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Latest BMRCL JE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Topic, Mathematics, Mechanical, Electrical Topics, Electronics, Civil
Question Bank BMRCL Junior Engineer Exam - English
General Topic
Q 1 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 2 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 3 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 6 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 7 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 8 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 9 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 10 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 11 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 12 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 13 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 14 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 15 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 16 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 17 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 18 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 19 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 20 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 21 :
Which country surpassed Japan to become the world's largest creditor nation after 34 years?
A.China
B.Germany
C.United States
D.Switzerland
Q 22 :
The Perito Moreno Glacier, recently in the news, is located in which country?
A.Chile
B.Argentina
C.Peru
D.Ecuador
Q 23 :
Which state in India mandated weekly ethics classes based on Thirukkural for students from Classes VI to XII?
A.Kerala
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Karnataka
D.Andhra Pradesh
Q 24 :
Who became the first New Zealander to reach space after flying on the Blue Origin NS-32 suborbital spaceflight?
A.Peter Beck
B.Mark Rocket
C.Richard Pearse
D.William Pickering
Q 25 :
Which Indian state celebrated the annual School Praveshanolsavam on June 2, 2025?
A.Tamil Nadu
B.Kerala
C.Karnataka
D.Maharashtra
Mathematics
Q 26 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A.2 hours
B.3 hours
C.4 hours
D.5 hours
Q 27 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A.69
B.96
C.78
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 28 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.10
E.None of these
Q 29 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
Q 30 :
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A.42
B.38
C.32
D.72
E.None of these
Q 31 :
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A.18
B.16
C.19
D.17
E.None of these
Q 32 :
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A.45
B.35
C.40
D.30
E.None of these
Q 33 :
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A.2024
B.2104
C.2004
D.2014
E.None of these
Q 34 :
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A.38
B.42
C.44
D.34
E.None of these
Q 35 :
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A.20
B.22
C.21
D.23
E.None of these
Q 36 :
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A.50
B.75
C.57
D.60
E.None of these
Q 37 :
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A.52
B.54
C.56
D.48
E.None of these
Q 38 :
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
Q 39 :
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A.118
B.95
C.110
D.100
E.None of these
Q 40 :
What is 234 time 167 ?
A.48768
B.41184
C.40581
D.39078
E.None of these
Mechanical
Q 41 :
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
A.Greater than 1
B.Equal to 1
C.Between 1 and 3
4 4
D.Less than 1
Q 42 :
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Q 43 :
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A.Newtonian fluid
B.Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C.Pseudo-plastic fluids
D.Dilatent fluids
Q 44 :
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A.8
B.6
C.4
D.2
Q 45 :
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A.0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B.4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C.0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D.4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Q 46 :
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.Both 1 and 2
B.1 only
C.2 only
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 47 :
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A.Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B.Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C.Possible for steady, compressible flow
D.Not Possible
Q 48 :
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A.0.25
B.0.26
C.2
D.4
Q 49 :
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A.10 kW
B.20 kW
C.30 kW
D.50 kW
Q 50 :
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A.man power
B.profit
C.inventory
D.manufacturing
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Mechanical
Q 51 :
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
A.3 m/s2
B.6 m/s2
C.9 m/s2
D.15 m/s2
Q 52 :
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
A.9
B.-6
C.117
D.10.8
Q 53 :
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
A.More for lighter fluid
B.More for denser fluid
C.Less for denser fluid
D.Less for lighter fluid
Q 54 :
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
A.Linearly with fluid density
B.Inversely with pressure drop
C.Directly as square of pipe radius
D.Inversely with fluid velocity
Q 55 :
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
A.1.5mm
B.2.5mm
C.4.0mm
D.5.0mm
Electrical Topics
Q 56 :
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
A.0.8 Ω
B.1.4 Ω
C.2 Ω
D.2.8 Ω
Q 57 :
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
A.7.0 × 1012 m-3
B.7.0 × 10-12 m-3
C.7.0 × 10-12 m3
D.7.0 × 1012 m3
Q 58 :
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
A.9.2 × 105/m3
B.2.77 × 103/m3
C.2.43 × 1019/m3
D.8.9 × 1012/m3
Q 59 :
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
A.By the mobility of the carriers
B.Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
C.By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
D.By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
Q 60 :
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
A.Parallel polarized
B.Perpendicularly polarized
C.Normally polarized
D.None of the above
Q 61 :
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
A.Forward voltage increases up to the rating
B.Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
C.Forward voltage decreases below the rating
D.Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
Q 62 :
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
A.Very difficult to form, machine or case
B.The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
C.The poor strength-to-weight ratio
D.The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
Q 63 :
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
A.High stiffness and strengths
B.Low densities
C.Unusual electrical property
D.Non-ductile
Q 64 :
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
A.Meissner effect
B.Josephson effect
C.Isotope effect
D.x quantization experiments
Q 65 :
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
A.Phenol formaldehyde
B.Polytetrafluoroethylene
C.Polyvinyl chloride
D.Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
Q 66 :
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is
A.Ferrite
B.Piezoelectric
C.Pyroelectric
D.Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Q 67 :
The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called
A.Peak temperature
B.Neel temperatur
C.Critical temperature
D.Weiss temperature
Q 68 :
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
A.Seeback effect
B.Thomson effect
C.Hall effect
D.Joule effect
Q 69 :
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
A.Soft magnetic materials
B.Hard magnetic materials
C.High eddy current loss materials
D.High hysteresis loss materials
Q 70 :
Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.Both 1 and 2
B.Neither 1 nor 2
C.1 only
D.2 only
Electronics
Q 71 :
At temperature of 298 Kelvin, Silicon is not suitable for most-electronic applications, due to small amount of conductivity. This can be altered by
A.Gettering
B.Doping
C.Squeezing
D.Sintering
Q 72 :
By doping Germanium with Gallium, the types of semi-conductors formed are
1. N type
2. P type
3. Intrinsic
4. Extrinsic
A.1 and 4
B.2 and 4
C.1 and 3
D.2 and 3
Q 73 :
An n-type of silicon can be formed by adding impurity of:
1. Phosphorous
2. Arsenic
3. Boron
4. Aluminum
Which of the above are correct ?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.1 and 4
Q 74 :
According to Einstein’s relationship for a semiconductor, the ratio of diffusion constant to the mobility of the charge carriers is
A.Variable and is twice the volt equivalent of the temperature
B.Constant and is equal to the volt equivalent of the temperature
C.Equal to two and is twice the volt equivalent of the temperature
D.Equal to one and is equal to the volt equivalent of the temperature
Q 75 :
Swept-out voltage in PIN diode happens when PIN diode is
A.Forward biased and the thickness of the depletion layer decreases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
B.Reverse biased and the thickness of the depletion layer increases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
C.Forward biased and the thickness of the depletion layer increases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
D.Reverse biased and the thickness of the depletion layer decreases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
Q 76 :
The number of holes in an N-type silicon with intrinsic value 1.5 × 1010/cm3 and doping concentration of 1017/cm3, by using mass-action law is
A.6.67 × 106/cc
B.4.44 × 10-25/cc
C.1.5× 10-24/cc
D.2.25 × 103/cc
Q 77 :
A tunnel-diode is best suited for
A.Very low frequencies
B.50 Hz
C.100 Hz
D.Microwave frequencies
Q 78 :
Small recovery time of a diode is most significant for
A.Line-frequency rectification
B.Switching operations
C.High-frequency rectifications and switching operations
D.Low-frequency rectifications and switching operations
Q 79 :
In JFET, when operated above the pinch-off voltage, the
A.Depletion region becomes smaller
B.Drain current starts decreasing
C.Drain current remains practically constant
D.Drain current increases steeply
Q 80 :
Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because, as the temperature of FET increases
A.The drain current increases
B.The mobility of charge carriers decreases
C.The mobility of charge carriers increases
D.The transconductance increases
Q 81 :
Consider the following statements regarding an N-P-N Bipolar Junction Transistor:
1. Emitter diode is forward biased and collector diode is reverse biased
2. Emitter has many free electrons
3. Free electrons are injected into base and pass through collector
4. Depletion layers around junction J1 and J2 of BJT are widened
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 3 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 82 :
A freewheeling diode T phase controlled rectifier
A.Improves the line power factor
B.Enables inverse operation
C.Is responsible for additional reactive power
D.Is responsible for additional harmonics
Q 83 :
The zeners incorporated within the encapsulations of some MOSFETs are meant for
A.Reducing the cost
B.Biasing the gate circuit
C.Self-protecting the device against transients
D.None of the above
Q 84 :
When UJT is used for triggering an SCR, the wave-shape of the signal obtained from UJT circuit is
A.Sine wave
B.Saw tooth wave
C.Trapezoidal wave
D.Square wave
Q 85 :
Darlington pairs are frequently used in linear ICs because, they
C.Can be readily formed/hooked from two adjacent transistors
D.Resemble emitter follower
Civil
Q 86 :
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A.30 l
B.35 l
C.40 l
D.45 l
Q 87 :
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
A.1 : 1 : 1
B.1 : 2 : 3
C.1 : 2 : 4
D.1 : 3 : 4
Q 88 :
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 3 and 5
C.2, 3 and 4
D.2, 4 and 5
Q 89 :
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
A.10
B.20
C.25
D.30
Q 90 :
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
A.11.8
B.12.4
C.14.2
D.14.8
Q 91 :
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.1, 3 and 4
Q 92 :
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.3 and 4
Q 93 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 94 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 5 only
C.1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q 95 :
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
A.165 l
B.205 l
C.245 l
D.285 l
Q 96 :
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
A.IS : 4970-1973
B.IS : 1708-1969
C.IS : 1141-1958
D.IS : 399-1963
Q 97 :
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.2 and 4 only
C.1 and 4 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 98 :
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
A.Parallel to each other
B.At right angle to one another
C.45° oblique to adjacent grain
D.Not constrained by any consideration
Q 99 :
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
A.It must be free from lumps of lime
B.It should not be mixed with salty water
C.It must be non-homogeneous
D.It should not contain vegetable and organic matter
Q 100 :
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
th of 
th of a number and 
of 
th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
is subtracted from 
and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?