निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
Question 11Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
उन्नति
B
उनति
C
उन्ती
D
उनती
Question 12Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
अनुशहरण
B
अनोसरण
C
अनुसरन
D
अनुसरण
Question 13Single Answer
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A
आदिकाल
B
रीतिकाल
C
भक्तिकाल
D
आधुनिक काल
Question 14Single Answer
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A
प्राकृत
B
संस्कृत
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी
Question 15Single Answer
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A
बी. जी. खरे
B
राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C
प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D
इंशाअल्ला खा
Question 16Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 17Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 18Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 19Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 20Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 21Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 22Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 23Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 24Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 25Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 26Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 27Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 28Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 29Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 30Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
General Studies
Question 31Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 32Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 33Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 34Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 35Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 36Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 37Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 38Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 39Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 40Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 41Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 42Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 43Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 44Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 45Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 46Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 47Single Answer
Consider the following with reference to the East India Association organised in London:
1. It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
2. The organisation aimed to present correct information about India to the British public and voice Indian grievances.
3. The East India Association incorporated the National Indian Association before the Komagata Maru incident.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 48Single Answer
The aim of the Indian Association found by Surendranath Banerjee was to
A
Represent the views of the educated middle class and take united community action.
B
Give shape to and establish the Indian National Congress.
C
Advocate constitutional reforms through legislative action.
D
Organise seditious movements to dethrone the British empire.
Question 49Single Answer
The Unionist Party was a powerful political party during the period 1923–1947. Consider the following about this party:
1. The party represented the interests of land holders-Hindus, Muslims and also the Sikhs.
2. The party was particularly powerful in the Punjab region and it did not favour the creation of Pakistan as a separate state.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 50Single Answer
The Cripps mission was an attempt by the British government to
A
Extend communal representation in the Imperial legislature
B
Convince the Congress to join the Central legislature
C
Secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II
D
Conclude the Round Table Conferences Successfully
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General Studies
Question 51Single Answer
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. India would be a dominion associated with the United Kingdom
2. An elected body charged with the task of making the constitution would be setup immediately after the World War Il is stopped.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
I only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 52Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 53Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 54Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 55Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 56Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 57Single Answer
The grain size (USDA) of silt in soil ranges between :
A
0.2 mm to 0.5 mm
B
0.5 mm to 0.1 mm
C
0.1 mm to 0.05 mm
D
0.05 mm to 0.002 mm
Question 58Single Answer
What will be BOD, for a wastewater sample when 21 ml of sample is diluted to 300 ml in BOD bottle to determine dissolved oxygen .
[Given: Initial DO, = 10 mg/l; Five days later DO5 = 5 mg/l]
A
~ 5 mg/l
B
~ 25 mg/l
C
~ 71.4 mg/l
D
~75 mg/l
Question 59Single Answer
What will be the concentration of 40 ppb SO₂ in µg/m³ unit at 25°C ?
A
~ 0.04 µg/m³
B
~ 1047 µg/m³
C
~ 104.7 µg/m³
D
~ 10.47 µg/m³
Question 60Single Answer
National Ambient air quality standards typically include following components :
A
Maximum and Minimum pollutant levels, adjustment for co - pollutants
B
Abetment strategies, non - attainment penalties
C
Ambient temperature, size distribution and relative humidity
D
Indicator (Chemical/Chemical class), Averaging time, Pollutant form and level
Question 61Single Answer
Primary air pollutants differ from secondary air pollutants as they :
A
are present in levels that can be weighed on filter paper
B
are directly emitted from identified sources
C
have undergone chemical transformation in air after release from identified sources
D
are designated as hazardous air pollutants
Question 62Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 63Single Answer
Which is the longest river in India?
A
Yamuna
B
Ganges
C
Brahmaputra
D
Godavari
Question 64Single Answer
Bihar is located in which part of India?
A
Western India
B
Northern India
C
Eastern India
D
Southern India
Question 65Single Answer
What is the capital of Bihar?
A
Gaya
B
Bhagalpur
C
Patna
D
Muzaffarpur
Question 66Single Answer
In which year was Bihar formed as a separate province?
A
1905
B
1947
C
1936
D
1912
Question 67Single Answer
Bihar was separated from which state in 1912?
A
Odisha
B
Bengal Presidency
C
Uttar Pradesh
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 68Single Answer
Which country lies to the north of Bihar?
A
Nepal
B
China
C
Bhutan
D
Bangladesh
Question 69Single Answer
What is the name of the next phase of India’s semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?
A
Chip India 3.0
B
India Chip Mission
C
Semicon 2.0
D
Semiconductor Bharat
Question 70Single Answer
Which country conferred its highest honour for foreign leaders, the ‘Oliy Darajali Do‘stlik Order’, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
A
Kazakhstan
B
Kyrgyzstan
C
Uzbekistan
D
Tajikistan
Social Science
Question 71Single Answer
Choose the industrial cities that grew rapidly in Britain in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries:
A
Leeds and Manchester
B
Bristol and Manchester
C
Carlisle and Leeds
D
Chester and Leeds
Question 72Single Answer
Which were the three Presidency cities of Colonial India in late eighteenth century?
A
Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
B
Calcutta, Bombay and Surat
C
Bombay, Madras and Delhi
D
None of these
Question 73Single Answer
What is Urbanization?
A
Migration of population from rural to urban area
B
Migration of people from urban to rural
C
Migration of people from one country to another
D
Migration of population from one state to another one
Question 74Single Answer
What is de urbanization in the colonial context?
A
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports emerged due to emergence of new cities.
B
The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports declined due to emergence of new cities.
C
a and b both
D
None of these
Question 75Single Answer
Which of the following Indian cities which were de-urbanized during the nineteenth century?
i. Machlipatnam
ii. Surat
iii. Seringapatam
iv. Bombay
A
i and ii
B
i, iv and ii
C
i, ii and iii
D
i, ii, iii and iv
Question 76Single Answer
In which year Delhi became the capital of British India?
A
1916
B
1913
C
1915
D
1911
Question 77Single Answer
When was Shahjahanabad built?
A
by ShahJahan in 1640
B
by ShahJahan in 1638
C
by ShahJahan in 1639
D
None of these
Question 78Single Answer
Before Delhi, which city was the capital of British India?
A
Calcutta
B
Madras
C
Bombay
D
Agra
Question 79Single Answer
What is Gulfaroshan?
A
It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Patna during 16th century
B
It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Delhi during 18th century
C
It was a festival of flowers celebrated annually in Delhi during 11th century
D
All of these
Question 80Single Answer
Which period was referred as Delhi renaissance?
A
1857-1860
B
1860-1863
C
1865-1870
D
1830-1857
Question 81Single Answer
In the 1870s, for what reasons the western walls of Shahjahanabad were broken?
A
The walls were broken to establish the railway and to allow the city to expand beyond the walls.
B
The walls were broken to establish textile and iron industries
C
Both a and b
D
None of these
Question 82Single Answer
On which hills was the city of New Delhi built on ?
A
Almoda hills
B
Vindhva hills
C
Raisina Hill
D
None of these
Question 83Single Answer
Name the architects who designed New Delhi and its buildings.
A
Edward Lutyens and Herbert Baker
B
Herbert Baker and Harbar Lutyens
C
Edward Lutyens and Harbar Lutyens
D
None of these
Question 84Single Answer
How many years did it take to build the city of New Delhi?
A
15 years
B
35 years
C
20 years
D
25 years
Question 85Single Answer
Where was Bahadur Shah Zafar exiled to after 1857 revolt?
A
Kashmir
B
south region
C
Afghanistan
D
Burma
Question 86Single Answer
Which of the following Defines Renaissance?
A
It means rebirth of art and learning
B
It is a term often used to describe a time when there is great creative activity
C
a and b both
D
None of these
Question 87Single Answer
When was Delhi College established?
A
1792
B
1793
C
1794
D
1792
Question 88Single Answer
Kamal Khan Gakkhar was made a Mansabdar by:
A
Babur
B
Akabar
C
Shanjahan
D
Jahangir
Question 89Single Answer
The British conquest of Bengal began with the Battle of?
A
Buxur
B
Tripoli
C
St.Tome
D
Plassey
Question 90Single Answer
Haidar Ali and Tipu Sultan were the rulers of?
A
Madhya province
B
Bengal
C
Awadh
D
Mysore
Question 91Single Answer
The earlist manuscripts were written on
A
palm leaves
B
paper
C
wood
D
stones
Question 92Single Answer
What does BC and AD stands for?
A
Anno Domini and Before Common
B
Before Christ and Anno Domini
C
Anno Domini and Before Christ
D
None of the above
Question 93Single Answer
Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of a manuscript?
(A) It is written on a hard surface such as a stone or a metal.
(B) It is an old book written by hand.
(C) It is written on palm leaf or on specially prepared bark of the birch tree.
A
Only A
B
B and C
C
Only B
D
All of these
Question 94Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is false?
A
History is about changes that over time, about finding out how things were in the past and how things have changed
B
In the histories narrated by British historians about India, the rule of each Governor-General was important
C
James Mill divided Indian History into three periods Hindu, Muslim and Christian
D
The British in India believed that surveys were important for effective administration
Question 95Single Answer
Which is the criteria to decide that a particular date is important in history?
A
They are the date of birth of a king or emperor
B
A particular event or set of events has occurred on or around that date
C
It is the date of coronation of a king
D
All of the above
Question 96Single Answer
Which of the following are incorrect statements?
(A) The archaeological evidence is obtained by the systematic examination of building monumentas and work of art.
(B) The credit for excavating the Pre-Aryan past goes to Sir William Jones.
(C) The Asiatic Society of Bengal established on 1786.
(D) James Mill is known as the 'Father of Indian Archaeology'.
A
A and B
B
C and D
C
B and D
D
B, C and D
Question 97Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct option
(A) Inscriptions are the most reliable evidence and their study is called epigraphy.
(B) James Princep, the secretary of the Asiatic Society of Bengal succeeded for the first time in deciphering the Brahmi script.
A
Both A and B are true
B
A is false and B is true
C
A and B are false
D
A is true and B is false
Question 98Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B on the study of coins and choose the correct option
(A) The study of coins is known as numismatics
(B) The coins give us an idea about the socio-political aspect of that period.
A
Both A and B are true
B
A is false and B is true
C
A and B are false
D
A is true and B is false
Question 99Single Answer
Which of the following are correct statements?
(A) Literaiy sources includes manuscripts.
(B) These writings were written by hands.
(C) It gives a reliable glimpses of culture and civilisation of the age
(D) Raj Tarangini was written by Banbhatta.
A
A, B and C
B
B,C and D
C
A, B and D
D
All of these
Question 100Single Answer
Which objects can archaeologists find which may be made of stone?
A
Remains of buildings, paintings and sculpture
B
Tools, weapons and ornaments found by excavation
C
Coins, pots and pans found beneath the surface of the Earth
D
All ot the above
Question 101Single Answer
On what subjects were books not written in ancient days?
A
Murder mysteries
B
Religious beliefs and practices
C
Lives of the kings
D
Epics, poems and plays
Question 102Single Answer
What is the meaning of ‘periodisation’ in history?
A
Deciding the period of time for which an age like neolithic or paleolithic age lasts
B
Dividing the earlier times into fixed periods of 100 years each
C
Demarcating of time into different unequal periods based on the occurrence of some significant events
D
None of the above
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following gives the correct meaning of ‘colonisation’ in history?
A
When one country conquers another, it brings about changes in its society
B
When a country ‘colonises’ another, it imposes its religion on the colonised country completely
C
Colonisation implies intermarrying of the colonised people with the colonisers
D
All of the above
Question 104Single Answer
What can a historian not derive from surveys?
A
We can collect the right data, figures and information regarding a subject
B
We can find out past behaviour and structure of society
C
We can find out the culture, habits and means of livelihood of the people
D
All of the above
Question 105Single Answer
In the middle of the 19th century, British historians divided history of Indin into three periods-Hindu India, Muslim India and British India. What is the basis of this division?
A
It was based on the idea that religion of the rulers was an important historical change
B
History of England is also written in a similar way
C
Britishers felt they were more knowledge-able at that point of time in history and so used this division
D
It was convenient and easy to remember
Question 106Single Answer
Which of the following statement about ‘ancient manuscript’ is not correct?
A
They were usually written on Palm leaves
B
They are primary source of the period they reflected
C
They were handwritten and then printed
D
Some manuscript were engraved on stone or metal
Question 107Single Answer
What is ‘Common Era'?
A
A new era developed by amalgamation of Hindu Era and Islamic Era
B
A new era to study historical events
C
Christian Era which is now accepted in major parts of the world
D
Indian Era accepted by the government to issue notices
Question 108Single Answer
The year ‘2012 can also be written as
A
AD 2012
B
AP 2012
C
BC 2012
D
EC 2012
Question 109Single Answer
The division of the period of Indian History into ‘Ancient’, ‘Medieval’ and ‘Modern’ also has problems. Which of the following is one of the problems in it?
A
Tripartite division reflects gradual growth of the Indian state
B
Three periods are insufficient to describe Indian History
C
The concept has been borrowed from the West where modem period was associated with science, reason, democracy, liberty and equality
D
Indian history seems to have diear lines of distinction between ‘Ancient and Medieval’ and ‘Medieval and Modern’ period
Question 110Single Answer
Why would you ask question on historical imagination? Choose the most appropriate option from the following.
A
It encourages comparison of the present with the past
B
It evaluates a student’s ability to identify sources
C
It is fun-way to remember dates and events
D
It shows how historians fill gaps in history with their imagination
Question 111Single Answer
An archive is a place where
A
historical manuscripts and documents are kept
B
excavated bones of animals and birds are kept
C
remains of the buildings made of stone and bricks, found by archaeologists are kept
D
sculptures found in excavations are kept
Question 112Single Answer
History will help you to
(A) understand how the present evolved.
(B) understand the working of our physical and social world. (C) compare the past with the present. Which of the above are correct?
A
A, B and C
B
A and B
C
B and C
D
A and C
Question 113Single Answer
Consider the following two statements A and B regarding factors responsible for movement of earliest people and choose the correct answer.
(A) These hunter-gatherers moved from place to place in search of food.
(B) The water reservoir and season was not responsible for their movement.
A
A and B are true
B
A is false and B is true
C
B is false and A is true
D
Both A and B are false
Question 114Single Answer
Which of the following are incorrect statements?
(A) Hallur is a Mesolithic site.
(B) Patne is a Neolithic site.
(C) Chirand is a Neolithic site.
(D) Kumool cave is a Mesolithic site.
A
A and B
B
C and D
C
A, B and D
D
B and D
Question 115Single Answer
Consider the following two statements, A and B on the archaeological sites of India and choose the correct answer.
(A) Hunsgi is situated in Karnataka and it is a palaeolithicsite.
(B) Langnnaj (Gujarat) is a archaeological site present in Mesolithic age.
A
A and B are true
B
A is false and B is true
C
A and B are false
D
A is true and B is false
Question 116Single Answer
Which of the following are correct statements?
(A) The Mesolithic age signifies the environmental changes. (B) Stone tools of Mesolithic age are very small and are called microliths.
(C) In Neolithic age, the stone tools were more refined.
A
A and B
B
B and C
C
A, B and C
D
A and C
Question 117Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer
(A) Natural caves and rock shelters are mainly found in the Vindhyas and the Deccan Plateau.
(B) Places where stone was found and people made tools are known as factory sites.
A
Both A and B are true
B
A is false and B is true
C
Both A and B are false
D
A is true and B is false
Question 118Single Answer
Which of the following are incorrect statements?
(A) Sheep were the first animal to be domesticated.
(B) The Vindhyan caves suggest that people were familiar with the use of fire.
(C) Around 20000 years ago there were major changes in the climate of the world.
A
A and B
B
B and C
C
A, B and C
D
A and C
Question 119Single Answer
Ostriches were found in India during
A
Palaeolithic age
B
Mesolithic age
C
Neolithic age
D
Megalithic age
Question 120Single Answer
A large quantities of ostrich eggs were found at
A
Chirand
B
Hunsgi
C
Bhimbetka
D
Patne
Question 121Single Answer
Belan valley is situated in
A
Karnataka
B
Uttar Pradesh
C
Maharashtra
D
Bihar
Question 122Single Answer
A historical site is a place where
A
relics of the past are found
B
excavation activities are done
C
history-loving people gather
D
historians write history
Question 123Single Answer
Which one of the following is a ‘Palaeolithic site’?
A
Bhimbetka
B
Burzahom
C
Inamgaon
D
Hallur
Question 124Single Answer
Bhimbetka in Madhya Pradesh is a
A
Palaeolithic site
B
Neolithic site
C
Megalithic site
D
Mesolithic site
Question 125Single Answer
At which place it was a general practice to lay the dead with head towards North?
A
Inamgaon
B
Burzahom
C
Mehargarh
D
Bhimbetka
Question 126Single Answer
In some areas people startted living in villages about 8000 years ago. Which of the following were among these areas?
A
Areas around Narmada
B
Sulaiman and Kirthar hills
C
Ganga and Yamuna doab
D
Deccan and Konkan
Question 127Single Answer
Which period is the longest in the human history?
A
Palaeolithic age
B
Megalithic age
C
Mesolithic age
D
Neolithic age
Question 128Single Answer
Ancient rock paintings have been found in
A
Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
B
Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
C
Andhra Pradesh and Odisha
D
Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
Question 129Single Answer
Which of the following was not a reason for hunter-gatherers to move from place to place?
A
Staying at one place would deplete resources
B
To follow movement of animals which they hunted
C
To fight for resources with another group of hunter-gatherers
D
To search for water resources
Question 130Single Answer
The First Farmers and Herders
1.Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) The climate of the world changed near the end of Neolithic age and there was a gradual warming up.
(B) Chirand is situated in Utter Pradesh.
A
Both A and B are true
B
A is true and B is false
C
Both A and B is false
D
A is false and B is true
Question 131Single Answer
Social studies is different from other fields of learning because its contents and meaning lay stress on ?
A
persons and their vulnerable relationships
B
persons and their relationship with nature
C
persons and their relationships
D
persons and their individual relationships
Question 132Single Answer
Which one of the following is not part of the all - round development of children which 'Social Studies' contributes to ?
A
Evaluation structure
B
Desirable attitudes
C
Essential skills
D
Relevant understandings
Question 133Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer
A. Studying human relationship with nature is one of the scopes of social study.
B. Cause and effect relationship is less significant in social study.
Codes :
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 134Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
A
The difference between social studies and social science is based on approach
B
The difference between social studies and social science is based on treatment
C
The difference between social studies and social science is based on content
D
All of the above
Question 135Single Answer
The current social studies curriculum does not focus on ?
A
learning through activities
B
learning beyond the textbooks
C
learning by rote
D
learning by discussion
Question 136Single Answer
Which of the following best describes 'Political Science' ?
A
It is a social science discipline concerning politicians
B
It is a social science discipline concerned with the problems of marginalised groups
C
It is a social science discipline concerned with the study of the State Government and politics
D
It is a discipline concerned with indiscipline politicians
Question 137Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer
A. On education matter only Central Government can make laws.
B. National Education Policy, 1986 does not talk about girls education.
Codes :
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 138Single Answer
As per NCF 2005, selection and organisation of material into a meaningful social science curriculum enables students to develop what ?
A
A better understanding of the subject matter to enable them to pass their exams
B
A critical understanding of society
C
An understanding of the problems India faces today
D
A better knowledge of the world's trouble spots
Question 139Single Answer
As per NCF 2005, which of the following will make the teaching - learning process more interesting and enjoyable ?
A
If the process is participatory but not coercive
B
If it is embellished with many stories
C
If it has many long breaks to enable the children to meditate on what they have learnt
D
If seating of the students in the classroom is changed every day
Question 140Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer
A. Education is fundamental to our all - round development, material and spiritual.
B. Establishment of Navodaya Vidalia was initiated by National Education Policy, 1986.
Codes :
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are true
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are false
Question 141Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer
A. Size and weight of school bags do not influence learning of a child.
B. Yashpal committee report emphasised on use of audio - visuals as a teaching aid.
Codes :
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 142Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B about NCF - 2005
A. It makes a case for doing away with stereotypes based on gender and caste.
B. In social science classes sensitivity towards gender and caste cannot be developed among learners.
Codes :
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are true
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are false
Question 143Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer
A. A primary level curriculum of social science should be discussion based.
B. At middle level curriculum of social science should be linked with vocational courses.
Codes :
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are true
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are false
Question 144Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer
A. National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) is a statutory body.
B. NCTE is an apex body to frame National Curriculum framework.
Codes :
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are true
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are false
Question 145Single Answer
At different level curriculum of social science is based on recommendation of which organisation/report/committee ?
A
NCF - 2005
B
NCERT
C
All of the above
D
None of the above
Question 146Single Answer
According to NCF 2005, Social Science teaching must adopt methods which promote ?
A
audio - visual materials, photographs and maps
B
problem - solving, dramatization and role play
C
creativity, aesthetics and critical perspectives
D
None of the above
Question 147Single Answer
Choose the most inappropriate statement regarding teaching of Social Science in middle school ?
A
Social Science should be taught as it helps to acquire an understanding of human relationships
B
Social Science should be taught as it helps to sensitise children regarding social reality
C
Social Science should be taught because it helps students debate and reflect on social issues
D
Social Science should be a part of the curriculum so that the learners know about the lives of kings and the battles they fought
Question 148Single Answer
Which of the following statements is incorrect about Social Science ?
A
Social Science creates and widens human, values such as freedom, respect for diversity etc
B
As Social Science deals with people, the nature of enquiry is not scientific
C
Social Science lays the foundations for an analytical and creative mind - set
D
Social Science encompasses diverse concerns of society, including historical, geographical, economic and political dimensions
Question 149Single Answer
The National Curriculum Framework 2005, suggests that instead of 'Civics', the term 'Political Science' be used because ?
A
'Political Science' is a globally recognised field of study
B
Political Science' will provide political training
C
The term 'Civics' was coined in the Raj era and is associated with obedience and loyalty
D
Political Science' is taught at a higher level of education, therefore schools should prepare grounds for it
Question 150Single Answer
The major purpose of assessment in Social Science should be to ?
A
Provide credible feedback on the extent to which educational objectives have been achieved
B
predict the learners' chances of pursuing a successful career in humanities
C
gauge the extent of the knowledge of content acquired by learners
D
maintain a desirable academic quality of knowledge in the students passing out