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Question for BPCL Junior Executive - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 11, 2026

Duration: 150 · Questions: 130 · Max Marks: 130

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Latest BPCL Junior Executive Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Verbal Ability, Numerical Ability, Logical Ability, Professional Knowledge (Mechanical)

Question Bank BPCL Junior Executive (Mechanical Engineering) Exam - English

Verbal Ability

Q 1 :

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the

Q 2 :

Have the car stolen!

A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car

Q 3 :

The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Q 4 :

I had to stop all my work to complete this project.

A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me

Q 5 :

They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Q 6 :

The online shopping site lowered the prices.

A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site

Q 7 :

Who taught you to drive a truck ?

A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?

Q 8 :

We shall invite Suresh.

A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us

Q 9 :

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold

Q 10 :

Assets

A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits

Q 11 :

Affidavit

A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony

Q 12 :

Hollow

A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid

Q 13 :

Cosset

A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle

Q 14 :

Ogle

A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk

Q 15 :

Intrinsic

A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired

Q 16 :

Coalesce

A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate

Q 17 :

Loiter

A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii

Q 18 :

The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.

A.held, generating
B.aimed, creating
C.targeted, awakening
D.focused, building
E.concentrated, producing

Q 19 :

Deep-seated

A.Chronic
B.Temporary
C.inbred
D.Subconscious

Q 20 :

Vibrant

A.Drab
B.Gaudy
C.Jazzy
D.Vivid

Q 21 :

Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error

Q 22 :

A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error

Q 23 :

A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error

Q 24 :

A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error

Q 25 :

A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error

Q 26 :

To sleep with the fishes

A.Always be in a dream world
B.To make absurd excuses
C.To sleep peacefully
D.To be dead

Q 27 :

To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.

A.To exterminate
B.To expurgate
C.To intricate
D.To extricate

Q 28 :

Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together

A.Irascible
B.Crucible
C.Miscible
D.Risible

Q 29 :

Shooting fish in a barrel

A.To do random acts of stupidity
B.To behave in a cruel manner
C.Ridiculously easy
D.To escape through a narrow opening

Q 30 :

What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?

A.was bounded by
B.was limitless
C.was limited
D.was bound to

Numerical Ability

Q 31 :

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55

Q 32 :

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7

Q 33 :

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600

Q 34 :

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Q 35 :

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A.3⁶
B.3⁸
C.3¹⁰
D.9⁶

Q 36 :

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Q 37 :

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5

Q 38 :

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say

Q 39 :

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30

Q 40 :

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121

Q 41 :

Which is greater ?

A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare

Q 42 :

If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.

Q 43 :

Write the 44000 in Roman numerals

A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC

Q 44 :

Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?

A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10

Q 45 :

What is (98 times 102) ?

A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196

Q 46 :

Which is smaller ?

A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare

Q 47 :

Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?

A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9

Q 48 :

Convert 0.81 into fraction ?

A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11

Q 49 :

(63)² – (12)² =?

A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825

Q 50 :

Which is greater ?

A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare

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Numerical Ability

Q 51 :

16.928 + 24.7582

5.015 =?

A.20
B.24
C.22
D.26

Q 52 :

Convert 0.75 into fraction ?

A.3/4
B.2/3
C.4/5
D.5/8

Q 53 :

Which is greater ?

A.11/13
B.12/15
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare

Q 54 :

Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?

A.0
B.1
C.Same
D.Prime

Q 55 :

Product of all factors of 10 is ?

A.
10
B.100
C.1000
D.10000

Q 56 :

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A.318
B.198
C.213
D.206

Q 57 :

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A.558
B.718
C.628
D.None of these

Q 58 :

What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?

A.20%
B.25%
C.30%
D.40%

Q 59 :

What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?

A.19%
B.31%
C.44%
D.None of these

Q 60 :

What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?

A.38%
B.48%
C.51%
D.None of these

Logical Ability

Q 61 :

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these

Q 62 :

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None

Q 63 :

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Q 64 :

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 65 :

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 66 :

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 67 :

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Q 68 :

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 69 :

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 70 :

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Q 71 :

If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?

A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these

Q 72 :

How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these

Q 73 :

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Q 74 :

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG

Q 75 :

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM

Q 76 :

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four

Q 77 :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three

Q 78 :

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 79 :

If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four

Q 80 :

If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG

Q 81 :

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?

A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK

Q 82 :

If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 83 :

3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?

A.71
B.61
C.79
D.69

Q 84 :

If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?

A.HID
B.SON
C.Both LAP and BUT
D.CAR
E.Both CAR and LAP

Q 85 :

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?

A.LAP
B.BUT
C.CAR
D.SON
E.HID

Q 86 :

If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 87 :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?

A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three

Q 88 :

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?

A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three

Q 89 :

If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?

A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None

Q 90 :

According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?

A.Two
B.One
C.None
D.Three
E.More than three

Professional Knowledge (Mechanical)

Q 91 :

Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity _________________?

A.Pascal
B.Poise
C.Stoke
D.Faraday
E.None of the above

Q 92 :

Consider the following motions :
1. Piston reciprocating inside an engine cylinder
2. Motion of a shaft between foot-step bearings
Which of the above can rightly be considered as successfully constrained motion?

A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2

Q 93 :

A rotor weighing 2 kN is supported on bearings A and B which are 1 m apart. The centre of mass of the rotor is at a distance 0.4 m from bearing A. It is observed that there is an unbalanced couple of magnitude 300 N-m which leaves the shaft balanced statically.The dynamic reactions at the supports will be

A.800 N and 800 N
B.300 N and 800 N
C.800 N and – 300 N
D.300 N and – 300 N

Q 94 :

A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter splits up in air into 64 smaller drops of equal size. The surface tension coefficient of water in air is 0.073 N/m. The work required in splitting up the drop is

A.0.96 × 10^–6 J
B.0.69 × 10^–6 J
C.0.32 × 10^–6 J
D.0.23 × 10^–6 J

Q 95 :

Consider the following statements pertaining to stability of floating bodies:
1. A floating body will be stable when the centre of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.
2. The position of metacentres corresponding to different axes of rotation are generally different for the same floating object.
3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height varies with loading.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only

Q 96 :

A fin will be more effective when Bio number is

A.Greater than 1
B.Equal to 1
C.Between 1 and 3
4 4
D.Less than 1

Q 97 :

A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is

Q 98 :

Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?

A.Newtonian fluid
B.Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C.Pseudo-plastic fluids
D.Dilatent fluids

Q 99 :

What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s²)

Q 100 :

What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?

A.0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B.4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C.0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D.4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg

Q 101 :

Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.Both 1 and 2
B.1 only
C.2 only
D.Neither 1 nor 2

Q 102 :

State whether following flow field is physically possible?

A.Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B.Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C.Possible for steady, compressible flow
D.Not Possible

Q 103 :

In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is

A.0.25
B.0.26
C.2
D.4

Q 104 :

A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is

A.10 kW
B.20 kW
C.30 kW
D.50 kW

Q 105 :

On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?

A.man power
B.profit
C.inventory
D.manufacturing

Q 106 :

In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?

A.3 m/s²
B.6 m/s²
C.9 m/s²
D.15 m/s²

Q 107 :

The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is

A.9
B.-6
C.117
D.10.8

Q 108 :

The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is

A.More for lighter fluid
B.More for denser fluid
C.Less for denser fluid
D.Less for lighter fluid

Q 109 :

In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies

A.Linearly with fluid density
B.Inversely with pressure drop
C.Directly as square of pipe radius
D.Inversely with fluid velocity

Q 110 :

A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is

A.1.5mm
B.2.5mm
C.4.0mm
D.5.0mm

Q 111 :

If a submerged body displaced from its equilibrium position, returns to its original position, it is called __________.

A.thermal equilibrium
B.neutral equilibrium
C.unstable equilibrium
D.stable equilibrium

Q 112 :

In a flow measurement, a venturi meter is preferred over an orifice plate because _____.

A.energy of head loss is less
B.It is cheaper
C.pressure drop is more
D.space is limited

Q 113 :

Pitot tube measures ______.

A.dynamic pressure of a moving stream
B.guage pressure
C.temperature of moving water
D.pressure difference between two fluids

Q 114 :

Which of the following is not a property of an ideal fluid ?

A.flow is irrotational
B.it has no viscosity
C.it has viscosity
D.it is incompressible

Q 115 :

Nozzle used in steam turbines convert ________.

A.enthalpy of steam into work
B.enthalpy of steam into kinetic energy
C.enthalpy of steam into pressure energy
D.pressure energy into work

Q 116 :

Which of the following assumptions is the most relevant in air-standard cycle analysis ?

A.All the processes within the cycle are irreversible
B.Working fluid is a fixed mass
C.Specific heat of air changes during the cycle
D.Cycle is assumed to be an open cycle

Q 117 :

The modern Francis turbine is a ___________flow turbine .

A.tangential
B.axial
C.radial
D.mixed

Q 118 :

Variation of stress with strain rate for a Newtonian fluid is ______ .

A.hyperbolic
B.linear
C.elliptical
D.parabolic

Q 119 :

Which of the following is NOT a part of refrigeration systems ?

A.Turbine
B.Evaporator
C.Compressor
D.Condenser

Q 120 :

Which of the following is NOT an intensive property ?

A.Temperature
B.Total volume
C.Pressure
D.Density

Q 121 :

Which of the following does NOT represent a unit of viscosity ?

A.Stoke
B.Poise
C.m²/sec
D.N-m/sec

Q 122 :

__________ in the fuel is oxidised during knocking .

A.Hydrocarbon
B.Phosphorous
C.Water
D.Coal

Q 123 :

_________ is defined as the ability of a material to resist deformation under action of an external load .

A.Stiffness
B.Resilience
C.Brittleness
D.Toughness

Q 124 :

Draught is produced in locomotive boilers by which of the following components ?

A.Locomotive
B.Steam jet
C.Centrifugal fan
D.Chimney

Q 125 :

For a steady flow, the value of all fluid properties at any fixed point _________ .

A.do not change with location
B.change with time
C.change with location
D.do not change with time

Q 126 :

For a floating body, if the metacentre is below the centre of gravity, then the body is said to be __________ equilibrium .

A.thermal
B.stable
C.unstable
D.neutral

Q 127 :

________ is useful for measuring flow of a conducting fluid .

A.Orifice meter
B.Rotameter
C.Vane meter
D.Electro-magnetic flow meter

Q 128 :

A two- stroke engine consists of ________ port (s)

A.Three
B.Four
C.One
D.Two

Q 129 :

Air Cooling is mostly preferred for _________ .

A.heavy truck
B.buses
C.moto cycles
D.multi-utility vehicles

Q 130 :

_______ valves are provided in reciprocating compressors .

A.Simply supported
B.Solenoid
C.Plate
D.Poppet

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