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Latest Bihar Civil Service Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Studies
Question Bank BPSC Civil Service Prelims Exam - English
General Studies
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 17 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 18 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 20 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 21 :
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
A.5
B.6
C.7
D.8
Q 22 :
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
A.2001
B.2010
C.2012
D.2011
Q 23 :
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
A.1 only
B.1 and 2
C.1 and 3
D.1,2, and 3
Q 24 :
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
A.2007-12
B.2008-13
C.2010-15
D.2012-17
Q 25 :
A closed economy is an economy in which
A.the money supply is fully controlled
B.deficit financing takes place
C.only exports take place
D.neither exports nor imports take place
Q 26 :
Consider the following statements
1. a plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
2. a plan for a fixed number of years, say 34, and 5
3. it is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
4. A perspective plan for 10,15 or 20 years
Which of the above are correct
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.1,2,3 and 4
Q 27 :
In the context of Indian Economy consider the following pairs
Term Most Appropriate Description
1. Melt Down Fall in stock prices
2. Recession Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
A.1 only
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 3
D.1,2 and 3
Q 28 :
Deficit finacing means that the government borrows money from the
A.IMF
B.RBI
C.Local bodies
D.Big Businessmen
Q 29 :
In the context of India’s Five Year Plan a shift in the pattern of industrialization with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
A.4th plan
B.6th plan
C.8th plan
D.10th plan
Q 30 :
Which of the following is/are an indicator of the financial health of a country
1. GDP 2. PPP
3. FDI in a year
A.only 1
B.only 2
C.only 3
D.1,2 and 3
Q 31 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 32 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 33 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 34 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A.having a constant phase difference
B.of equal wavelength
C.of equal speed
D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 35 :
Three resistors 1 รขโยฆ, 2 รขโยฆ, 3รขโยฆ resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 รขโยฆ resistor is -
A.0.75 A
B.1 A
C.2 A
D.1.5 A
Q 36 :
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
A.anywhere
B.emitter-collector
C.collector-base
D.base-emitter
Q 37 :
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
A.2 and 4
B.1 only
C.3 and 4
D.4 only
Q 38 :
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
A.S1,S2 and S4
B.S2 and S4
C.S4 only
D.S3 only
Q 39 :
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
A.low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B.high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C.high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D.low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Q 40 :
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
A.same in all the medium
B.lesser in rarer medium
C.lesser in denser medium
D.independent of the medium
Q 41 :
For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to
A.(2รฐยลโน + 1)λ
B.2nรฐยลโน
C.nλ
D.n
Q 42 :
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
A.multimeter
B.voltmeter
C.voltameter
D.potentiometer
Q 43 :
A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
A.Both K and L increase
B.Both K and L remain unchanged
C.K remains constant, L increases
D.K increases but L remains constant
Q 44 :
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
A.Gas constant (R)
B.Pressure (p)
C.Volume (V)
D.Temperature (T)
Q 45 :
An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be
A.300 m
B.3 km
C.15 m
D.15 km
Q 46 :
The amount of energy released when one microgram of matter is annihilated is
A.25 kWh
B.9 x 1010 kWh
C.3 x 1010 kWh
D.0.5 x 105 kWh
Q 47 :
The number of significant figures in the numbers 4.8000 x 104 48000.50 are respectively
A.5 and 6
B.5 and 7
C.2 and 7
D.2 and 6
Q 48 :
β-decay means emission of electron from
A.innermost electron orbit
B.a stable nucleus
C.outermost electron orbit
D.radioactive nucleus
Q 49 :
An electric heater rated 220 V and 550 W is connected to AC mains. The current drawn by it is
A.0.8 A
B.2.5 A
C.0.4 A
D.1.25 A
Q 50 :
A string is wound round the rim of a mounted flywheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord. Neglecting friction and mass of the string, the angular acceleration of the wheel is
A.50 s-2
B.25 s-2
C.12.5 s-2
D.6.25 s-2
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BPSC Civil Service Prelims Exam Question Bank Book - English
A billiards player hits a stationary ball by an identical ball to pocker the target ball in a corner pocket that is at an angle of 35o with respect to the direction of motion of the first ball. Assuming the collision as elastic and that frictional and rotational motions are not important, the angle made by the target ball with respect to the imcoming ball is
A.35o
B.50o
C.55o
D.60o
Q 52 :
A body of mass 0.05 kg is observed to fall with an acceleration of 9.5 ms-2. The opposing force of air on the body is (g = 9.8 ms-2)
A.0.015 N
B.0.15 N
C.0.030 N
D.zero
Q 53 :
The colloidal solution in which both the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are liquids are called
A.emulsions
B.gels
C.foams
D.liquid crystals
Q 54 :
In fog, photographs of the objects taken with infrared radiations are more clear than those obtained during visible light because
A.I-R radiation has lesser wavelength than visible radiation
B.scattering of I-R light is more the object is less
C.the intensity of I-R light is more the object is less
D.scattering of I–R light is less than visible light
Q 55 :
Three concurrent co-planar forces 1 N, 2 N and 3 N acting along different directions on a body
A.can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 3 N act at right angle
B.can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 2 N act at right angle
C.cannot keep the body in equilibrium
D.can keep the body in equilibrium in 1 N and 3 N act at an acute angle
Q 56 :
Sound waves transfer
A.only energy not momentum
B.energy
C.momentum
D.both (a) and (b)
Q 57 :
G P Thomson experimentally confirmed the existence of matter waves by the phenomena
A.diffraction
B.refraction
C.polarisation
D.scattering
Q 58 :
The resistance of a wire at 300 K is found to be 0.3 รขโยฆ. If the temperature coefficient of resistance of wire is 1.5 x 10-3 K-1, the temperature at which the resistance becomes 0.6 รขโยฆ is
A.720 K
B.345 K
C.993 K
D.690 K
Q 59 :
Two luminous points sources separated by a certain distance are at 10 km from an observer. If the aperture of his eye is 2.5 x 10-3 m and the wavelength of light used is 500 nm the distance of separation between the point sources just seen to be resolved is
A.12.2 m
B.24.2 m
C.2.44 m
D.1.22 m
Q 60 :
A door 1.6 m wide requires a force of N to be applied at the free end to open or close it. The force that is required at a point 0.4 m distance from the hinges for opening or closing the door is
A.1.2 N
B.3.6 N
C.2.4 N
D.4 N
Q 61 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 62 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 63 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 64 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A.28 mm
B.56 mm
C.70 mm
D.140 mm
Q 65 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A.1 M solution of glucose
B.0.05 M solution of glucose
C.6% solution of glucose
D.25% solution of glucose
Q 66 :
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B.to minimise the snow fall
C.to minimise pollution
D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Q 67 :
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A.AB2
B.A2B
C.AB
D.AB3
Q 68 :
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B.decreases electron density at meta position
C.increases electron density at meta position
D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
Q 69 :
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A.PCI5
B.PCI3
C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Q 70 :
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
B.same as in C2H4
C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
Q 71 :
The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is
A.methanal
B.propanal
C.propanone
D.ethanal
Q 72 :
An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is
A.CH3CH2OH
B.CH3 – C – CH3
C.(CH3)2CHOH
D.CH3CHO
Q 73 :
Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, NH3
A.NH3, < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
B.NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
C.(CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
D.CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N , NH3
Q 74 :
The one which has least iodine value is
A.sunflower oil
B.ginger oil
C.ghee
D.groundnut oil
Q 75 :
A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
A.glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
B.glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
C.glucose reduces the blood sugar level
D.glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
Q 76 :
There are 20 naturally occurring among acids. The maximum number of tripeptides than can be obtained is
A.8000
B.6470
C.7465
D.5360
Q 77 :
At what temperature ill the RMS velocity of SO2 be the same as that of O2 at 303 K ?
A.403 K
B.303 K
C.606 K
D.273 K
Q 78 :
Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken well. The white precipitate formed during the process is
A.m–bromophenol
B.2, 4, 6 tribromophenol
C.2-4 dibromophenol
D.A mixture of o-and p-bromophenols
Q 79 :
In thermite process the metal used as reducing agent is:
A.Nickel
B.Zinc
C.Sodium
D.Aluminium
Q 80 :
Which of the following compounds on boiling with alkaline KMnO4 and subsequent acidification will not give benzoic acid?
A.Benzyl alcohol
B.Acetophenone
C.Anisole
D.Toluene
Q 81 :
The base present in DNA, but not in RNA is:
A.Guanine
B.Adenine
C.Uracil
D.Thymine
Q 82 :
The total number of lattice arrangements in different crystal system is:
A.7
B.3
C.8
D.14
Q 83 :
Alcoholic potash is used to bring about :
A.Dehydrogenation
B.Dehydration
C.Dehydrohalogenation
D.Dehalogenation
Q 84 :
Which of the following is the correct statement?
A.Order of a reaction has always an integral value
B.Mechanism of a reaction proposed is always final
C.Zero order reactions are multi-step reactions
D.Order of reaction can be predicted even without knowing the rate law
Q 85 :
The unit of quantity of electricity is:
A.Ohm
B.Ampere
C.Coulomb
D.Volt
Q 86 :
Which of the following organic compounds answers both iodoform test and fehling’s test ?
A.Methanal
B.Ethanol
C.Propane
D.Ethanal
Q 87 :
10 dm3 of N2 gas and 10 dm3 of gas X at the same temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules.
A.NO
B.H2
C.CO2 or CO
D.All of these
Q 88 :
When the electrons of hydrogen atoms return to L shell from shells of higher energy, we get a series of lines in the spectrum. This series is called
A.Balmer series
B.Lyman series
C.Bracket series
D.Paschen series
Q 89 :
The alcohol obtained by the hydrolysis of oils and fats is:
A.Glycol
B.Glycerol
C.Propanol
D.Pentanol
Q 90 :
Which of the following alloys is used for making magnets for hearing aids?
A.Alnico
B.German silver
C.Invar
D.Monel metal
Q 91 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 92 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 93 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 94 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 95 :
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Q 96 :
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Q 97 :
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
A.B,C and D
B.A and D
C.B and D
D.A, B and C
Q 98 :
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds. Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Q 99 :
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
A.Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B.Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C.Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D.Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Q 100 :
Stoma opens, when
A.guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B.guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C.guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D.guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Q 101 :
Which of the following is properly matched ?
A.Platyhelminthes –Trematoda – Planoria
B.Echinodermate – Asteroidea – Star fish
C.arthropoda – Insecta – Spider
D.Mollusca – Cephalopoda – Unio
Q 102 :
A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body temperature, loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His brain scan would probably show a tumour in
A.medulla oblongata
B.pons
C.cerebellum
D.hypothalamus
Q 103 :
The agents, which are known to cause CJD are
A.protein particles
B.a class of bacteria
C.a class of viruses
D.fungi
Q 104 :
In crop improvement programmers, virus-free clones can be obtained through
A.grafting
B.hybridization
C.embryo culture
D.shoot apex culture
Q 105 :
A person is suffering from frequent episodes of nasal discharge, nasal congestion, reddening of eyes and watery eyes. These are the symptoms of
A.cyanosis
B.bronchitis
C.rhinitis
D.bronchial carcinoma
Q 106 :
Some important events in the human female reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the events in a proper sequence.
A: Secretion of FSH
B: Growth of corpus luteum
C: Growth of the follicle and oogenesis
D: Ovulation
E: Sudden increase in the levels of LH
A.C → A → D → B → E
B.A → C → E → D → B
C.A → D → C → E → B
D.B → A → C → D → E
Q 107 :
Which of the following options shows bisexual animals only ?
A.Amoeba, sponge, leech
B.Sponge, cockroach, Amoeba
C.Earthworm, sponge, leech
D.Tapeworm, earthworm, honeybee
Q 108 :
Vaccination against small pox was developed by:
A.Louis Pasteur
B.Edward jenner
C.Robert Koch
D.Alexander Flemming
Q 109 :
The value of human diastolic blood pressure is :
A.120 – 80 = 40 mm. Hg
B.120 mm. Hg
C.80 mm. Hg
D.128/80 mm. Hg
Q 110 :
Balance theory of sex determination holds good for:
A.Allium cepa
B.Drosophila
C.Humans
D.grasshoppers
Q 111 :
the plants respond to photo – periods due to the presence of :
A.Phytochromes
B.Stomata
C.Enzymes
D.Phytohormones
Q 112 :
Identify the edible fresh-water telesots:
A.Sharks
B.Rays and skates
C.Hilsa ilisha
D.Catla catla
Q 113 :
Plasmids occur in:
A.Viruses
B.Chromosomes
C.Bacteria
D.Chloroplasts
Q 114 :
Match the names of antibiotics listed under column 1 with their source given under column 2; choose the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns:
The bond formed between the first phosphate group and adenosine in ATP is:
A.Nitro – phosphate bond
B.Adeno – phosphate bond
C.Phosphoester bond
D.Phosphoanhydride bond
Q 116 :
The protists have:
A.Gene containing nucleo-proteins condensed together in loose mass
B.Nucleo-protein in direct contact with the nest of the cell substance
C.Only tree nucleic acid aggregates
D.Membrane bound nucleo-proteins lying embedded in the cytoplasm
Q 117 :
Antrum is the cavity of:
A.Gastrula
B.Graffian follicle
C.Ovary
D.Blastula
Q 118 :
Which of the following statement is wrong?
A.Endospores are produced in pteridophyta
B.Naked seeds are seen in gymnosperms
C.Capsule is present in the sporophyte of bryophyte
D.Basidiocarp is the fruiting body of fungus
Q 119 :
The pioneers in the field of organic evolution are:
A.Darwin, Hugo de Vries, Lamarck, Huxely
B.Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de Vries, Malthus, Darwin
C.Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, Malthus, De Vries
D.Darwin, Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, De Vries
Q 120 :
This one is the characteristic of epithelial tissues:
A.These cells never produce glands
B.The cells have a rapid rate of cell division
C.Tissues are highly vascularized
D.Large intercellular spaces are seen between the cells
Q 121 :
Who has sworn in as the new Chief Minister of Maharashtra, after the resignation of Uddhav Thakarey ?
A.Devendra Fadnavis
B.Eknath Shinde
C.Sunil Prabhu
D.Sharad Pawar
Q 122 :
PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM) is associated with which organization ?
A.DRDO
B.ISRO
C.HAL
D.BHEL
Q 123 :
Which is the only institution in India to issue ‘Electoral Bonds’?
A.RBI
B.SBI
C.NITI Aayog
D.CBDT
Q 124 :
The Union Cabinet approved the categorization of which institution as an ‘International Organization’, in July 2022 ?
A.International Solar Alliance
B.BIMSTEC
C.Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure
D.One Sun One World One Grid
Q 125 :
Which Indian organization carried out the maiden flight test of Autonomous flying wing technology demonstrator ?
A.DRDO
B.NSIL
C.Dhruva Airspace
D.Pixxel Space
Q 126 :
CAPSTONE, which was seen in the news recently, is a satellite launched by which space agency ?
A.NASA
B.ESA
C.SpaceX
D.Rocosmos
Q 127 :
In the PSLV-C53 mission, ISRO launched three satellites of which country ?
A.Nepal
B.Bangladesh
C.Singapore
D.New Zealand
Q 128 :
What is the budgetary outlay of 'Computerisation of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)' ?
A.Rs 216 Crore
B.Rs 2516 Crore
C.Rs 750 Crore
D.Rs 7216 Crore
Q 129 :
Which is the venue of the 11th World Urban Forum held in 2022 ?
A.Spain
B.Poland
C.Australia
D.France
Q 130 :
2022 Resilient Democracies Statement is associated with which global association ?
A.G-20
B.BRICS
C.G-7
D.ASEAN
Q 131 :
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate Digital India Week 2022 in which state in July 2022 ?
A.Gujarat
B.Haryana
C.Punjab
D.Rajasthan
Q 132 :
India and the European Union concluded the first round of negotiations for India-EU Trade and Investment Agreements ……. In July 2022.
A.Chennai
B.New Delhi
C.Hyderabad
D.Pune
Q 133 :
Which of the following released the Web Publication ‘Deposits with Scheduled Commercial Banks – March 2022’ on its Database on Indian Economy (DBIE) Portal in June 2022 ?
A.RBI
B.NITI Aayog
C.NASSCOM
D.ASSOCHAM
Q 134 :
In June 2022, the International Weightlifting Federation (IWF) has elected whom as the President ?
A.T Raja Kumar
B.P Udayakumar
C.Venkat Nageswar Chalasani
D.Mohammed Jaloud
Q 135 :
Union Home Ministry has amended the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act in July 2022. The amended rule now allows relatives to send ……. Lakh rupees without informing the government.
A.5
B.8
C.10
D.12
Q 136 :
The National Health Authority (NHA) Felicitated around ……. Doctors for their work under the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri-Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY) scheme, in July 2022 .
A.400
B.600
C.800
D.1000
Q 137 :
Which of the following has announced that National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme will be a part of Direct Beneficiary Transfer (DBT) scheme ?
A.Ministry of Home Affairs
B.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
C.Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
Q 138 :
NTPC Renewable Energy Limited (NTPC REL) has signed an MOU with which state for development of 10 GW Ultra Mega Renewable Energy Power Park in the state ?
A.Maharashtra
B.Gujarat
C.Punjab
D.Rajasthan
Q 139 :
International Day of Cooperatives is marked annually on the first …… of July.
A.Thursday
B.Friday
C.Saturday
D.Sunday
Q 140 :
In July 2022, who smashed the most number of runs in an over in a Test Cricket Match ?
A.Mohammed Shami
B.Hardik Pandya
C.Bhuvneshwar Kumar
D.Jasprit Bumrah
Q 141 :
Which new body has been approved to replace the Banks Board Bureau (BBB) ?
A.Financial Services Institution Bureau (FSIB)
B.Financial Institutions Bureau (FIB)
C.Banks Appointment Bureau (BAB)
D.Banks and Insurance Companies Bureau
Q 142 :
Which Indian state has launched a new scheme named ‘Naari Ko Naman’?
A.Uttar Pradesh
B.Himachal Pradesh
C.Punjab
D.Odisha
Q 143 :
Who is the new President of Financial Action Task Force (FATF) ?
A.T Raja Kumar
B.Urjit Patel
C.Viral Acharya
D.Subhash Chandra Garg
Q 144 :
What is the total GST revenue collected in June 2022 ?
A.Rs 1.45 Lakh Crore
B.Rs 1.30 Lakh Crore
C.Rs 1.20 Lakh Crore
D.Rs 1.15 Lakh Crore
Q 145 :
Which Union Ministry released ‘SDG National Indicator Framework (NIF) Progress Report, 2022’?
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
C.Ministry of Home Affairs
D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Q 146 :
Which Formula One Racing driver has won the British F 1 Grand Prix on 3 July 2022 ?
A.Lewis Hamilton
B.Sergio Perez
C.Max Verstappen
D.Carlos Sainz
Q 147 :
…….., one of the World’s most innovative theatre directors, passed away on 3 July 2022.
A.Andre Antoine
B.Edward Gordan Craig
C.Max Reinhardt
D.Peter Brook
Q 148 :
Which state government has signed an MoU With IGSS Ventures for establishing a semiconductor park in July 2022 ?
A.Tamil Nadu
B.Maharashtra
C.Goa
D.Kerala
Q 149 :
Who has been conferred with the CII Quality Ratna Award 2021 on 03 July 2022 ?
A.Ashok Soota
B.Mukesh Ambani
C.Gautam Adani
D.Azim Premji
Q 150 :
Who has become the first athlete from India to clock a sub-nine-minute time in the women’s 3000m running event ?
