V/∂T)P
D
(∂H/∂T)P

Question 30Single Answer

The Joule–Thomson coefficient for an ideal gas is:

A
Positive
B
Negative
C
Zero
D
Infinite

Question 31Single Answer

During Joule–Thomson expansion, which quantity remains constant?

A
Internal energy
B
Enthalpy
C
Entropy
D
Temperature

Question 32Single Answer

A gas cools during Joule–Thomson expansion when μJT is:

A
Infinite
B
Negative
C
Zero
D
Positive

Question 33Single Answer

The temperature at which the Joule–Thomson coefficient becomes zero is called:

A
Boyle temperature
B
Critical temperature
C
Inversion temperature
D
Freezing temperature

Question 34Single Answer

The maximum inversion temperature predicted for a van der Waals gas is:

A
a/Rb
B
8a/27Rb
C
2a/Rb
D
a/27Rb

Question 35Single Answer

The Linde process of liquefaction primarily uses:

A
Joule–Thomson expansion
B
Isothermal compression only
C
Adiabatic compression only
D
Electrolysis

Question 36Single Answer

The de Broglie wavelength of a moving particle is given by:

A
λ = p/h
B
λ = h/p
C
λ = hp
D
λ = hE

Question 37Single Answer

The de Broglie relation establishes the:

A
Charge of electron
B
Wave nature of matter
C
Nuclear structure
D
Atomic number

Question 38Single Answer

According to de Broglie, wavelength is inversely proportional to:

A
Charge
B
Velocity only
C
Energy only
D
Momentum

Question 39Single Answer

For a particle of mass m moving with velocity v, de Broglie wavelength is:

A
hm/v
B
mv/h
C
hv/m
D
h/mv

Question 40Single Answer

The wave nature of electrons was experimentally demonstrated by:

A
Rutherford and Soddy
B
Davisson and Germer
C
Moseley and Bohr
D
Chadwick and Aston

Question 41Single Answer

The Davisson-Germer experiment involved diffraction of electrons by:

A
Sodium chloride solution
B
Nickel crystal
C
Graphite powder only
D
Hydrogen gas

Question 42Single Answer

Matter waves are associated with:

A
Atomic nuclei only
B
Stationary classical waves only
C
Photons only
D
Moving material particles

Question 43Single Answer

The de Broglie wavelength of a stationary particle is theoretically:

A
Equal to h
B
Zero
C
Infinite
D
Equal to its mass

Question 44Single Answer

For particles moving with equal velocity, de Broglie wavelength is larger for the particle having:

A
Smaller mass
B
Larger mass
C
Greater charge
D
Greater radius necessarily

Question 45Single Answer

The wave-particle duality applies to:

A
Matter only
B
Radiation only
C
Both radiation and matter
D
Neither

Question 46Single Answer

Heisenberg's uncertainty principle states that exact position and ______ cannot simultaneously be known.

A
Charge
B
Momentum
C
Mass
D
Spin

Question 47Single Answer

The uncertainty relation is:

A
ΔxΔp ≥ h/4π
B
ΔxΔp = 0
C
ΔxΔp ≤ h/4π
D
ΔxΔp = h

Question 48Single Answer

If uncertainty in position decreases, uncertainty in momentum:

A
Increases
B
Decreases
C
Remains zero
D
Remains exactly constant

Question 49Single Answer

Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is significant mainly for:

A
Bulk liquids
B
Macroscopic bodies only
C
Planets only
D
Microscopic particles

Question 50Single Answer

The uncertainty principle is a consequence of:

A
Nuclear fission
B
Wave nature of matter
C
Periodicity
D
Ionic bonding

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7.	Bihar STET Chemistry Exam Paper 2 - English Description : 2000 Question with Answer	₹141 ~~[₹500]~~
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Specific Subject (Chemistry)

Question 51Single Answer

The product ΔEΔt is subject to an uncertainty relation approximately:

A
≤ h/4π
B
= 0
C
≥ h/4π
D
= RT

Question 52Single Answer

Schrödinger's equation is fundamental to:

A
Thermodynamics
B
Classical mechanics only
C
Nuclear decay only
D
Wave mechanics

Question 53Single Answer

The time-independent Schrödinger equation is commonly written as:

A
Ĥψ = Eψ
B
E = mc²
C
PV = nRT
D
λ = hν

Question 54Single Answer

In Schrödinger's equation, ψ represents the:

A
Wave function
B
Nuclear charge
C
Momentum only
D
Atomic mass

Question 55Single Answer

The quantity |ψ|² represents:

A
Energy
B
Probability density
C
Momentum
D
Charge density only

Question 56Single Answer

A physically acceptable wave function must be:

A
Infinite everywhere
B
Single-valued and finite
C
Discontinuous everywhere
D
Multivalued

Question 57Single Answer

A normalized wave function satisfies:

A
∫ψdτ = 0 always
B
∫|ψ|²dτ = 1
C
∫|ψ|²dτ = ∞
D
ψ = 1 everywhere

Question 58Single Answer

An atomic orbital is described by:

A
A wave function
B
A circular path only
C
A fixed shell radius only
D
A nuclear trajectory

Question 59Single Answer

A node is a region where:

A
ψ is maximum
B
ψ = 0
C
Energy is zero always
D
Electron charge vanishes

Question 60Single Answer

Total number of nodes in an orbital is:

A
n − 1
B
n
C
l + 1
D
2n

Question 61Single Answer

Number of angular nodes is:

A
n − l
B
n
C
l
D
n + l

Question 62Single Answer

Number of radial nodes is:

A
n + l
B
n − l − 1
C
l − 1
D
2l + 1

Question 63Single Answer

The 1s orbital has:

A
One radial node
B
No nodes
C
One angular node
D
Two nodes

Question 64Single Answer

The 2s orbital has:

A
No nodes
B
One angular node
C
Two angular nodes
D
One radial node

Question 65Single Answer

The 2p orbital has:

A
One radial node
B
One angular node
C
Two radial nodes
D
No nodes

Question 66Single Answer

The 3s orbital has:

A
One radial node
B
Two radial nodes
C
Two angular nodes
D
Three radial nodes

Question 67Single Answer

The 3p orbital has:

A
One radial and one angular node
B
Two radial nodes
C
Two angular nodes only
D
No radial node

Question 68Single Answer

The 3d orbital has:

A
One angular node
B
Two angular nodes and no radial node
C
Two radial nodes
D
Three angular nodes

Question 69Single Answer

The principal quantum number is represented by:

Question 70Single Answer

Principal quantum number primarily determines:

A
Shell and approximate orbital size
B
Orbital orientation
C
Electron spin
D
Magnetic moment only

Question 71Single Answer

Organic chemistry primarily deals with compounds of:

A
Silicon only
B
Sodium
C
Carbon
D
Iron

Question 72Single Answer

The ability of carbon atoms to link with one another is called:

A
Ionization
B
Hydration
C
Solvation
D
Catenation

Question 73Single Answer

Carbon shows extensive catenation mainly because of the:

A
Low electronegativity of carbon
B
Large atomic size of carbon
C
Presence of d orbitals
D
High strength of C–C bonds

Question 74Single Answer

Carbon in most organic compounds is:

A
Monovalent
B
Divalent
C
Tetravalent
D
Hexavalent

Question 75Single Answer

Compounds containing only carbon and hydrogen are called:

A
Amines
B
Alcohols
C
Ethers
D
Hydrocarbons

Question 76Single Answer

Hydrocarbons containing only single bonds are:

A
Aromatic ions
B
Unsaturated hydrocarbons
C
Saturated hydrocarbons
D
Carbonyl compounds

Question 77Single Answer

Alkenes contain at least one:

A
C=C bond
B
C≡C bond
C
C=O bond
D
O–H bond

Question 78Single Answer

Alkynes contain at least one:

A
C=N bond only
B
C=C bond
C
C–O–C bond
D
C≡C bond

Question 79Single Answer

An open-chain organic compound is also called:

A
Heterocyclic compound
B
Alicyclic compound
C
Acyclic compound
D
Aromatic compound

Question 80Single Answer

Cyclohexane is classified as:

A
Acyclic
B
Aromatic
C
Heterocyclic
D
Alicyclic

Question 81Single Answer

Benzene is classified as:

A
Heterocyclic
B
Alicyclic saturated
C
Aromatic carbocyclic
D
Acyclic

Question 82Single Answer

Pyridine is a:

A
Alicyclic compound
B
Heterocyclic aromatic compound
C
Acyclic compound
D
Saturated hydrocarbon

Question 83Single Answer

A functional group is:

A
A catalyst
B
The carbon skeleton only
C
An atom or group responsible for characteristic chemical reactions
D
A solvent

Question 84Single Answer

The functional group in alcohols is:

A
–COOH
B
–CHO
C
–OH
D
–NH₂

Question 85Single Answer

The functional group in aldehydes is:

A
–CO–
B
–COOH
C
–CHO
D
–OH

Question 86Single Answer

The functional group in ketones is:

A
–CN
B
–CHO
C
–COOH
D
>C=O

Question 87Single Answer

The functional group of carboxylic acids is:

A
–CHO
B
–COOH
C
–COOR
D
–CONH₂

Question 88Single Answer

The functional group in nitriles is:

A
–C≡N
B
–N≡C
C
–NO₂
D
–NH₂

Question 89Single Answer

The functional group in nitro compounds is:

A
–NO₂
B
–NH₂
C
–CN
D
–NCO

Question 90Single Answer

Members of a homologous series differ by:

A
–CH₃
B
–CH₂–
C
–OH
D
–COOH

Question 91Single Answer

The molecular mass difference between successive homologues is:

A
16 u
B
12 u
C
14 u
D
18 u

Question 92Single Answer

The general formula of open-chain alkanes is:

A
CₙHₙ
B
CₙH₂ₙ
C
CₙH₂ₙ₋₂
D
CₙH₂ₙ₊₂

Question 93Single Answer

The general formula of acyclic monoalkenes is:

A
CₙH₂ₙ₋₂
B
CₙH₂ₙ₊₂
C
CₙH₂ₙ
D
CₙHₙ₊₂

Question 94Single Answer

The general formula of acyclic monoalkynes is:

A
CₙH₂ₙ
B
CₙH₂ₙ₋₂
C
CₙH₂ₙ₊₂
D
CₙHₙ

Question 95Single Answer

An atom other than carbon and hydrogen in an organic molecule is often called a:

A
Carbocation
B
Heteroatom
C
Electrophile
D
Radical

Question 96Single Answer

The IUPAC name of CH₄ is:

A
Ethane
B
Methane
C
Methene
D
Methyl

Question 97Single Answer

The IUPAC name of C₂H₆ is:

A
Propane
B
Methane
C
Ethane
D
Ethene

Question 98Single Answer

CH₃CH₂CH₃ is:

A
Butane
B
Propene
C
Propane
D
Ethane

Question 99Single Answer

CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₃ is:

A
Pentane
B
Butene
C
Propane
D
Butane

Question 100Single Answer

CH₃CH(CH₃)CH₃ is:

A
Butane
B
1-Methylpropane
C
2-Methylbutane
D
2-Methylpropane

Art of Teaching

Question 101Single Answer

What is the primary meaning of teaching in educational contexts?

A
Managing classroom discipline
B
Grading student assignments
C
Imparting knowledge and facilitating learning
D
Organizing school events

Question 102Single Answer

Which of the following best describes the process of learning?

A
Passive absorption of facts
B
Active construction of knowledge through interaction
C
Memorization without application
D
Teacher's lecture only

Question 103Single Answer

What is a key characteristic of effective teaching?

A
Strict adherence to routine
B
Adaptability to students' needs
C
Ignoring individual differences
D
Focus on rote learning

Question 104Single Answer

In the teaching-learning process, what role does motivation play?

A
It is irrelevant
B
It only affects teachers
C
It drives student engagement and persistence
D
It hinders progress

Question 105Single Answer

What does learning primarily involve according to modern pedagogy?

A
Temporary recall of information
B
Physical exercise only
C
Permanent change in behavior through experience
D
Group competitions

Question 106Single Answer

Which characteristic is essential for the teaching process?

A
Isolation from students
B
No planning required
C
Interaction between teacher and learner
D
Uniform pace for all

Question 107Single Answer

What is the core of the learning process?

A
Sequential stages of acquisition, retention, and application
B
Random exposure to stimuli
C
End-product evaluation only
D
Teacher dominance

Question 108Single Answer

Which of the following is a characteristic of mature learning?

A
Dependence on external rewards
B
Short-term and superficial
C
Self-directed and reflective
D
Identical for every learner

Question 109Single Answer

How is teaching differentiated from training?

A
Teaching focuses on holistic development
B
Training is more interactive
C
They are identical
D
Teaching lacks structure

Question 110Single Answer

What does 'interactive' mean in the characteristics of teaching?

A
One-way communication
B
Two-way exchange of ideas
C
No student input
D
Digital tools only

Question 111Single Answer

What is the most appropriate meaning of teaching?

A
Transfer of information from books
B
Controlling the behaviour of learners
C
Testing learners at regular intervals
D
A planned process of facilitating learning

Question 112Single Answer

Which characteristic best describes effective teaching?

A
It is entirely teacher-centred
B
It facilitates purposeful learning
C
It discourages interaction
D
It depends only on textbooks

Question 113Single Answer

Learning is best understood as which of the following?

A
A relatively lasting change resulting from experience
B
A temporary change caused by fatigue
C
A change caused only by maturation
D
Memorisation without understanding

Question 114Single Answer

Which element is essential in the teaching-learning process?

A
Dependence on examinations alone
B
Complete silence in the classroom
C
Interaction between teacher and learner
D
Uniform ability among learners

Question 115Single Answer

Teaching is considered a purposeful activity because it is primarily directed towards what?

A
Achieving predetermined learning objectives
B
Completing the textbook quickly
C
Maintaining strict discipline
D
Increasing written homework

Question 116Single Answer

Which is an important characteristic of learning?

A
Learning is always temporary
B
Learning can bring changes in behaviour or understanding
C
Learning occurs only in schools
D
Learning is independent of experience

Question 117Single Answer

In learner-centred teaching, the teacher primarily performs the role of what?

A
Facilitator
B
Dictator
C
Examiner
D
Controller

Question 118Single Answer

Which process provides information about learners' progress during instruction?

A
Admission
B
Assessment
C
Administration
D
Classification

Question 119Single Answer

Teaching becomes more effective when new knowledge is connected with what?

A
Punishment
B
Examination pressure
C
Previous knowledge
D
Teacher authority

Question 120Single Answer

Which statement about teaching and learning is most appropriate?

A
Teaching and learning are unrelated activities
B
Teaching guarantees identical learning among students
C
Learning occurs only after formal teaching
D
Effective teaching facilitates meaningful learning

Question 121Single Answer

Which characteristic makes teaching a social process?

A
It always follows one method
B
It requires written examinations
C
It takes place only in institutions
D
It involves interaction among individuals

Question 122Single Answer

Which factor is most closely associated with meaningful learning?

A
Linking concepts with existing cognitive structures
B
Mechanical repetition alone
C
Memorising definitions without context
D
Avoiding learner participation

Question 123Single Answer

The teaching-learning process is considered dynamic because what happens?

A
Students remain passive throughout instruction
B
The syllabus never changes
C
Only teachers make decisions
D
Its participants and situations continuously interact and change

Question 124Single Answer

Which activity reflects active learning?

A
Copying notes continuously
B
Listening without responding
C
Participating in problem-solving activities
D
Memorising every sentence of a chapter

Question 125Single Answer

Feedback in teaching is mainly useful for what purpose?

A
Identifying progress and improving learning
B
Increasing competition only
C
Punishing weak students
D
Reducing classroom interaction

Question 126Single Answer

Which of the following is generally regarded as evidence of learning?

A
Temporary change due to illness
B
Relatively permanent change in knowledge, skill or behaviour
C
Change solely due to physical growth
D
Short-term fatigue

Question 127Single Answer

Effective teaching should primarily take into consideration what?

A
Teacher convenience alone
B
Individual differences among learners
C
Only high-performing students
D
Only examination results

Question 128Single Answer

Which teaching practice is most likely to promote understanding?

A
Asking learners to reproduce notes exactly
B
Relating concepts to examples and applications
C
Discouraging questions
D
Avoiding classroom discussion

Question 129Single Answer

Motivation has what role in learning?

A
It completely eliminates individual differences
B
It generally increases willingness to engage in learning
C
It makes teaching unnecessary
D
It replaces previous knowledge

Question 130Single Answer

Which is an important feature of good classroom communication?

A
One-way transmission only
B
Clear expression and appropriate feedback
C
Maximum use of difficult terminology
D
Absence of student questions

General Knowledge

Question 131Single Answer

Which civilization is associated with the cities of Harappa and Mohenjo-daro?

A
Vedic Civilization
B
Mauryan Civilization
C
Gupta Civilization
D
Indus Valley Civilization

Question 132Single Answer

The Great Bath was discovered at which Harappan site?

A
Harappa
B
Lothal
C
Kalibangan
D
Mohenjo-daro

Question 133Single Answer

Which is the oldest Veda?

A
Samaveda
B
Yajurveda
C
Atharvaveda
D
Rigveda

Question 134Single Answer

The Gayatri Mantra is found in which Veda?

A
Samaveda
B
Rigveda
C
Atharvaveda
D
Yajurveda

Question 135Single Answer

Who was the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism?

A
Parshvanatha
B
Rishabhanatha
C
Mahavira
D
Ajitanatha

Environmental Science

Question 136Single Answer

What is environmental pollution?

A
Natural recycling of nutrients
B
Conservation of natural resources
C
Undesirable change in environmental quality
D
Formation of ecosystems

Question 137Single Answer

Which of the following is a major source of air pollution in urban areas?

A
Vehicular emissions
B
Rainwater harvesting
C
Afforestation
D
Organic farming

Question 138Single Answer

Which gas is mainly responsible for the formation of acid rain along with nitrogen oxides?

A
Sulphur dioxide
B
Oxygen
C
Hydrogen
D
Helium

Question 139Single Answer

Carbon monoxide is mainly produced by which process?

A
Complete combustion
B
Photosynthesis
C
Incomplete combustion
D
Nitrogen fixation

Question 140Single Answer

Which pollutant reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood by binding with haemoglobin?

A
Carbon monoxide
B
Sulphur dioxide
C
Nitrogen
D
Ozone

Mathematical aptitude

Question 141Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 142Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 143Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 144Single Answer

Passage :

information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206

Question 145Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these

Logical Reasoning

Question 146Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 147Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 148Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 149Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 150Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

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