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Objective Questions

Latest BSNL Management Trainee Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Management Aptitude, Cognitive Ability, Technical knowledge

Question Bank BSNL Management Trainee Exam - English

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Management Aptitude

Question 1Single Answer

The following is the demand function :
Q =100-5P
What will be the point price elasticity of demand at price

10?

A
2.00
B
1.00
C
0.85
D
0.50

Question 2Single Answer

Match the items of List-1 with the items of List-2 and select the code of correct matching :
List-1
(a) sales revenue maximization
(b) maximization of a firm's growth rate
(c) maximization of managerial utility function
(d) Satisficing behaviour model
List-2
(1) Williamson's model
(2) Cyert-March Hypothesis
(3) Baumol's Theory
(4) Marri's Theory

A
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (4) (1) (2)
B
(1) (2) (4) (3)
C
(2) (3) (1) (4)
D
(4) (3) (2) (1)

Question 3Single Answer

Assertion (A) : the perceived risk of operating a domestic firm in international environment is much higher.
Reason (R) : the international environment is more volatile and the domestic firm generally does not have full information about the environment.

A
Codes :
Both (A) and (R) are correct.
B
Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
C
(A) is correct while (R) is incorrect.
D
(A) is incorrect while (R) is correct.

Question 4Single Answer

Statement-1 : the accept-reject approach is adopted generally when a firm has a large amount of funds to invest in several projects at the same time.
Statement-2 : Both the NVP and the IRR methods of investment appraisal are based on discounted cash flow approach.

A
Both the statements are correct.
B
Both the statements are incorrect.
C
Statement-1 is correct while statement-2 is incorrect.
D
Statement-1 is incorrect while statement-2 is correct.

Question 5Single Answer

Which process is used by a person (perceiver) to deal with conflicting messages and conflicting data?

A
Halo effect
B
The process of checking
C
Perceptual defence
D
The process of reacting

Question 6Single Answer

The basic Emphasis of________ theory of organisational design is on flat structure, decentralization and provision of informal organisation.

A
Neo-classical theory
B
Modern Theory of systems approach
C
Matrix organisation theory
D
Classical Theory

Question 7Single Answer

The result variables as the component of mathematical model for measuring system's effectiveness and efficiency in management science include_________

A
Measures of performance
B
Measures of effectiveness
C
Payoffs and outcomes
D
All the above

Question 8Single Answer

Assertion (A) : Reinforcement plays a central role in the learning process.
Reason (R) : Reinforcement strengthens the response preceding it and induces repetitions of the response.

A
Codes :
Both (A) and (R) are correct.
B
(A) is correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A)
C
(A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
D
Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Question 9Single Answer

Most job descriptions contain sections that cover.

A
Responsibilities and duties
B
Job summary
C
Working conditions
D
All of the above

Question 10Single Answer

Match the items of List-1 with the items of List-2 The items related to evoluation and follow-up of training process.
List-1
(a) Results
(b) Learning
(c) Reaction
(d) Behaviour
List-2
(1) Document the learner's immediate response to the training.
(2) Note supervisor's reactions to learner's performance following completion of the training.
(3) Use feedback devices or pre and post tests to measure what learners have actually gained.
(4) determine the level of improvement in job performance.

A
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (2) (1) (4)
B
(4) (3) (1) (2)
C
(1) (2) (3) (4)
D
(4) (1) (3) (2)

Question 11Single Answer

Which one of the following assumptions is not related to consumer behaviour based on the Cardinal utility approach ?

A
Rationality
B
Diminishing marginal utility of money
C
Utility cardinally measurable
D
Maximization of satisfaction with limited money income

Question 12Single Answer

Statement 1 : a rectangular hyperbola shaped demand curve has uniform slopes on all its points.
Statement 2 : If the price elasticity is equal to Unity, the marginal revenue corresponds to zero.

A
Codes :
both the statements are correct.
B
both the statements are incorrect.
C
statement 1 is correct while Statement 2 is incorrect.
D
Statement 1 is incorrect while Statement 2 is correct.

Question 13Single Answer

Match the items of list-1 with the items of list-2 and find the correct combination :
List-1 (Market Structure)
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Oligopoly
(c) Monopoly
(d) Monopolistic competition
List-2 (Nature of industry where prevalent)
(1) Aluminium and passenger cars
(2) public utilities like telephones and electricity
(3) manufacturing : T.V sets, refring-erators
(4) Farm Products : Grains

A
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
B
(4) (1) (2) (3)
C
(3) (4) (1) (2)
D
(2) (3) (4) (1)

Question 14Single Answer

Statement-1 : In general, the MVP and IRR methods lead to the some acceptance or rejection decision when a single project is involved.
Statement-2 : The inconsistency in ranking of competing projects as per the NVP and IRR methods lies in the implicit assumptions with regard to different rates of returns on re-investment of intermediate cash flows.

A
Codes :
both statements are.
B
both statements are incorrect.
C
Statement-1 is correct while Statement-2 is incorrect.
D
Statement-1 is incorrect while Statement-2 is correct.

Question 15Single Answer

Which one of the following is not covered in macro-economics?

A
performance of the entire economy
B
price and output determination of a commodity
C
factors and forces of Economics fluctuations
D
Monetary and fiscal policies

Question 16Single Answer

Match the below mentioned aspects with their main behavioural disciplines :
Aspects
(a) Leadership and stress
(b) Group conflict management
(c) Cross-culturalanalysis
(d) Power
Behavioural discipline
(1) Psychology
(2) Anthropology
(3) Sociology and Psychology
(4) Political Science

A
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) (1) (2) (3)
B
(2) (3) (1) (4)
C
(1) (4) (2) (3)
D
(4) (2) (3) (1)

Question 17Single Answer

The operant conditioning on learning approach to behaviour is based on............

A
Law or Reinforcement
B
Law of effect
C
Law of reproduction
D
Law of expectations

Question 18Single Answer

The principles by which the process of perceptual organisation works was first identified by Max wertheimer in the year.........

A
1918
B
1933
C
1924
D
1923

Question 19Single Answer

The..........Leadership theory of............ describes that effective group performance depends on the proper match between the leader's style if interacting with his subordinates and the degree to which the situation gives control and influence to the leader.

A
'Iowa State Leadership Studies';
B
Ronald Luppitt and Ralph K. White
C
'Managerial Grid'; Blake and Mouton
D
'Trait Theory'; Stodgill and Barnard
E
'Contingency Model'; Fred Fielder

Question 20Single Answer

when one individual or group wins at the expense of another individual or group, it is termed as..........

A
Zero-sum conflict
B
Non-zero sum conflict
C
Line-staff conflict
D
Formal-informal conflict

Question 21Single Answer

If the demand for using the Noida Express way is given by :
Q = 40,000 - 2500 P
Where Q is the number of users (vehicles) and P is the amount of toll collected per unit who uses the express way. In light of this information which of the following is true :

A
At P = Rs.6 and Q = 14000; demand is price inelastic.
B
At P = Rs.7 and Q = 16,500; demand is unitary elastic.
C
At P = Rs. 4 and Q = 9500; demand is Price elastic.
D
All of the above

Question 22Single Answer

If a 100 % scale -efficient plant has 92 % technical efficiency and 88.5 % allocative -efficiency, thrn its overall efficiency will be :

A
88.5 %
B
90.25 %
C
93.0 %
D
81.42 %

Question 23Single Answer

The market share data for an industry, comparison five companies, it's given below :
Company.                       Market Share (%)
A.                                       35
B.                                        25
C.                                        18
D.                                        12
E.                                       10
This industry's three- firms Herfindahl-Hirschman index shall be :

A
0.234
B
0.217
C
0.151
D
0.0175

Question 24Single Answer

For an economy which consists of single automobile maker and that in Year 2014, 30000 vehicles are produced with an average price of 500000 lakh. For this economy what would be the increase in the nominal GDP for 2015 compared with 2014 with the 4 % greater automobile production and 8% inflation.

A
4.0 %
B
12.0 %
C
6.0 %
D
12.32 %

Question 25Single Answer

Demand Policies targeted to reduce the unemployment become ineffective in presence of the following :

A
Vertical Phillips curve
B
Money Illusion and ignorance among workers
C
Horizontal Phillips curve
D
None of the above

Question 26Single Answer

An individual's involvement with, satisfaction and enthusiasm for, the work he does, is knows as :

A
Employee engagement
B
Job involvement
C
Job satisfaction
D
Organisational commitment

Question 27Single Answer

which of the following is not pereceived as the basic element of motivation ?

A
Direction
B
Intensity
C
Performance
D
Persistence

Question 28Single Answer

A theory of motivation that is concerned with the beneficial effects of intrinsic motivation and the harmful effectz of extrinsic motivation, is termed as :

A
Cognitive Evaluation Theory
B
Self -efficiency Theory
C
Self- determination Theory
D
Two -factor Theory

Question 29Single Answer

Match the item of list-I with those of List-II
List-I. List-II
Behavioural Science. Contribution
A. anthropology. (i) Attitude change
B. Psychology. (ii) Attitude measurement
C. Social Psychology. (iii) Conflict
D. Sociology. (iv) Organisational culture

A
Codes :.
(a).         (b).          (c).           (d)
(i).         (ii)           (iii)            (iv)
B
(iv) (ii). (i). (iii)
C
(iv) (ii). (iii). (i)
D
(ii) (ii). (iii). (i)

Question 30Single Answer

A relatively stable set of characteristics that influence and individual's behaviour is known as :

A
Attitude
B
Learning
C
Perception
D
Personality

Question 31Single Answer

In the market- oriented system, for the allocation of resources which one the following is the most appropriate convevyor of information ?

A
Finance Ministry
B
Central Bank
C
Market Price
D
Advertisement Expenditure

Question 32Single Answer

A company supplies 20 units of a particular products per month, at a price of Rs 10 per unit. Is price elasticity of supply is 5, how many units would be company supply at a price of Rs 15 ?

A
50
B
70
C
40
D
5

Question 33Single Answer

Which characteristic is not likely to be a part of perfect competition ?

A
Absence of indepence
B
Deadweight loss is non-existent
C
Strong rivalry
D
Absence of advertisement

Question 34Single Answer

Match the items given in List-I and List-II by considering which of the following are macroeconomic issues and which are macroeconomic ones :
List-I. List-II
a. The level of government revenue. (i) Microeconomic
b. The rate of inflation (ii) Microeconomic
c. The price of T.V. set
d. The amount saved last year by households

A
Codes :
(a). (b). (c). (d)
(ii). (i). (i). (ii)
B
(ii). (i). (ii). (i)
C
(i). (ii). (ii). (ii)
D
(ii). (ii). (i). (ii)

Question 35Single Answer

In the recent years, World economy has witnessed the unfluence of unconventional monetary policy of the U.S.A. This policy stanse is known as :

A
Bank rate
B
Taylor rule
C
Reserve Requirement
D
Quantitative easing

Question 36Single Answer

Indicate the correct code for the scope of managerial economics from the following :
(a) Demand Analysis
(b) Production and Cost Analysis
(c) Pricing and Investment Decisions
(d) Factor pricing Decisions
(e) Economic Environmental Analysis
Codes :

A
(a), (b), (c), (d)
B
(b), (c), (d), (e)
C
(a), (b), (c), (e)
D
(a), (c), (d), (e)

Question 37Single Answer

Which one of the following will be the appropriate pricing strategy for a new product expecting an expanding market?

A
Monopoly pricing
B
Skimming pricing
C
Penetrating pricing
D
Differential pricing

Question 38Single Answer

Match the items of the List-I with those of the List-II and suggest the correct code from the following :
      List-I                                  List-II
(a) Loss Leader               (i) Locational price differentials
(b) Unchanged Pricing   (ii) Products with high initial demands
(c) Basing Point Pricing   (iii) Product line pricing
(d) Skimming Pricing       (iv) Oligopoly pricing
   Code :

A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
C
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
D
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

Question 39Single Answer

In case the firm makes varying investments on the different investment projects, the appropriate project evaluation technique would be, which one of the following?

A
Average annual rate of return technique
B
Pay back period technique
C
Net present value technique
D
Profitability index technique

Question 40Single Answer

According to Henry Fayol, which one of the following combinations of qualities are required in a manager?

A
Physical, mental, experience, educational and conceptual.
B
Technical, human, conceptual, mental and moral.
C
Physical, mental, moral, educational, technical and experience
D
Mental, moral, conceptual, educational, technical and experience.

Question 41Single Answer

In the case the price (P), quantity (Q), and changes (∆) are represented by respective symbols given in the brackets, the price elasticity of demand (Ed) is measured by :

A
Ed = ∆Q / ∆P
B
Ed = (∆Q/Q)/( ∆P/P)
C
Ed = (∆P/P)/ (∆Q/Q)
D
Ed = (∆P/P)/( ∆Q/Q)

Question 42Single Answer

Law of Diminishing Return applies when the gaps among the successive 'multiple level of output' isoquants :

A
decreases
B
remains constant
C
increases
D
remains irregular

Question 43Single Answer

In case of the demand elasticity under imperfect competition in utility, the marginal revenue will be :

A
more than utility, but less infinity.
B
Equal to Unity
C
less than Unity, but more than zero
D
Equal to zero

Question 44Single Answer

Rice in general price level alongwith declining output in the economy is called ?

A
Inflation
B
Deflection
C
Stageflation
D
Demand -pull inflation

Question 45Single Answer

National income equilibrium is not at the level where :

A
aggregate investment equal aggregate savings
B
aggregate expenditure equal aggregate income
C
Inflationary and deflationary gaps are absent
D
aggregate consumption is constant

Question 46Single Answer

Which of the following is a correct match ?

A
McClelland - ERG Therory
B
Skinner - Reinforcement Theory
C
V room - Equity Theory
D
Locke - Expectancy Theory

Question 47Single Answer

According to organisational culture Inventory (OCI), an Organisation in which members are encouraged to work together in ways that meet higher order human needs is classified as having a .................culture.

A
constructive
B
motivational
C
passive
D
high achievement

Question 48Single Answer

Organisational development (OD) is a planned change plus:

A
Evaluation
B
Interventional
C
Ability for self- renewal
D
Reinforcement

Question 49Single Answer

Match the following :
List -I List-II
(Concept) (Term)
a. An ongoing and normalised effort that (i) Direction Phase
focuses on developing enriched and more
capable workers.
b. A career development activity in which (ii) Career
manages make decisions regarding the
advancement potential of subordinates.
c. A career development activity that (iii) Profitability forecast focuses on preparing people to
fill executive positionsd.
D. Determining the type of carrer that (iv) Succession Planning employees wamt and the steps they
must take to realise their career goals.

A
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
C
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
D
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

Question 50Single Answer

A former explanation the knowledge skills, abilities, traits and other characterization necessary for effective job performance is known as :

A
Job Description
B
Job Analysis
C
Job Specification
D
Job Enrichment

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Cognitive Ability

Question 51Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 52Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 53Single Answer

The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Question 54Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 55Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 56Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 57Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 58Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 59Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 60Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 61Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 62Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 63Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 64Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 65Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Question 66Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 67Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 68Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 69Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 70Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Question 71Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 72Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 73Single Answer

Passage :

If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG

Question 74Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?

A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK

Question 75Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 76Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 77Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 78Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 79Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 80Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 81Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 82Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 83Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 84Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 85Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 86Single Answer

Passage :

information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206

Question 87Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these

Question 88Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?

A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%

Question 89Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?

A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these

Question 90Single Answer

Passage :

What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?

A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these

Question 91Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?

A
4%
B
3%
C
1%
D
None of these

Question 92Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

If A and B are any two sets, then what is A ᴖ (A ᴗ B) equal to ?

A
Complement of A
B
Complement of B
C
B
D
A

Question 93Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?

A
10%
B
15%
C
20%
D
25%

Question 94Single Answer

Passage :

Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.

Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi

The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by

A
25%
B
100%
C
75%
D
0%

Question 95Single Answer

Passage :

Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi

The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is

A
15
B
25
C
40
D
75

Question 96Single Answer

Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error

Question 97Single Answer

A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error

Question 98Single Answer

A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error

Question 99Single Answer

Passage :

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

To sleep with the fishes

A
Always be in a dream world
B
To make absurd excuses
C
To sleep peacefully
D
To be dead

Question 100Single Answer

Passage :

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.

A
To exterminate
B
To expurgate
C
To intricate
D
To extricate

Technical knowledge

Question 101Single Answer

At temperature of 298 Kelvin, Silicon is not suitable for most-electronic applications, due to small amount of conductivity. This can be altered by

A
Gettering
B
Doping
C
Squeezing
D
Sintering

Question 102Single Answer

By doping Germanium with Gallium, the types of semi-conductors formed are
1. N type
2. P type
3. Intrinsic
4. Extrinsic

A
1 and 4
B
2 and 4
C
1 and 3
D
2 and 3

Question 103Single Answer

An n-type of silicon can be formed by adding impurity of:
1. Phosphorous
2. Arsenic
3. Boron
4. Aluminum
Which of the above are correct ?

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 4

Question 104Single Answer

According to Einstein’s relationship for a semiconductor, the ratio of diffusion constant to the mobility of the charge carriers is

A
Variable and is twice the volt equivalent of the temperature
B
Constant and is equal to the volt equivalent of the temperature
C
Equal to two and is twice the volt equivalent of the temperature
D
Equal to one and is equal to the volt equivalent of the temperature

Question 105Single Answer

Swept-out voltage in PIN diode happens when PIN diode is

A
Forward biased and the thickness of the depletion layer decreases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
B
Reverse biased and the thickness of the depletion layer increases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
C
Forward biased and the thickness of the depletion layer increases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
D
Reverse biased and the thickness of the depletion layer decreases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers

Question 106Single Answer

The number of holes in an N-type silicon with intrinsic value 1.5 × 10¹⁰/cm³ and doping concentration of 10¹⁷/cm³, by using mass-action law is

A
6.67 × 10⁶/cc
B
4.44 × 10^-25/cc
C
1.5× 10^-24/cc
D
2.25 × 10³/cc

Question 107Single Answer

A tunnel-diode is best suited for

A
Very low frequencies
B
50 Hz
C
100 Hz
D
Microwave frequencies

Question 108Single Answer

Small recovery time of a diode is most significant for

A
Line-frequency rectification
B
Switching operations
C
High-frequency rectifications and switching operations
D
Low-frequency rectifications and switching operations

Question 109Single Answer

In JFET, when operated above the pinch-off voltage, the

A
Depletion region becomes smaller
B
Drain current starts decreasing
C
Drain current remains practically constant
D
Drain current increases steeply

Question 110Single Answer

Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because, as the temperature of FET increases

A
The drain current increases
B
The mobility of charge carriers decreases
C
The mobility of charge carriers increases
D
The transconductance increases

Question 111Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding an N-P-N Bipolar Junction Transistor:
1. Emitter diode is forward biased and collector diode is reverse biased
2. Emitter has many free electrons
3. Free electrons are injected into base and pass through collector
4. Depletion layers around junction J1 and J2 of BJT are widened
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 112Single Answer

A freewheeling diode T phase controlled rectifier

A
Improves the line power factor
B
Enables inverse operation
C
Is responsible for additional reactive power
D
Is responsible for additional harmonics

Question 113Single Answer

The zeners incorporated within the encapsulations of some MOSFETs are meant for

A
Reducing the cost
B
Biasing the gate circuit
C
Self-protecting the device against transients
D
None of the above

Question 114Single Answer

When UJT is used for triggering an SCR, the wave-shape of the signal obtained from UJT circuit is

A
Sine wave
B
Saw tooth wave
C
Trapezoidal wave
D
Square wave

Question 115Single Answer

Darlington pairs are frequently used in linear ICs because, they

A
Do not require any capacitors or inductors
B
Have enormous impedance transformation capability
C
Can be readily formed/hooked from two adjacent transistors
D
Resemble emitter follower

Question 116Single Answer

In a MOS capacitance fabricate on a P-type semiconductor, strong inversion occurs, when potential is

A
Equal to Fermi level
B
Zero
C
Negative and equal to Fermi potential in magnitude
D
Positive and equal to Fermi potential in magnitude

Question 117Single Answer

A CMOS amplifier when compared to an N channel MOSFET has the advantage of

A
Higher cutoff frequency
B
Higher voltage gain
C
Higher current gain
D
Lower power dissipation

Question 118Single Answer

Consider the following statements regardingoptocouplers:
1. Optocouplers are LEDs driving photodiodes in a single package to provide electrical isolation between input and output
2. Optocouplers is LED driving a phototransistor in a single package that replaces pulse transformers working at input zero crossing
3. Optocouplers are used as temporary non fixed joints between optical fibre terminations
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 119Single Answer

Which of the following does not cause permanent damage to an SCR ?

A
High current
B
High rate of rise of current
C
High temperature rise
D
High rate of rise of voltage

Question 120Single Answer

The basic structure of an avalanche photodiode is

A
p⁺ – i – p – n⁺
B
p⁺ – I – n⁺
C
p⁺ – p^- – n⁺
D
i – p^- – n⁺

Question 121Single Answer

Which one of the following helps experimental confirmation of the Crystalline state of matter?

A
Shock compression
B
Photo emission
C
Conductivity measurements
D
X-ray diffraction

Question 122Single Answer

The electrical conductivity of pure semiconductor is:

A
Proportional to temperature
B
Increases exponentially with temperature
C
Decreases exponentially with temperature
D
Not altered with temperature

Question 123Single Answer

Consider the following statements pertaining to the resistance of a conductor:
1. Resistance can be simply defined as the ratio of voltage across the conductor to the current through the conductor. This is, in fact, Georg Ohm’s law.
2. Resistance is a function of voltage and current.
3. Resistance is a function of conductor geometry and its conductivity
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 124Single Answer

The ratio of ionic radii of Cations i.e.and that of Anions i.e.for stable and unstable ceramic crystal structure, is:

A
Less than unity
B
Greater than unity
C
Unity
D
Either lesser or greater than unity

Question 125Single Answer

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A
For insulators the band-gap is narrow as compared to semiconductors
B
For insulators the band-gap is relatively wide whereas for semiconductors it is narrow
C
The band-gap is narrow in width for both the insulators and conductors
D
The band-gap is equally wide for both conductors and semiconductors

Question 126Single Answer

In an extrinsic semiconductor the conductivity significantly depends upon:

A
Majority charge carriers generated due to impurity doping
B
Minority charge carriers generated due to thermal agitation
C
Majority charge carriers generated due to thermal agitation
D
Minority charge carriers generated due to impurity doping

Question 127Single Answer

In some substances when an electric field is applied the substance become polarized. The electrons and nucleii assume new geometrical positions and the mechanical dimensions are altered. This phenomenon is called:

A
Electrostriction
B
Hall-Effect
C
Polarization
D
Magnetization

Question 128Single Answer

In ferromagnetic materials, the net magnetic moment created due to magnetization by an applied field as:

A
Normal to the applied field
B
Adds to the applied field
C
In line with magneto motive force
D
Subtracts from the applied field

Question 129Single Answer

At what temperatures domains lose their ferromagnetic properties?

A
Above ferromagnetic Curie temperature
B
Below paramagnetic Curie temperature
C
Above 4
D
At room temperature

Question 130Single Answer

Which of the following materials does not have paramagnetic properties?
1. Rare earth elements (with incomplete shell)
2. Transition elements
3. Magnesium oxide
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1 and 2

Question 131Single Answer

Which of the following regions of operation are mainly responsible for heating of the transistor under switching operation?
1. Saturation region
2. Cut-off region
3. Transition from saturation to cut-off
4. Transition from cut-off to saturation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A
1, 2 and 4 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 132Single Answer

In a sinusoidal oscillator, sustained oscillations will be produced only if the loop gain (at the oscillation frequency) is

A
Less than unity but not zero
B
Zero
C
Unity
D
Greater than unity

Question 133Single Answer

The Class-B push-pull amplifier is an efficient two –transistor circuit, in which the two transistors operate in the following way:

A
Both transistors operate in the active region throughout the negative ac cycle
B
Both transistors operate in the active region for more than half-cycle but less than a whole cycle
C
One transistor conducts during the positive half-cycle and the other during the negative half-cycle
D
Full supply voltage appears across each of the transistors

Question 134Single Answer

PAC stands for______.

A
Permanent angle converter
B
Phase angle converter
C
Phase angle components
D
Phase angle capacitor
E
None of these

Question 135Single Answer

For normal operation of a transistor

A
Forward bias the emitter diode and reverse bias the collector diode
B
Forward bias the emitter diode as well as the collector diode
C
Reverse bias the emitter diode as well as the collector diode
D
Reverse bias the emitter diode and forward bias the collector diode

Question 136Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding linear power supply:
1. It requires low frequency transformer.
2. It requires high frequency transformer.
3. The transistor works in active region.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
3 only

Question 137Single Answer

A full wave rectifier connected to the output terminals of the mains transformer produces an RMS voltage of 18 V across the secondary. The no-load voltage across the secondary of the transformer is

A
1.62 V
B
16.2 V
C
61.2 V
D
6.12 V

Question 138Single Answer

MICR stands for______.

A
Magnetic Ink Chart Receipt
B
Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
C
Magnetic Ink Chart Recognition
D
Magnetic Ink capacitor Reverse
E
None of these

Question 139Single Answer

In an Op-Amp, if the feedback voltage is reduced by connecting a voltage divider at the output, which of the following will happen?
1. Input impedance increases
2. Output impedance increases
3. Overall gain increases
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 140Single Answer

The transient response rise time (unity gain) of an Op-Amp is 0.05s.The small signal bandwidth is

A
7 kHz
B
20 kHz
C
7 MHz
D
20 MHz

Question 141Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
The output of a linear circuit, driven with a sine wave at a frequency f, is itself a sine wave
1. at the same frequency
2. with chance of changed amplitude
3. with chances of changed amplitude and phase
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
1 only
C
1 and 3
D
2 only

Question 142Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
The main contribution to photo conduction is by
1. the generation of electron and hole pair by a photon
2. a donor electron jumping into the conduction band because of a photon’s energy
3. a valence electron jumping into an acceptor state because of a photon’s energy Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 143Single Answer

Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the temperature of the FET increase

A
mobility decreases
B
trans-conductance increases
C
drain current increases
D
trans-conductance decreases

Question 144Single Answer

For the same network, with 6 V DC connected at port A, 1 Ω connected at port B draws 7/3 A. if 8 V DC is connected to port A, the open circuit voltage at port B is

A
6 V
B
7 V
C
8 V
D
9 V

Question 145Single Answer

A signal may have frequency components which lie in the range of 0.001 Hz to 10 Hz. Which one of the following types of couplings should be chosen in a multistage amplifier designed to amplify the signal?

A
Capacitor coupling
B
Direct coupling
C
Transformer coupling
D
Double-tuned transformer coupling

Question 146Single Answer

If an input impedance of op-amp is finite, then which one of the following statements related to virtual ground is correct ?

A
Virtual ground condition may exist.
B
Virtual ground condition cannot exist
C
In case of op-amp, virtual ground condition always exists.
D
Cannot make a valid declaration

Question 147Single Answer

Hysteresis is desirable in a Schmitt-trigger because

A
energy is to be stored/discharged in parasitic capacitances
B
effects of temperature variations would be compensated
C
devices in the circuit should be allowed time for saturating and de-saturation
D
it would prevent noise from causing false triggering

Question 148Single Answer

In a photoconductive cell the resistance, of the semiconductor material varies with intensity of incident light.

A
directly
B
inversely
C
exponentially
D
logarithmically

Question 149Single Answer

In graded index multimode optical fiber the refractive index of the core is

A
uniform across its radial distance except for the cladding
B
maximum at the fiber axis and decreased stepwise towards the cladding
C
maximum at the fiber axis and decreases gradually towards the cladding.
D
maximum at the fiber axis and increases stepwise towards the cladding

Question 150Single Answer

Consider the following factors:
1. Number of turns of the coil
2. Length of the coil
3. Area of cross-section of the coil
4. Permeability of the core
On which of the above factors does inductance, depend?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4
D
2 and 4 only

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