Question for Bihar STET Geography 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest Bihar STET Geography Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Specific Subject (Geography), Art of Teaching, General Knowledge, Environmental Science, Mathematical aptitude, Logical Reasoning

Question Bank Bihar STET Geography Exam Paper 2 - English

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Specific Subject (Geography)

Question 1Single Answer

Who proposed the Nebular Hypothesis in 1755?

A
Laplace
B
Holmes
C
Jeans
D
Kant

Question 2Single Answer

Kant explained the origin of the solar system from a:

A
Solid mass
B
Black hole
C
Gaseous nebula
D
Meteorite swarm

Question 3Single Answer

Laplace presented his Nebular Hypothesis in:

A
1796
B
1859
C
1919
D
1929

Question 4Single Answer

According to Laplace, planets originated from:

A
Passing stars
B
Comets
C
Rings detached from a rotating nebula
D
Solar flares

Question 5Single Answer

The Planetesimal Hypothesis is associated with:

A
Kant and Laplace
B
Chamberlin and Moulton
C
Jeans and Jeffreys
D
Holmes and Wegener

Question 6Single Answer

The Tidal Hypothesis is primarily associated with:

A
William Morris Davis
B
Alfred Wegener
C
Arthur Holmes
D
James Jeans

Question 7Single Answer

According to Jeans, planets formed due to:

A
Volcanic eruptions
B
Tidal material drawn from the Sun
C
Collision of planets
D
Expansion of Earth

Question 8Single Answer

Which scientist modified Jeans's Tidal Hypothesis?

A
Airy
B
Pratt
C
Jeffreys
D
Penck

Question 9Single Answer

The Big Bang Theory explains the origin of the:

A
Earth only
B
Universe
C
Solar system only
D
Moon only

Question 10Single Answer

The Big Bang Theory proposes that the universe initially existed in an extremely:

A
Cold and dispersed state
B
Solid state
C
Hot and dense state
D
Liquid state

Question 11Single Answer

Evidence supporting the expansion of the universe is provided by:

A
Red shift
B
Blue shift only
C
Earthquakes
D
Ocean tides

Question 12Single Answer

Hubble's observations showed that distant galaxies are generally:

A
Approaching Earth
B
Stationary
C
Moving away from Earth
D
Rotating around Earth

Question 13Single Answer

Cosmic microwave background radiation is evidence for the:

A
Continental Drift Theory
B
Tidal Hypothesis
C
Big Bang Theory
D
Isostasy Theory

Question 14Single Answer

Laplace's hypothesis is mainly based on the concept of:

A
Ocean currents
B
Plate movement
C
Radioactivity
D
Rotational contraction

Question 15Single Answer

A major criticism of the classical Nebular Hypothesis concerns the distribution of:

A
Angular momentum
B
Rainfall
C
Ocean salinity
D
Atmospheric pressure

Question 16Single Answer

The innermost layer of the Earth is called the:

A
Crust
B
Mantle
C
Core
D
Asthenosphere

Question 17Single Answer

The Earth's crust is thickest beneath:

A
Ocean basins
B
Mid-ocean ridges
C
Continental mountain ranges
D
Deep-sea trenches

Question 18Single Answer

The average thickness of oceanic crust is approximately:

A
500 km
B
30–40 km
C
100 km
D
5–10 km

Question 19Single Answer

Continental crust is mainly composed of:

A
Basalt
B
Nickel and iron
C
Granite-rich rocks
D
Peridotite only

Question 20Single Answer

Oceanic crust is mainly composed of:

A
Granite
B
Limestone
C
Basalt
D
Sandstone

Question 21Single Answer

The Mohorovičić discontinuity separates the:

A
Inner and outer core
B
Crust and mantle
C
Upper and lower mantle
D
Troposphere and stratosphere

Question 22Single Answer

The Gutenberg discontinuity occurs between the:

A
Crust and mantle
B
Mantle and outer core
C
Outer and inner core
D
Lithosphere and asthenosphere

Question 23Single Answer

The Lehmann discontinuity separates the:

A
Crust and mantle
B
Mantle and core
C
Lithosphere and asthenosphere
D
Outer and inner core

Question 24Single Answer

Which seismic waves cannot pass through liquids?

A
S-waves
B
P-waves
C
Surface waves
D
Sound waves

Question 25Single Answer

P-waves can travel through:

A
Solids only
B
Solids, liquids and gases
C
Liquids only
D
Vacuum only

Question 26Single Answer

The outer core of Earth is mainly:

A
Solid
B
Semi-vacuum
C
Gaseous
D
Liquid

Question 27Single Answer

The inner core is believed to be:

A
Liquid
B
Gaseous
C
Solid
D
Molten rock only

Question 28Single Answer

The Earth's magnetic field is primarily generated by movements in the:

A
Crust
B
Mantle
C
Inner crust
D
Outer core

Question 29Single Answer

The lithosphere includes the:

A
Asthenosphere only
B
Entire mantle
C
Entire core
D
Crust and uppermost mantle

Question 30Single Answer

The asthenosphere is characterized by:

A
Complete rigidity
B
Plastic and partially molten material
C
Gaseous material
D
Absence of heat

Question 31Single Answer

The concept of isostasy explains the:

A
Movement of tides
B
Balance of the Earth's crust
C
Formation of clouds
D
Origin of winds

Question 32Single Answer

The term “isostasy” was coined by:

A
Dutton
B
Airy
C
Pratt
D
Wegener

Question 33Single Answer

Airy's concept of isostasy assumes that crustal blocks have:

A
Equal thickness and different densities
B
No roots
C
Equal density and equal thickness
D
Different thicknesses but similar density

Question 34Single Answer

According to Airy, mountains possess:

A
High-density cores
B
Deep crustal roots
C
No roots
D
Oceanic trenches beneath them

Question 35Single Answer

Pratt's concept assumes crustal blocks have:

A
Different densities
B
Equal densities
C
No variation in height
D
Equal temperature

Question 36Single Answer

According to Pratt, higher regions are generally composed of:

A
Denser material
B
Less dense material
C
Metallic material
D
Oceanic basalt only

Question 37Single Answer

In Airy's model, compensation is achieved mainly through variations in:

A
Density
B
Crustal thickness
C
Salinity
D
Pressure

Question 38Single Answer

Isostatic adjustment can occur following:

A
Lunar eclipse
B
Erosion and deposition
C
Solar eclipse
D
Ocean evaporation only

Question 39Single Answer

Post-glacial uplift in Scandinavia is an example of:

A
Volcanism
B
Tidal erosion
C
Isostatic adjustment
D
Folding

Question 40Single Answer

Isostatic equilibrium is comparable to objects floating according to:

A
Pascal's law
B
Archimedes' principle
C
Newton's first law
D
Boyle's law

Question 41Single Answer

The point within the Earth where an earthquake originates is called the:

A
Epicentre
B
Focus
C
Fault scarp
D
Crater

Question 42Single Answer

The point on the Earth's surface directly above the focus is the:

A
Hypocentre
B
Caldera
C
Vent
D
Epicentre

Question 43Single Answer

Most earthquakes occur along:

A
River valleys
B
Equator only
C
Plate boundaries
D
Desert dunes

Question 44Single Answer

The instrument used to record earthquake waves is a:

A
Barometer
B
Thermometer
C
Seismograph
D
Hygrometer

Question 45Single Answer

The magnitude of an earthquake has traditionally been expressed using the:

A
Beaufort scale
B
Celsius scale
C
Richter scale
D
Mohs scale

Question 46Single Answer

The Mercalli scale measures earthquake:

A
Magnitude only
B
Depth only
C
Wave velocity
D
Intensity and effects

Question 47Single Answer

Tsunamis are commonly generated by:

A
Snowfall
B
Desert winds
C
River erosion
D
Submarine earthquakes

Question 48Single Answer

The Pacific “Ring of Fire” is associated with frequent:

A
Glaciation
B
Volcanic eruptions and earthquakes
C
Desertification
D
Tornadoes only

Question 49Single Answer

Magma reaching the Earth's surface is called:

A
Moraine
B
Loess
C
Lava
D
Regolith

Question 50Single Answer

A volcanic opening through which magma is erupted is called a:

A
Delta
B
Vent
C
Cirque
D
Gorge

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Specific Subject (Geography)

Question 51Single Answer

A broad volcano with gentle slopes is known as a:

A
Shield volcano
B
Composite cone
C
Cinder cone
D
Lava dome

Question 52Single Answer

Shield volcanoes are generally formed by:

A
Ice deposition
B
Highly viscous rhyolitic lava only
C
Fluid basaltic lava
D
Limestone solution

Question 53Single Answer

Composite volcanoes are also called:

A
Batholiths
B
Shield volcanoes
C
Plateaus
D
Stratovolcanoes

Question 54Single Answer

A large volcanic depression formed by collapse is called a:

A
Yardang
B
Drumlin
C
Polje
D
Caldera

Question 55Single Answer

The Deccan Traps were mainly formed by:

A
Folding
B
Glacial erosion
C
Fissure eruptions
D
River deposition

Question 56Single Answer

Kober's theory of mountain building emphasized:

A
Geosynclines
B
Sea-floor spreading
C
Glaciation
D
Tides

Question 57Single Answer

According to Kober, the rigid blocks bordering a geosyncline are called:

A
Horsts
B
Forelands
C
Grabens
D
Calderas

Question 58Single Answer

Kober believed mountains were formed by:

A
Volcanic dust deposition
B
Wind erosion
C
Ocean currents
D
Compression of geosynclinal sediments

Question 59Single Answer

The central zone between converging forelands in Kober's model is called the:

A
Delta
B
Rift valley
C
Abyssal plain
D
Median mass

Question 60Single Answer

Arthur Holmes explained mountain building mainly through:

A
Ocean tides
B
Lunar gravity
C
Mantle convection currents
D
Wind action

Question 61Single Answer

Holmes proposed convection currents in the:

A
Atmosphere
B
Earth's mantle
C
Oceans only
D
Inner core only

Question 62Single Answer

Holmes's theory later contributed significantly to the development of:

A
Tidal theory
B
Davisian cycle
C
Climatic classification
D
Plate tectonics

Question 63Single Answer

The principal driving force of continental movement according to Holmes was:

A
Earth's rotation only
B
Thermal convection
C
Lunar attraction
D
River erosion

Question 64Single Answer

Kober's theory is primarily a theory of:

A
Orogenesis
B
Pediplanation
C
Atmospheric circulation
D
Ocean salinity

Question 65Single Answer

Orogenesis refers to:

A
Cloud formation
B
Soil formation
C
River erosion
D
Mountain building

Question 66Single Answer

Continental Drift Theory was proposed by:

A
Pratt
B
Arthur Holmes
C
Harry Hess
D
Alfred Wegener

Question 67Single Answer

Wegener published his major work on continental drift in:

A
1859
B
1796
C
1915
D
1968

Question 68Single Answer

Wegener suggested that all continents were once united into:

A
Laurasia only
B
Gondwana only
C
Pangaea
D
Panthalassa

Question 69Single Answer

The enormous ocean surrounding Pangaea was called:

A
Panthalassa
B
Tethys
C
Atlantic
D
Pacific Ring

Question 70Single Answer

Pangaea was divided into northern:

A
Laurasia
B
Gondwanaland
C
Tethys
D
Panthalassa

Question 71Single Answer

The southern part of Pangaea was called:

A
Laurasia
B
Laurentia only
C
Eurasia
D
Gondwanaland

Question 72Single Answer

The sea separating Laurasia and Gondwanaland was the:

A
Red Sea
B
Arabian Sea
C
Tethys Sea
D
Baltic Sea

Question 73Single Answer

The matching coastlines of South America and Africa were used by Wegener as:

A
Climatic evidence only
B
Geometric evidence
C
Astronomical evidence
D
Hydrological evidence

Question 74Single Answer

Fossils of Mesosaurus found in South America and Africa support:

A
Tidal theory
B
Isostasy
C
Continental drift
D
Davisian erosion

Question 75Single Answer

Glossopteris fossils provide evidence for the former unity of:

A
Gondwanaland
B
Laurasia only
C
North America only
D
Europe only

Question 76Single Answer

Wegener's theory was criticized mainly because he could not satisfactorily explain:

A
Fossil similarities
B
The mechanism of continental movement
C
Coastline fit
D
Glacial deposits

Question 77Single Answer

Wegener suggested continental movement was partly caused by:

A
Mantle plumes only
B
Pole-fleeing force and tidal force
C
Magnetic reversal only
D
River erosion

Question 78Single Answer

Tillite deposits found in widely separated southern continents indicate ancient:

A
Volcanism
B
Glaciation
C
Desertification
D
Marine deposition

Question 79Single Answer

The Appalachian mountains correlate geologically with mountain systems in:

A
India only
B
Australia
C
Antarctica only
D
Europe

Question 80Single Answer

Wegener was originally a:

A
Botanist
B
Oceanographer only
C
German meteorologist and geophysicist
D
Chemist

Question 81Single Answer

The theory of plate tectonics became widely accepted during the:

A
1760s
B
1960s
C
1860s
D
1920s only

Question 82Single Answer

Lithospheric plates move over the relatively weak:

A
Asthenosphere
B
Inner core
C
Lower core
D
Mesosphere of atmosphere

Question 83Single Answer

A boundary where plates move apart is called:

A
Transform boundary
B
Convergent boundary
C
Divergent boundary
D
Passive boundary

Question 84Single Answer

Mid-ocean ridges are mainly associated with:

A
Transform faults only
B
Convergent boundaries
C
Divergent plate boundaries
D
Stable continental interiors

Question 85Single Answer

A boundary where two plates move toward each other is:

A
Passive
B
Divergent
C
Transform
D
Convergent

Question 86Single Answer

Subduction commonly occurs where:

A
Continents remain stationary
B
Plates diverge
C
No plates exist
D
Oceanic and continental plates converge

Question 87Single Answer

The Andes Mountains formed mainly because of convergence between the:

A
Nazca and South American plates
B
Pacific and African plates
C
Indian and Antarctic plates
D
Eurasian and Arabian plates only

Question 88Single Answer

The Himalayas formed due to collision between the:

A
Indian and Eurasian plates
B
African and Antarctic plates
C
Pacific and Nazca plates
D
North American and Pacific plates

Question 89Single Answer

Transform boundaries are characterized by plates:

A
Remaining fixed
B
Moving directly apart
C
Subducting vertically only
D
Sliding past one another

Question 90Single Answer

The San Andreas Fault is an example of a:

A
Continental collision zone
B
Divergent boundary
C
Transform boundary
D
Hotspot only

Question 91Single Answer

Sea-floor spreading was strongly developed by:

A
Wegener
B
Harry Hess
C
Kober
D
Davis

Question 92Single Answer

New oceanic crust is created mainly at:

A
Mid-ocean ridges
B
Deep-sea trenches
C
Continental shields
D
River valleys

Question 93Single Answer

Old oceanic crust is commonly destroyed at:

A
Floodplains
B
Mid-ocean ridges
C
Hotspots only
D
Subduction zones

Question 94Single Answer

Deep-sea trenches commonly occur at:

A
River mouths
B
Divergent margins
C
Continental interiors
D
Convergent plate margins

Question 95Single Answer

Paleomagnetic stripes on either side of mid-ocean ridges provide evidence for:

A
Isostasy
B
Sea-floor spreading
C
River capture
D
Desert erosion

Question 96Single Answer

Folding is mainly caused by:

A
Chemical weathering
B
Tensional forces
C
Wind erosion
D
Compressional forces

Question 97Single Answer

An upward arch in folded rock strata is called an:

A
Anticline
B
Syncline
C
Graben
D
Rift valley

Question 98Single Answer

A downward fold is called a:

A
Escarpment
B
Anticline
C
Horst
D
Syncline

Question 99Single Answer

A fold whose limbs dip equally in opposite directions is a:

A
Isoclinal fold
B
Overturned fold
C
Recumbent fold
D
Symmetrical fold

Question 100Single Answer

In an asymmetrical fold:

A
No limbs exist
B
Both limbs are horizontal
C
Both limbs have equal dips
D
One limb is steeper than the other

Art of Teaching

Question 101Single Answer

What is the primary meaning of teaching in educational contexts?

A
Managing classroom discipline
B
Grading student assignments
C
Imparting knowledge and facilitating learning
D
Organizing school events

Question 102Single Answer

Which of the following best describes the process of learning?

A
Passive absorption of facts
B
Active construction of knowledge through interaction
C
Memorization without application
D
Teacher's lecture only

Question 103Single Answer

What is a key characteristic of effective teaching?

A
Strict adherence to routine
B
Adaptability to students' needs
C
Ignoring individual differences
D
Focus on rote learning

Question 104Single Answer

In the teaching-learning process, what role does motivation play?

A
It is irrelevant
B
It only affects teachers
C
It drives student engagement and persistence
D
It hinders progress

Question 105Single Answer

What does learning primarily involve according to modern pedagogy?

A
Temporary recall of information
B
Physical exercise only
C
Permanent change in behavior through experience
D
Group competitions

Question 106Single Answer

Which characteristic is essential for the teaching process?

A
Isolation from students
B
No planning required
C
Interaction between teacher and learner
D
Uniform pace for all

Question 107Single Answer

What is the core of the learning process?

A
Sequential stages of acquisition, retention, and application
B
Random exposure to stimuli
C
End-product evaluation only
D
Teacher dominance

Question 108Single Answer

Which of the following is a characteristic of mature learning?

A
Dependence on external rewards
B
Short-term and superficial
C
Self-directed and reflective
D
Identical for every learner

Question 109Single Answer

How is teaching differentiated from training?

A
Teaching focuses on holistic development
B
Training is more interactive
C
They are identical
D
Teaching lacks structure

Question 110Single Answer

What does 'interactive' mean in the characteristics of teaching?

A
One-way communication
B
Two-way exchange of ideas
C
No student input
D
Digital tools only

Question 111Single Answer

What is the most appropriate meaning of teaching?

A
Transfer of information from books
B
Controlling the behaviour of learners
C
Testing learners at regular intervals
D
A planned process of facilitating learning

Question 112Single Answer

Which characteristic best describes effective teaching?

A
It is entirely teacher-centred
B
It facilitates purposeful learning
C
It discourages interaction
D
It depends only on textbooks

Question 113Single Answer

Learning is best understood as which of the following?

A
A relatively lasting change resulting from experience
B
A temporary change caused by fatigue
C
A change caused only by maturation
D
Memorisation without understanding

Question 114Single Answer

Which element is essential in the teaching-learning process?

A
Dependence on examinations alone
B
Complete silence in the classroom
C
Interaction between teacher and learner
D
Uniform ability among learners

Question 115Single Answer

Teaching is considered a purposeful activity because it is primarily directed towards what?

A
Achieving predetermined learning objectives
B
Completing the textbook quickly
C
Maintaining strict discipline
D
Increasing written homework

Question 116Single Answer

Which is an important characteristic of learning?

A
Learning is always temporary
B
Learning can bring changes in behaviour or understanding
C
Learning occurs only in schools
D
Learning is independent of experience

Question 117Single Answer

In learner-centred teaching, the teacher primarily performs the role of what?

A
Facilitator
B
Dictator
C
Examiner
D
Controller

Question 118Single Answer

Which process provides information about learners' progress during instruction?

A
Admission
B
Assessment
C
Administration
D
Classification

Question 119Single Answer

Teaching becomes more effective when new knowledge is connected with what?

A
Punishment
B
Examination pressure
C
Previous knowledge
D
Teacher authority

Question 120Single Answer

Which statement about teaching and learning is most appropriate?

A
Teaching and learning are unrelated activities
B
Teaching guarantees identical learning among students
C
Learning occurs only after formal teaching
D
Effective teaching facilitates meaningful learning

Question 121Single Answer

Which characteristic makes teaching a social process?

A
It always follows one method
B
It requires written examinations
C
It takes place only in institutions
D
It involves interaction among individuals

Question 122Single Answer

Which factor is most closely associated with meaningful learning?

A
Linking concepts with existing cognitive structures
B
Mechanical repetition alone
C
Memorising definitions without context
D
Avoiding learner participation

Question 123Single Answer

The teaching-learning process is considered dynamic because what happens?

A
Students remain passive throughout instruction
B
The syllabus never changes
C
Only teachers make decisions
D
Its participants and situations continuously interact and change

Question 124Single Answer

Which activity reflects active learning?

A
Copying notes continuously
B
Listening without responding
C
Participating in problem-solving activities
D
Memorising every sentence of a chapter

Question 125Single Answer

Feedback in teaching is mainly useful for what purpose?

A
Identifying progress and improving learning
B
Increasing competition only
C
Punishing weak students
D
Reducing classroom interaction

Question 126Single Answer

Which of the following is generally regarded as evidence of learning?

A
Temporary change due to illness
B
Relatively permanent change in knowledge, skill or behaviour
C
Change solely due to physical growth
D
Short-term fatigue

Question 127Single Answer

Effective teaching should primarily take into consideration what?

A
Teacher convenience alone
B
Individual differences among learners
C
Only high-performing students
D
Only examination results

Question 128Single Answer

Which teaching practice is most likely to promote understanding?

A
Asking learners to reproduce notes exactly
B
Relating concepts to examples and applications
C
Discouraging questions
D
Avoiding classroom discussion

Question 129Single Answer

Motivation has what role in learning?

A
It completely eliminates individual differences
B
It generally increases willingness to engage in learning
C
It makes teaching unnecessary
D
It replaces previous knowledge

Question 130Single Answer

Which is an important feature of good classroom communication?

A
One-way transmission only
B
Clear expression and appropriate feedback
C
Maximum use of difficult terminology
D
Absence of student questions

General Knowledge

Question 131Single Answer

Which civilization is associated with the cities of Harappa and Mohenjo-daro?

A
Vedic Civilization
B
Mauryan Civilization
C
Gupta Civilization
D
Indus Valley Civilization

Question 132Single Answer

The Great Bath was discovered at which Harappan site?

A
Harappa
B
Lothal
C
Kalibangan
D
Mohenjo-daro

Question 133Single Answer

Which is the oldest Veda?

A
Samaveda
B
Yajurveda
C
Atharvaveda
D
Rigveda

Question 134Single Answer

The Gayatri Mantra is found in which Veda?

A
Samaveda
B
Rigveda
C
Atharvaveda
D
Yajurveda

Question 135Single Answer

Who was the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism?

A
Parshvanatha
B
Rishabhanatha
C
Mahavira
D
Ajitanatha

Environmental Science

Question 136Single Answer

What is environmental pollution?

A
Natural recycling of nutrients
B
Conservation of natural resources
C
Undesirable change in environmental quality
D
Formation of ecosystems

Question 137Single Answer

Which of the following is a major source of air pollution in urban areas?

A
Vehicular emissions
B
Rainwater harvesting
C
Afforestation
D
Organic farming

Question 138Single Answer

Which gas is mainly responsible for the formation of acid rain along with nitrogen oxides?

A
Sulphur dioxide
B
Oxygen
C
Hydrogen
D
Helium

Question 139Single Answer

Carbon monoxide is mainly produced by which process?

A
Complete combustion
B
Photosynthesis
C
Incomplete combustion
D
Nitrogen fixation

Question 140Single Answer

Which pollutant reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood by binding with haemoglobin?

A
Carbon monoxide
B
Sulphur dioxide
C
Nitrogen
D
Ozone

Mathematical aptitude

Question 141Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 142Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 143Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 144Single Answer

Passage :

information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206

Question 145Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these

Logical Reasoning

Question 146Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 147Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 148Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 149Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 150Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

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Latest Bihar STET Geography Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

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