Question for BPSC Assistant Section Officer 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest BPSC ASO Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Studies, General Science & Mathematics, Mental Ability Test

Question Bank BPSC ASO Prelims Exam - English

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General Studies

Question 1Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 2Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 3Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 4Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 5Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Question 6Single Answer

What is Net National Product

A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy

Question 7Single Answer

National income is the

A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost

Question 8Single Answer

Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our

A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings

Question 9Single Answer

During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest

A
2^nd plan
B
3^rd plan
C
5^th plan
D
6^th plan

Question 10Single Answer

Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax

A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax

Question 11Single Answer

Which of the following estimates the National Income in India

A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation

Question 12Single Answer

India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in

A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978

Question 13Single Answer

11^th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year

A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012

Question 14Single Answer

Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11^th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct

A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points

Question 15Single Answer

Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council

A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister

Question 16Single Answer

Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather

A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages

Question 17Single Answer

Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India

A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee

Question 18Single Answer

Who was the real founder of Turk rule in Bihar ?

A
Ibn Bakhtiyar Khilji
B
Ibrahim
C
Dariya Khan Noohani
D
Malik Husamuddin
E
None of the above / More than one of the above

Question 19Single Answer

Who was the first Indian Governor of Bihar ?

A
Dr. Shri krishna Singh
B
Brij Kishor Prasad
C
B.P. Mandal
D
Satyendra Prasanna Sinha
E
None of the above/More than one of the above

Question 20Single Answer

In which year the Chauri Revolt of Bihar took place ?

A
1842
B
1798
C
1784
D
1832
E
None of the above / More than one of the above

Question 21Single Answer

In which year was Orissa separated from Bihar ?

A
1936
B
1956
C
2000
D
1912
E
None of the above/ More than one of the above

Question 22Single Answer

During which movement 'Azad Dasta' was active in Bihar ?

A
Non-Cooperation Movement
B
Civil Disobedience Movement
C
Quit India Movement
D
Champaran Satyagraha
E
None of the above / More than one of the above

Question 23Single Answer

Who established a branch of Anushilan Samiti in Patna in 1913 AD ?

A
Ramanada Sinha
B
Satish Jha
C
Sachindra Nath Sanyal
D
Bipin Jha
E
None of the above / More than one of the above

Question 24Single Answer

In which year was Bihar divided to create Jharkhand ?

A
2000
B
2001
C
2004
D
2005
E
None of the above More than one of the above

Question 25Single Answer

Who invited Gandhiji to come Champaran ?

A
Raj Kumar Shukla
B
Rajendra Prasad
C
Jayaprakash Narayan
D
Krishna Sahay
E
None of the above / More than one of the above

Question 26Single Answer

Who had formed the Bihar Socialist Party in 1931 AD ?

A
Phulan Chand Tiwari and Rajendra Prasad
B
Phulan Prasad Varma and Jayaprakash Narayan
C
Raj Kumar Shukla and Swami Agnivesh
D
Swami Sahajananda and Swami Yogananda
E
None of the above More than one of the above

Question 27Single Answer

Who formed the 'Bihar Socialist Party' in 1931 ?

A
Phulan Prasad Varma
B
Swami Yoganand
C
Narhari Parikh
D
Dadabhai Naoroji
E
None of the above / More than one of the above

Question 28Single Answer

Who led the Salt Satyagraha in Bhagalpur ?

A
Shri Krishna Singh
B
Mahadev Lal Sarraf
C
Kumar Mishra
D
Satyanarayan
E
None of the above / More than one of the above

Question 29Single Answer

Who led the 'Ambari Satyagraha' in 1939 in Bihar ?

A
Rahul Sankrityayan
B
Yadunandan Sharma
C
Swami Sahajanand
D
Swami Yoganand
E
None of the above / More than one of the above

Question 30Single Answer

Yousuf Shah Chak, the last Muslim ruler of Kashmir Valley, who was exiled to Bihar by the Mughal emperor Akbar, was buried in :

A
Patliputra
B
Rajgir
C
Munger
D
Nalanda
E
None of the above / More than one of the above

Question 31Single Answer

Who formed Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha ?

A
Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
B
Ram Sundar Singh
C
Ganga Sharan Sinha
D
Ramanand Mishra
E
None of the above / More than one of the above

Question 32Single Answer

Dutch East India Company established its factory at Patna in which year ?

A
1601
B
1632
C
1774
D
None of the above / More than one of the above

Question 33Single Answer

Who established Swaraj Dal in Bihar ?

A
Shri Krishna Singh
B
Ramlal Shah
C
Bankim Chandra Mitra
D
Sachindra Nath Sanyal
E
None of the above / More than one of the above

Question 34Single Answer

The ruler of Suvarnabhumi, who founded a Buddhist monastery at Nalanda and requested Devapala through his ambassador to grant five villages for its maintenance, was

A
Dharanindra
B
Sangramadhananjaya
C
Balaputradeva
D
Chudamanivarmana
E
None of the above / More than one of the above

Question 35Single Answer

The earliest description Bakhtiyar Khilji's invasion Bihar is in :

A
Tarikh-i Hind
B
Tabaqat-i Nasiri
C
Taj-ul Maasir
D
Tarikh-i Mubarak Shahi
E
None of the above/More than one of the above

Question 36Single Answer

When did Bihar become a independent province in India ?

A
1897
B
1905
C
1907
D
1912
E
None of the above/More than one of the above

Question 37Single Answer

When was the Bihar Socialist Party formed ?

A
1921
B
1927
C
1931
D
1934
E
None of the above/More than one of the above

Question 38Single Answer

Which is the national game of Bhutan ?

A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery

Question 39Single Answer

What is the national game of the United States of America ?

A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball

Question 40Single Answer

What is considered the national game of India ?

A
Field hockey
B
cricket
C
Chess
D
Kabaddi

Question 41Single Answer

World AIDS Day is observed annually on December 1 to raise awareness about HIV/AIDS. Which theme was adopted for World AIDS Day 2025?

A
Ending the HIV Epidemic
B
Know Your Status
C
My Health, My Right
D
Zero Discrimination

Question 42Single Answer

India has been re-elected to the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) Council for the 2025-26 biennium. In which category did India secure the highest votes?

A
Category B (Economic Influence)
B
Category A (Major Maritime States)
C
Category C (Geographical Representation)
D
Observer Category

Question 43Single Answer

The Samudrayaan project, India's first manned deep-sea mission, faced delays in 2025 due to issues with components from which country?

A
United States
B
Russia
C
France
D
Japan

Question 44Single Answer

According to the Lowy Institute's Asia Power Index 2025, India has risen to which position in Asia?

A
3rd
B
2nd
C
1st
D
4th

Question 45Single Answer

Kashi Tamil Sangamam (KTS) 4.0 is scheduled to begin on December 2, 2025. Which ministry is hosting this event to strengthen cultural ties between Tamil Nadu and Varanasi?

A
Ministry of Culture
B
Ministry of Education
C
Ministry of Tourism
D
Ministry of External Affairs

Question 46Single Answer

In the Asia Power Index 2025, which city overtook Tokyo to become the world's most populous?

A
Mumbai
B
Delhi
C
Shanghai
D
Jakarta

Question 47Single Answer

The 19th edition of the joint military exercise between India and Nepal, Surya Kiran, is being held from November 25 to December 8, 2025. Where is it conducted?

A
Kathmandu
B
Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand
C
Pokhara
D
Siliguri

Question 48Single Answer

Indian scientists developed the AI tool 'OncoMark' in 2025. What is its primary purpose?

A
Decoding cancer biomarkers
B
Predicting climate patterns
C
Optimizing crop yields
D
Analyzing traffic data

Question 49Single Answer

A destructive storm system in late November 2025 affected South and Southeast Asia, killing over 1,100 people. Which country reported the highest death toll?

A
India
B
Thailand
C
Sri Lanka
D
Indonesia

Question 50Single Answer

India B (Manipur) won the 15th Manipur Polo International Tournament in November 2025. Whom did they defeat in the final?

A
Australia
B
Colombia
C
UK
D
Bhutan

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General Science & Mathematics

Question 51Single Answer

In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from

A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state

Question 52Single Answer

A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is

A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge

Question 53Single Answer

convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is

A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m

Question 54Single Answer

Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves

A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront

Question 55Single Answer

Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -

A
0.75 A
B
1 A
C
2 A
D
1.5 A

Question 56Single Answer

10^-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is

A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11

Question 57Single Answer

In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is

A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A

Question 58Single Answer

The one which decreases with dilution is

A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance

Question 59Single Answer

Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25^oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25^oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25^oC is

A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm

Question 60Single Answer

A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with

A
1 M solution of glucose
B
0.05 M solution of glucose
C
6% solution of glucose
D
25% solution of glucose

Question 61Single Answer

The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on

A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised

Question 62Single Answer

Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?

A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen

Question 63Single Answer

Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is

A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%

Question 64Single Answer

An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a

A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish

Question 65Single Answer

Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?

A
Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B
Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C
shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D
Lion, whale, ostrich, bat

Question 66Single Answer

The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x² : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to

A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}

Question 67Single Answer

A
B
C
D
None of these

Question 68Single Answer

If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as

A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}

Question 69Single Answer

The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is

A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}

Question 70Single Answer

If A

B and A

B, then

A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A

Question 71Single Answer

The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is

A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17

Question 72Single Answer

The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is

A
2^m – 1
B
m
C
m²
D
2^m

Question 73Single Answer

If A = {x : x = n², n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is

A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these

Question 74Single Answer

If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is

A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these

Question 75Single Answer

Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then

A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint

Question 76Single Answer

Which of the following is/are empty set?
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z} B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}

A
A
B
B
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above

Question 77Single Answer

The set {x : x⁴ = 1 and x

R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to

A
empty
B
finite
C
infinite
D
singleton

Question 78Single Answer

The universal set for the sets
A = {x : x² – 5x + 6 = 0} and
B = {x : x² – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is

A
{1, 2}
B
{1, 3}
C
{1, 2, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}

Question 79Single Answer

If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0},

C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and

D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are

A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A, B and C
D
A, C and D

Question 80Single Answer

If A = (–3, 5) and B = [–7, 9], then

A
A = B
B
A B
C
B A
D
None of these

Question 81Single Answer

Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are

A
7, 6
B
5, 1
C
6, 3
D
8, 7

Question 82Single Answer

Combine terms: 12a + 26b - 4b – 16a .

A
4a + 22b
B
-28a + 30b
C
-4a + 22b
D
28a + 30b

Question 83Single Answer

The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .

A
25.30
B
25.5
C
25.00
D
12.25

Question 84Single Answer

60 Times of 8 Equals to

A
480
B
300
C
250
D
400

Question 85Single Answer

Consider the sets

A = {x : x is a real number and x² + 1 = 0}

B = {x : x is a real number and x² – 16 = 0}

C = {x : x is a real number and x² = x + 2}

Which of the following is are null set ?

A
A
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
A, B and C

Question 86Single Answer

Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of

A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these

Question 87Single Answer

Electron volt is a unit of

A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity

Question 88Single Answer

Dimensions of impulse are

A
[MLT ^–1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT^–2]
D
[ML^–1T^–3]

Question 89Single Answer

Potential is measured in

A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these

Question 90Single Answer

One Nanometer is equal to

A
10^–9m
B
10^–6m
C
10^–10m
D
10^–3m

Question 91Single Answer

Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:

A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster

Question 92Single Answer

Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?

A
Ca₃Al₂O₆
B
Ca₃SiO₅
C
Ca₂SiO₄
D
Ca₃(PO₄)₂

Question 93Single Answer

What is the reson for white cement to be white ?

A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium

Question 94Single Answer

Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?

A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus

Question 95Single Answer

Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?

A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate

Question 96Single Answer

Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?

A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria

Question 97Single Answer

Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural

A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus

Question 98Single Answer

Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?

A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium

Question 99Single Answer

Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?

A
Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
B
Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
C
Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
D
Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria

Question 100Single Answer

For which among the following is not a true fruit ?

A
Apple
B
Date
C
Grape
D
Plum

Mental Ability Test

Question 101Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 102Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 103Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 104Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 105Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 106Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 107Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 108Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 109Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 110Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Question 111Single Answer

If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?

A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these

Question 112Single Answer

How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these

Question 113Single Answer

Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .

A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong

Question 114Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.

Question 115Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 116Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?

A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four

Question 117Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.

Question 118Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 119Single Answer

If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?

A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these

Question 120Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 121Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 122Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 123Single Answer

If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?

A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these

Question 124Single Answer

If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?

A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four

Question 125Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 126Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 127Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these

Question 128Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these

Question 129Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these

Question 130Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these